Answer:
The correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
Explanation:
Insulin is the hormone that is made by the pancreas that permits the cells to absorb sugar or glucose to acts as energy. If insulin level is increase in the blood it will lead to increase the feeling of the hunger even however physiological you not need more food.
Leptin in other hand has the role as hunger hormone which include the lowering the feeling of the hunger if present in high level.
Thus, the correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
A woman has been treated for a tumor of the left breast that has not responded to chemotherapy. The woman has just found out that she has the BRCA mutations and discusses her options with her primary care provider. Which treatment would be most difficult for this woman?
Answer:
Chemotherapy
Explanation:
Why is cholesterol not considered an essential nutrient? What organ manufactures cholesterol? What foods contain cholesterol? What other compounds in the body are made with cholesterol as the starting material?
Answer:
1. Cholesterol is not considered an essential nutrient because the liver is able to produce it.
2. The liver manufactures cholesterol
3. Foods that come from animals contain cholesterol
4. Cholesterol is a precursor molecule for all steroid hormones and vitamin D.
Explanation:
Cholesterol is a molecule biodynthesized by all animal cells and it is metabolized and produced in the liver of humans. It has a wide range of functions, including being part of all animal cell membranes, takes part in intercellular transport, in signaling, it is a precursor molecule in vitamins D and many hormones and it is part of our metabolism. Cholesterol is found in all animal products and in some plant foods such as avocado, flax seeds and peanuts.
Which statement is TRUE regarding Healthy People 2020?
a) It is revised frequently by the USDA.
b) It explains the 5 food groups.
c) It is revised every 20 years by the DHHS.
d) It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education.
The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It is developed by the DHHS, not the USDA, and targets all aspects of health.
Explanation:The statement that is TRUE regarding Healthy People 2020 is: d) It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. Healthy People 2020 is a program developed by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) in the United States with the goal of improving the nation's health.
This initiative sets out a comprehensive set of 10-year national goals and objectives for improving the health of all Americans. While it is reviewed and evaluated every decade by the DHHS, it does not fall within the purview of the USDA, and it goes beyond dietary guidelines like the 5 food groups to encompass all aspects of health, with a particular focus on eliminating disparities and enhancing access to health education.
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The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It's an initiative revised every ten years by the DHHS that focuses on promoting health equality and enhancing health knowledge access, instead on explaining the five food groups.
Explanation:The correct statement regarding Healthy People 2020 is: It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education.
Healthy People 2020 is an initiative by the U.S Department of Health & Human Services (DHHS). This organization revisits and updates its objectives every ten years, not every 20 years as stated in the question. Healthy People 2020 does not directly deal with providing explanations of the five food groups; such guidelines' framing lies more with the USDA. Its primary focus is on promoting health equity and enhancing the health knowledge and education access across the American population to improve nationwide health outcomes.
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Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:
Here is the complete question
Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:
a.ill and needs medical attention.
b.not as physically active now as when she was 11 months old.
c.in a less rapid stage of growth now.
d.becoming malnourished.
Answer:
in a less rapid stage of growth now
Explanation:
The calorie is a unit of energy that is ubiquitously used in nutrition. A measure of how much energy a food contains is dependent on the number of calories in the food. Estimation by researchers have proven and shown that a gram of carbohydrates has 4 calories, a gram of protein has 4 calories and a gram of fat has 9 calories and Compilation of these three are essential for body body build up.
If Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg, the body weight at 14 months will be less rapid than she did at 11 months, it is likely acceptable to justify there is a less rapid stage of growth now in Nancy after consuming fewer amount of calories in subsequent months than earlier.
A chef sees unused ingredients in the refrigerator so wants to design adapt a recipe to a recipe he can make with the ingredients he has. What steps will he take to determine the number of portions he can make if he cannot make a full recipe?
Final answer:
To determine the number of portions a chef can make with unused ingredients, they need to identify the required amounts, compare them to the available amounts, and calculate the limiting ingredient.
Explanation:
When a chef wants to adapt a recipe based on the ingredients they have, they need to determine the number of portions they can make. Here are the steps they can take:
Identify the total amount of each ingredient required for the recipe.
Weigh or measure the corresponding ingredients they have in their refrigerator.
Calculate the ratio between the required amount and the available amount for each ingredient.
Find the lowest ratio amongst all the ingredients. This will be the limiting ingredient.
Divide the available amount of the limiting ingredient by its ratio to determine the number of portions they can make.
By following these steps, the chef will be able to determine the number of portions they can make when they don't have enough ingredients to make a full recipe.
Describe some negative effects of competitive stress and explain how to manage it in a positive manner
Answer:
Any of the usual symptoms associated with stress (nervousness, high blood pressure, more susceptible to colds); relaxation and a positive attitude are important.
Explanation:
Competitive stress as defined by a psychologist is an "Feeling of difference between the demands placed on a athlete by the people around the athlete and the athlete's reaction capability and and resource for getting those expectation."Like any type of stress competitive stress has it's negative effects as well .An athlete might get nervous,might receive unnecessary pressure and even might loose confidence.It can be managed by keeping a positive attitude ,relaxing oneself and by not putting to much stress on oneself.Malnutrition includes deficiencies, imbalances, and excesses of nutrients, alone or in combination, any of which can take a toll on health over time.A. TrueB. False
Answer: True
Explanation: malnutrition is essentially the lack of nourishment. An imbalance (less or more) of one or more nutrients certainly has the capacity of causing health issues. And as such it includes deficiencies, overabundance and imbalances.
A client in labor has been given an epidural anesthetic. Which nursing assessment finding is most important immediately following the administration of epidural anesthesia?
Answer:
c) Maternal pulse increases from 78 to 96 beats/minute.
In which of the following phases of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model can the TRX Suspension push-up be effectively integrated?
Answer:
Which activity is an example of binging?
consuming a lot of food in one day
reading a couple chapters of a book every day
watching an episode of the same show every day
drinking a cup of coffee each morning
Explanation:
While the government cannot guarantee health and safety for each individual, its role is to provide for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole.A) True B) False
Answer:
(A). True.
Explanation:
'The government cannot guarantee health and safety for each individual, its role is to provide for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole'.
The above statement is true, the government by protecting public health, financing public health sector, improving health policies.
The government through the executive arm of the government appoint people, for example, ministerial appointment to the health ministry, the people appointed will have to work in order to improve the health sector.
The Government also,during planning of national budget, the government release money into the health sector for its improvement.
This improvements in health sector is for the provision for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole.
Personal hygiene is an important part of being a responsible person. True or False
Answer:True
Explanation:
An optimum number of overlearning opportunities is approximately _____% of the number of trials required for acquisition of the behavior. a. 50% b. 25% c. 33% d. 75%
Answer:
a. 50%
Explanation:
Overlearning is a condition in which an individual undergoes repeated practice after which the main objective of the practice has already be achieved. The probability of acquistion of the behavior in the practice is either the individual was successful after learning it once again or not successful . In both cases, the number of the required outcome is 1 and the number of all possible outcome is 2.
∴ The sample space can be given as:
Sample Space (S) = [tex]\frac{number of required outcome}{total number of possible outcome}[/tex]
Sample Space (S) = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]
= 0.5; (in percentage, we have)
= 50%
Final answer:
In educational psychology, the recommended optimum number of overlearning opportunities is around 50% of the required trials for initial behavior acquisition. Thus,option A is correct.
Explanation:
An optimum number of overlearning opportunities is a concept in educational psychology that refers to the amount of additional practice beyond initial mastery needed to consolidate learning. The commonly recommended amount is approximately 50% of the number of trials required for acquisition of the behavior. This practice ensures that the learned behavior is solidified and can be recalled more easily in the future.
"The epiphyseal line is the bone marking that results when the growth plate becomes calcified or 'closed.' The line is slightly raised and rougher than the surrounding bone." Based on this passage and your knowledge of bone growth, which of the following describes how the epiphyseal plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line?
a. Osteoclasts break down the cartilage within the epiphyseal line.
b. Osteocytes communicate to the body replace the bone with cartilage.
c. Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line.
d. Osteocytes maintain the osteoclasts needed to build the bone.
Answer:
c. Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line
Explanation:
At epiphyseal plate , bone grows in length . Cartilage present in epiphyseal plate continues to grow by the process of mitosis.Osteoblasts are the bone forming cells which move in and ossify the matrix to form the bone. The chondrocytes begin to degenerate then and the large epiphyseal plate is replaced by a thin epiphyseal line.
The epiphyseal plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line due to the action of the osteoblasts that build new bone tissue, thereby calcifying the growth plate and forming the epiphyseal line.
Explanation:The epiphyseal plate is a cartilaginous layer within the long bone where growth occurs. It is gradually replaced by the epiphyseal line as a person reaches adolescence or adult maturity. This happens due to the process of bone growth and remodeling, where osteoblasts build new bone tissue that replaces the cartilage in the epiphyseal plate.
This growth plate calcifies, or hardens, thereby halting bone growth and forming the slightly raised, rough line known as the epiphyseal line. Therefore, the best description would be option 'c': Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line.
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Long after she had successfully extinguished a dog's classically conditioned response of salivating at the sound of a bell, Dr. Sheckenov noticed that the dog again salivated when it heard the bell. This example illustrates the phenomenon of _______.
a. instinctive drift.b. stimulus generalization.c. spontaneous recovery.d. latent learning.
Answer:
c. spontaneous recovery
Explanation:
Dogs tend to associate stimuli and develop a response. Spontaneous recovery is related to learning and memory, and in technical terms, it is the reappearance of a conditioned response after a delay. It is associated with classical conditioning, by combining two stimuli and producing a response.
The phenomenon where an extinguished conditioned response reappears after a rest period is called spontaneous recovery. Option C is correct.
The phenomenon illustrated when Dr. Sheckenov noticed that the dog again salivated at the sound of the bell long after the conditioned response had been extinguished is known as spontaneous recovery.
After a rest period without the conditioned stimulus, an extinguished conditioned response can spontaneously return. In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus repeatedly, leading to a decrease in the conditioned response. However, with spontaneous recovery, the conditioned response can reappear after some time even without retraining.
Hence, C. is the correct option.
Miralee needs a new toothbrush. She wants a toothbrush that gently massages her gums. There is a new electric toothbrush on the market that is all the rage right now. A famous actor endorses it, and everyone has been talking about it. There is also another regular toothbrush that has extremely soft bristles. While both are in the same price range, the regular toothbrush has softer bristles that will take care of her sensitive gums. In addition, the handle is sturdy and has a solid rubber grip. There is no celebrity endorsing this toothbrush, though.
Which criteria should Miralee use for her selection? Check all that apply.
that the toothbrush is safe to use
that the toothbrush is of superior quality
that the toothbrush massages gums
that the toothbrush is endorsed by a celebrity
that the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association
ANSWER:
- that the toothbrush is safe to use.
- that the toothbrush is of superior quality.
- that the toothbrush massages gums.
- that the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association.
The answer to the given question about the use of toothbrush by Miralee is explained below.
Explanation:
As Miralee has some gum problem and she wants a new toothbrush that can help her massage her gums and sooth them, so she should select the toothbrush on the basis of what comfort or advantage she is seeking in it.
So Miralee should go for the following selection:
the toothbrush is safe to use. the toothbrush is of superior quality. the toothbrush massages gums. the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association.She should not go for a toothbrush just because it is endorsed by a famous celebrity, rather she should choose the brush according to her needs.
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Answer:
the toothbrush is safe to use.
the toothbrush is of superior quality.
the toothbrush massages gums.
the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association
Explanation:
Indirect standardization should be used if age-specific death rates of the population for standardization are unknown or unstable. True or false?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
In a given population system whereby the age-specific mortality rates can be estimated or determined, the best standardization method is the direct method. However, if the age-specific mortality rates of the given population system cannot be determined or estimated, the indirect standardization method should be applied.
A policyowner has a health insurance policy with his wife listed as the primary beneficiary. He would like to change the primary beneficiary to his sister. Which of the following is true?
Answer:
Unless the policy designated the current beneficiary as irrevocable, the policy owner can make the change at any time.
Explanation:
A primary beneficiary is simply the person you have selected in your health insurance policy to be the one to be called upon to receive any benefits. In the case of a health insurance policy, changing primary beneficiary can be done at any time the owner deems necessary. The only circumstance in which the primary beneficiary is irrevocable is only if it is stated in the policy.
A client diagnosed with cancer has met with the oncologist and is now weighing whether to undergo chemotherapy or radiation for treatment. This client is demonstrating which ethical principle in making this decision?
a) Autonomy.
b) Justice.
c) Beneficence.
d) Confidentiality.
Answer: Autonomy
Explanation:
Autonomy is the capacity to make uncoerced decisions. That is, making an independent decision out of one's free will rather than being forced.
Personal autonomy as being demonstrated by this client is the capacity for one to decide and pursue a course of action in one's life by oneself.
According to the Employee Benefit Research Institute (EBRI), in 2013 ________ percent of employers with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.
Answer:
80 percent of employees with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.
Explanation:
EBRI is a non-partisan and non-profit research institute in Washington D.C. It produces research data on different public economics and health issues such as savings, retirement, economic security, health insurance coverage etc. It provides authentic research-based data to address the physical health and financial well-being graphs of the United States population specially the retired citizens.
Answer: 80 percent of employees with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.
Explanation:
On the bus on the way to school, Angelique’s friend Jack shows her his new ear piercing. When she asks him where he had it done, he says his friend Georgia did it for him at her house. Jack says she did piercings on a few of their friends over the weekend using a safety pin. What are the possible negative outcomes from Jack’s decisions? Check all that apply. tetanus nerve damage hearing loss allergic reaction hepatitis
ANSWER:
- tetanus
- nerve damage
- allergic reaction
- hepatitis
Answer:
All the answers except hearing loss.
Explanation:
your welcome
Ear and nose piercing is done on the body parts using a pointed needle-like object and jewellery is inserted in the place.
The possible negative outcomes from Jack’s decisions are:
Option 1: TetanusOption 2: Nerve damageOption 4: Allergic reactionOption 5: HepatitisThis can be explained as:
Tetanus is a bacterial illness that concerns the jaw muscles and seals them. It can be caused by punctured areas.Nerves lying below skin surfaces can get injured due to sharp objects.An allergic reaction can occur due to unsafe needle piercing as they can have bacteria and other microbes on them.Hepatitis or liver damage can happen due to the use of the same unhygienic needle.Therefore, except hearing loss all are possible outcomes.
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Reggie takes a look at the time between antibiotic order and administration in the other ICUs in his hospital. He discovers that most of the ICUs have the same problem. This is an example of which of the following actions of leaders discussed in this lesson?
Answer:
Forming a clearer picture of the problem .
Explanation:
The intensive care unit (ICU) is the special health care department that provide special care to the patient. The ICU involves the proper sterile condition to the patient.
The ICU have some problem that are common to almost all the ICU. The Reggie example illustrates that clear picture of the problem faced by the ICU. The Reggie has the leadership quality and in the high position to take legal action against the hospital leadership.
Thus, the correct answer is forming a clearer picture of the problem .
The health care team determines that the family of an infant with failure to thrive who is to be discharged will need follow-up care. Which approach would be the most effective method of follow-up?
Answer:
a weekly visit schedule by a community health Nurse
Explanation:
The infant-mother interaction monitoring is very paramount after discharge,
The need to monitor and evaluate progression in the infant weight gain is another important target of the follow up.
Therefore the community health nurse needs scheduled weekly visit to the child;s home environment to meet up with the two above essential duties, to provide support, care, education and proffer solutions to some healthcare challenges that may arise with mother and the child in their permanent natural environment.
A Medicare supplement contract cannot define a "pre-existing condition" more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment recommended within how many months of the effective date of coverage?
Answer:
Within six months of effective date of coverage.
Explanation:
the Medicare supplement Insurance minimum standards- regulation 33 states that the issuer may not apply pre-existing condition limitations for those diseases that are prevalent for more than six months and are covered by the exchanged health policy. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) allows insurers to refuse coverage for 12 months within six months of the pre-existing condition and does not need to add benefits in the given previous plan.
A nurse is discussing the role of vitamin D in calcium regulation with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?A. "Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet." B. "Vitamin D3 is preferred over vitamin D2."C. "Vitamin D can promote bone decalcification."D. "Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestine."
Answer:
Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet.
Explanation:
The vitamins are the chemicals that are required in the diet in the small amounts. The deficiency and its excessive presence in the body can cause the disease in the individual.
Two main types of vitamin are fat soluble vitamins and water soluble vitamins. The vitamin D is the fat soluble vitamin and its deficiency can cause rickets. These vitamins must be obtained from the external source and not present naturally in the diet.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Which entity was charged with providing leadership for the development and nationwide implementation of an interoperable health information technology infrastructure?a. ONCb. CMSC. IOMd. None of the above
Answer:
Answer is ONC.
Explanation:
The full meaning of ONC is Office of the National Coordinator For Health Information Technology.
The role of this office the promotion of health information technology through out the United States, also monitoring its development.
They are the office to see into the provision of the electronic health records which will help to prevent or stop medical error and eventually stop the use of paper records.
A client admitted to the cardiac care unit after a myocardial infarction develops shortness of breath, tachycardia, and a cough with frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which breath sound will the nurse expect when assessing this client?
Answer:
Course rales.
Explanation:
Myocardial infarction may be defined as the medical condition in which the heart do not receive blood supply in the particular part. This might effect the heart muscle and the death of an individual.
Course rales are the brief, popping sound that are mainly experienced in the case of myocardial infarction. The client might develop the sputum that reflects the breath sounds by the accumulation of the fluid in the lungs. This might cause the heart failure as well.
Thus, the correct answer is course rales.
The expected breath sound the nurse will hear when assessing the client with symptoms of pulmonary edema is crackles (rales), which occur due to fluid in the lung's alveoli.
When the nurse assesses this client, the expected breath sound is crackles, also known as rales. These crackling sounds occur when air moves through the fluid-filled alveoli during breathing. The combination of shortness of breath, tachycardia, cough with frothy pink-tinged sputum, and the presence of crackles strongly suggests that this client has developed pulmonary edema following their myocardial infarction.
In similar scenarios such as pneumonia or bronchitis, crackles may also be heard due to the presence of mucus in the airways. The nurse should document the findings, including the character of the breath sounds and other observations, and report them promptly to the healthcare provider for further management. In severe cases of respiratory distress, interventions like BiPAP therapy, antibiotics, or other medications may be necessary based on the underlying cause.
Column A Column B Column C Column D textbooks gas money doctor's office co-pay movie tickets tuition parking pass medicine prescription television on-campus food plan car repair insurance payment online game subscription Which column of expenses can be most easily eliminated if income decreases? Column A Column B Column C Column D
Answer:
Column D
movie tickets
television
online game subscription
Answer: The best answer for this is D. I just took the test
Explanation:
There is some evidence that relaxation techniques may be an effective part of an overall treatment plan for some stress related disorders, including all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: Hi, you provided an incomplete question, but no to worry I will provide you with some basic information about this in order for you to be able to tackle questions on this.
Explanation:
Ok, let us start by defining Relaxation techniques. Well, relaxation techniques are the methods or therapy used to reduce stress and increase the blood flow to the muscles.
There are many importance of Practicing relaxation techniques. Few of the importance are giving below;
(1). Relaxation techniques helps reduce blood pressure.
(2). Relaxation techniques reduce fatigue and stress.
(3).Relaxation techniques increases digestion.
Some types of Relaxation techniques include the following;
(1). Visualization, (2). Massage, (3). Yoga, (4) Autogenic training, (5). Music and art therapy, (5). Hydrotherapy, (6). Deep breathing and so on.
There has been evidences that relaxation techniques may be an effective part of an overall treatment plan for some stress related disorders. Few of these evidence are; in chemotherapy-induced nausea, management of chronic headaches in children and so on.
Which drug can be used to treat three types of seizures (tonic-clonic seizures, complex partial seizures) and status epilepticus?
Answer:
Lamotrigine
Explanation:
Lamotrigine is an adjunctive therapy for the treatment of partial seizures, primary generalized tonic–clonic seizures, and generalized seizures of Lennox–Gastaut syndrome in patients two years of age and above.
The philosophy that health has physical, emotional, spiritual, and social components, and that each is just as important as the others is termed___________.
Answer:
Philosophy of Symmetry
Explanation:
In the philosophy of health, we have the philosophy of symmetry, wellness philosophy, and the holistic philosophy. From the philosophy of symmetry point of view, health has "physical, emotional, spiritual, and social component". with all of them being equally important and should always be kept in a balance. The wellness philosophy has 6 dimensions and the holistic philosophy, with environmental and intellectual joining the list of philosophy of symmetry.
Answer:
Wellness
Explanation:
This is a state of complete physical, mental and social-welbeing but not necessarily absence of disease.