Answer:
Morris, Ted, and Rosa are all part of user groups that influences the formation of accounting standards.
Explanation:
NOTE that SEC means Securities and Exchange Commission (Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is a U.S. government agency that oversees securities transactions, activities of financial professionals and mutual fund trading to prevent fraud and intentional deception).
Morris, Ted, and Rosa are all part of user groups that influences the formation of accounting standards.The three of them are members of user groups that influence the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB). PCAOB is a non-profit organization that regulates auditors of publicly traded companies. They basically minimize audit risks. This is related to the three's fields.Morris and Ted are members of user groups that influence the formation of accounting standards, while Rosa is part of a user group that influences internal controls.Ted is part of a user group that influences internal controls, while Morris and Rosa are members of user groups that influence the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB). Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) is an independent nonprofit organization that is responsible for establishing accounting and financial reporting standards for companies and nonprofit organizations in the United States.Vitamins are specific organic compounds that are required in the diet to aid in digestion of :__________
a) proteins.
b) provide essential amino acids.
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
d) provide fiber
Answer:
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
Explanation:
Vitamins are essential and specific organic compounds that are required mainly in the diet to facilitate the digestion of protein, however, they are not categorized with amino acids and as such they can't provide essential amino acid.
Vitamins are categorized into fat soluble vitamins(A,D,E and K) and water soluble vitamins (B anc C). Vitamins provides several to hundred of roles, majorly they helps to prevent deficiency diseases. Few of their roles are:
Vitamin A helps to prevent blindness. Food sources to obtain vitamin A include spinach, cod liver oil etc.
Vitamin D helps to maintain skeletal structure due to the calcium content embedded in Vitamin D. Therefore, lack of vitamin D can cause rickets.
Vitamin B-complexes e.g B-1 (thiamin) helps in synthesis of certain hormones, B-2 (riboflavin) which asssists in breakdown of fats and energy production. It can be gotten from Milk, youghurt etc. Deficiency in these vitamin B-complexes can cause heart-related disease, skin disorders, anemia etc.
Liza is an early-maturing girl who just reached menarche. She is very upset and is having a difficult time adjusting. Which of the following is the most likely reason for Liza's feelings?a. Liza was unprepared for menarche; her mother hadn't even told her about it yet.b. All of Liza's friends had already reached menarche and she felt left out.c. Liza was well prepared for menarche and had learned a lot from her peers.d. All of Liza's siblings are boys and she feels uncomfortable.
Answer:
Liza was unprepared for menarche; her mother hadn't even told her about it yet.
Explanation:
The body of the teenagers undergoes through the different physical and physiological change. Both girls and boys becomes reproductively mature and has changed in the voice and development of special physical characters.
The girls starts shows menstruation. The start of the menstruation is known as menarche. The girls should give prior knowledge and support during this stage. In case of Liza, she was unprepared for the menarche and has no prior knowledge. The Liza's mother did not give her any knowledge.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
What name is given to the process in which the information encoded in a strand of mRNA is used to construct a protein?
Answer:
Translation
Explanation:
Translation is the process where mRNA is used to form polypeptide chains which fold into proteins.
True or False: Meiosis halves the chromosome number, whereas mitosis maintains the same chromosome number.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Meiosis is the kind of cell division that results in the production of daughter cells with each cell having half number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Meiosis is the cell division employed by reproductive cells to produce gametes/sex cells. Meiosis occurs in two stages i.e. Meiosis I and II. The chromosome number reduces by half in gametes in order to ensure that after fertilization of both male and female gamete, the resulting organism has the correct set of chromosomes. e.g diploid organism produces haploid gametes which fuses to produce a diploid organism again.
Mitosis is another type of cell division that results in identical daughter cells. They are identical in the sense that they possess the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell that divided. For example, a diploid cell undergoes mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells.
Theodor Schwann and Matthias Schleiden were major contributors to the Cell Theory as we know it. In 1839 Schwann published a book including a summary of his observations into three conclusions about cells: 1. The cell is the unit of structure, physiology, and organization in living things. 2. The cell retains a dual existence as a distinct entity and a building block in the construction of organisms. 3. Cells form by free-cell formation, similar to the formation of crystals (spontaneous generation). Which one of Schwann's statements is no longer accepted as truth? A) Cells are found in both living and nonliving entities. Eliminate B) Cells are distinct identities, not just building blocks. C) Cells form via free cell formation from existing cells only. D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.
Answer:
D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.
The claim, which is also a component of Virchow's explanation of the cell theory, is that the cells developed from previously existing cells, hence d is the correct option.
What is cell theory?Rudolph Virchow was a German biologist who constructed his own hypothesis on the research of other scientists, including Theodor Schwann.
After conducting several research, Virchow disproved the theory of spontaneous generation and insisted that not all cells differentiate, but only a subset of them do.
Although Virchow wasn't the one to originally propose the theory that cells originate from already existing cells, he was the one to popularize the idea and add it to the original hypothesis that all living things are composed of cells.
Therefore, cells come from free cell formation which is similar to spontaneous generation is no longer accepted, hence d is the correct option.
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A scientific theory is
A. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.
B. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and only been disproven a few times.
C. an opinion.
D. a hypothesis that has been tested at least five times.
E. an idea based on a person's experience or knowledge.
Answer:
The correct answer is A. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.
Explanation:
A hypothesis is an idea or guess or a proposed explanation of any phenomena. When the hypothesis is checked and proved by many experiments and cannot be disproven by anyone then it considered as a scientific theory.
Therefore a scientific theory is a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested by the performing different experiments and never been disproven. For example theory of evolution, natural selection which tell us about the evolution of organism on earth which is proven by Darwin. So the right answer is A.
The study of the matter around us is called science.
The correct answer to the question is option A which is a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.
What is a theory?A theory is a rational type of abstract thinking about a phenomenon or the results of such thinking. The process of contemplative and rational thinking is often associated with such processes as observational study or research.A hypothesis is defined as an idea based on a person's experience or knowledge. when the hypothesis is proven right after the rigorously tested in the field it will become theory because the statement he said is right and can not be changed.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
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Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.)
Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.
a. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
b. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis Il. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis lI
d. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis !, and remains haploid in meiosisI.
e. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis I
Answer:
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.
Explanation:
Anaphase-I of meiosis-I includes the movement of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles of the cell. This even reduces the chromosome number to half in the daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I. Therefore, diploid cells become haploid by the end of meiosis-I. Since chromosomes carry DNA, a reduction in chromosome number also reduces the DNA content of the cells to half in meiosis-I.
Anaphase-II in meiosis-II separates the sister chromatids of each chromosome from each other. These sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell. This event further reduces the DNA content of the cell to half but the chromosome numbers are maintained.
Therefore, a cell with 2C DNA and 2n (diploid) chromosomes form two daughter cells having "C" DNA and "n" chromosomes by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in each of these daughter cells would form a total of 4 daughter cells each having "n" chromosomes and "C" DNA content.
The DNA content is reduced by half in meiosis I and remains the same in meiosis II. The ploidy level remains the same in meiosis I and is reduced by half in meiosis II.
Explanation:Cellular DNA content and ploidy levels during meiosis I and meiosis II:During meiosis I, the DNA content is reduced by half, while the ploidy level remains the same. This is because homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in the formation of two haploid cells. In meiosis II, the DNA content remains the same, but the ploidy level is reduced to half. This is because sister chromatids separate, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells.
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Natural selection suggests that creatures with mutations disadvantageous to survival will not live to reproduce, yet there are examples, such as albino animals, found occasionally. Do these exceptions discredit natural selection? Explain your answer.
Answer: No
Explanation: It is beneficial if the animals that are disadvantageous doesn't reproduce so it doesn't discredit natural selection. The traits in which variation is occured are more suitable for organism to live and reproduce in the environment are preserved and are passed from generation to generation.
However, natural selection effects limited number of progeny.
Answer: These types of exceptions do NOT discredit natural selection.
Explanation: Natural selection is based on the odds that certain traits will not adapt well in certain environments and ecosystems. It recognizes that organisms with mutations may be disadvantageous or not since the mutation is non-specific. In instances such as albinoism, the mutation is more likely to be disadvantageous though in some environments (like the desert) it could be a benefit. Natural selection is not an exact science or absolute rule, it is based on probabilities and variations, so exceptions will always exist.
To enhance diagnostic specificity, DSM-5 replaced the previous "not otherwise specified" (NOS) designation with two options for clinical use: Other Specified [disorder] and Unspecified [disorder]. Which of the following statements about use of the Unspecified designation is true?
a. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.
b. The Unspecified designation is used when there is no recognized Other Specified disorder (e.g. recurrent brief depressions, sexual aversion).
c. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual has fewer than three symptoms of any of the recognized disorders within the diagnostic class.
d. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual presents with symptomatology
of disorders in two or more diagnostic classes.
e. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician believes the condition is of a
temporary nature.
Answer:
The statement that is true about unspecified designation is that the unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.
Explanation:
It is dependent on the conscience of the clinician whether or not to disclose and diagnosis before a solid evidence of the persistence of a specific disorder is obtained. The clinician is not bound to make a disclosure in case of an unspecified designation but he can also choose to give out some primary information. How does a species survive a climate change over thousands of years?
answer choices
It reproduces more rapidly.It hibernates and waits for better climate conditions.It makes no changes.It adapts to the changing climate.
Answer:
It adapts to the changing climate
Explanation:
Species have to acclimatise to changing climate to enable them survive
A means of adaptation is key for survival of species during climate change
If species do not have acclimatisation strategy, they would not be able to survive the changing climate
As a leading microbiologist during the 1800s, _______disproved the theory of_______and completed several studies leading to the germ theory of disease.
Answer:
Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis
Explanation:
Louis Pasteur was the scientist who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation. Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis by using swan-necked flask. He used two swan-necked flask in which media was present and he heated the media to sterile it.
Then he broke the neck of one flask and observed that after some time the broth in broken neck flask showed growth but the unbroken necked flask remained sterile.
So he concluded that flask with swan-necked do not allowed microbe and air passed to the media while air can easily pass to media in broken neck flask which allowed microbe to grow.
He also gave germ theory of disease which says that disease is caused by microorganisms.
Angiosperms, flowering plants, and gymnosperms, cone-bearing plants, reproduce using egg, sperm, and produce seeds. In gymnosperms, like the tree seen here, sperm and eggs can be found in different cones. What is the most common way these trees undergo pollination?
Final answer:
Gymnosperms primarily rely on wind pollination for reproduction, where male cones release pollen that is carried by the wind to female cones containing ovules. The positioning of male and female cones on the tree aids in promoting cross-pollination.
Explanation:
The most common way that gymnosperms, such as coniferous trees, undergo pollination is through wind pollination. In this process, the male cones release pollen, which is a fine powder containing male gametophytes that produce sperm. The pollen is then carried by the wind to reach the female cones, which contain the ovules and the female gametophytes. The female cones are typically larger and located higher on the tree, whereas the male cones are generally smaller and found lower. This strategic placement reduces the chances of self-pollination and promotes cross-pollination between different trees, enhancing genetic diversity.
Gymnosperms, which include conifers such as pines, rely on this method because they do not produce flowers to attract pollinators. As a result, they depend on the wind to transport pollen between the male and female cones, facilitating sexual reproduction and the eventual development of seeds.
Most gymnosperms, such as conifers, undergo pollination through wind dispersal.
This method is highly efficient and relies on the wind to carry pollen from male cones (which produce pollen grains containing sperm) to female cones (which contain egg cells).
When the wind blows, it carries the lightweight pollen grains over considerable distances, increasing the chances of fertilization. Once the pollen lands on the receptive surface of the female cone, fertilization occurs, leading to the formation of seeds.
This process allows gymnosperms to reproduce successfully without the need for external agents like insects or animals. Thus, wind pollination is the most common way gymnosperms undergo pollination, ensuring their continued survival and propagation in various environments.
What will occur if solution A containing 400 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute is separated by a biological membrane from solution B containing 600 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute?
Answer:
The volume of solution B will increase
Explanation:
In a non-penetrating solute, there is denial of a solute to cross the cell membrane.This implies that the solute will not be able to cross the cell membrane. So if the biological membrane is serving as a partition between a solution A containing 400 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute and a solution B containing 600 mosmol/L non-penetrating solute, The volume of solution B will increase.
Destructive waves erode the coastline in a number of ways. Identify the term that describes when air becomes trapped in joints and cracks on a cliff face and when the wave breaks, the trapped air is compressed which weakens the cliff and causes erosion.
Answer:
Hydraulic action
Explanation:
Coastal erosion poses a significant threat to both human life and aquatic wildlife species. As climatic phenomena become more common and glaciers continue to melt, causing sea levels to rise, erosion also becomes more prevalent and affect coastal ecosystems.
Hydraulic action is one the main types of coastal erosion. It occurs when the air is trapped inside the cracks and joints. Therefore, when waves break in the cliff, this trapped air becomes compressed, leading to the erosion of these parts of the coastline. This is extremely harmful as people that live near coastlines become unprotected from floods and storms.
You identify a rare purple plumed parrot. When you cross the parrot to a true breeding white parrot, you get ½ white and ½ purple parrots. When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. Which of the following best explains this result?a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state.b. White is dominant to purple.c. The white allele is lethal in the homozygous state.d. The purple allele is lethal in the heterozygous state.
Answer:
a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state
Explanation:
You cross a purple parrot with a true breeding (homozygous) white parrot and you get 1/2 purple parrots and 1/2 white parrots. This result can only happen if the purple parrot is heterozygous and the white parrot is homozygous recessive (if any of the parents had been homozygous dominant, 100% of the offspring would have had the dominant phenotype).
Then: Pp (purple) X pp (white) ---> 1/2 Pp, 1/2 pp
When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. The 2:1 phenotypic ratio is typical of a lethal allele in the homozygous state.
In a cross of two purple parrots: Pp
X Pp, one would expect the genotypic ratios 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1pp and the phenotypic ratios 3 Purple : 1 white.
But the PP genotype is lethal, so those individuals die and the only purple parrots we see are the heterozygous ones.
Final answer:
The best explanation for the observed 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots when two purple parrots are crossed is that the white allele is lethal in the homozygous state, causing the absence of white homozygous offspring.
Explanation:
The crossing of the rare purple plumed parrot with a true breeding white parrot yielding 50% white and 50% purple parrots indicates that purple is a dominant trait while white is recessive. This is further supported by the second cross between two purple parrots yielding 1/3 white and 2/3 purple parrots, which suggests that white allele is lethal in the homozygous state. When heterozygous parents with the lethal allele are crossed, we would expect a 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots because the white homozygous (recessive lethal) parrots do not survive.
A client undergoes a total hip replacement. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the client requires further teaching?/422563363/chapter-42-prepu-nursing-management-patients-with-musculoskeletal-trauma-flash-cards.
Answer:
I don't know if I'll be able to get off that low toilet seat at home by myself.
Explanation:
The total hip replacement surgery is performed in the patient that have injury in their hip part and the prosthetic hip is used in the surgery. The defects in the body parts can be corrected by this surgery.
The client concern about the use of the toilet seat requires further teaching. The patient is not allowed to bend the hips and requires the devices like raised toilet seat while using the washroom and abduction pillow for the prevention of the hip dislocation.
The most obvious change as children move from the sensorimotor to the preoperational stage is an increase in __________.
Answer:
symbolic activity
Explanation:
A Swiss developmental psychologists named Jean Piaget propounded the theory of cognitive development, which explains how human intelligence and knowledge is being developed and used as an individual progresses from infancy through adulthood.
Piaget’s theory of development describes this cognitive development of the human intelligence in 4 stages which are: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational stage.
The first stage is the sensorimotor stage is observed from birth through ages 18-24 months. At this stage, the child's cognitive development increases as he interacts with his environment and learns how to crawl, stand, and walk.
As children move to the second stage which is the preoperational stage, they begin to develop some symbolic activities such as early language development, which increases at the end of this stage.
The most significant change as children enter the preoperational stage from the sensorimotor stage is the development of symbolic thought and language skills, although their understanding remains intuitive and non-logical.
Explanation:The most obvious change as children transition from the sensorimotor to the preoperational stage is an increase in their symbolic thought and use of language. The preoperational stage is a period between the ages of 2 to 7 where children begin to develop language, imagination, and memory, which allows for the growth of symbolic thought. However, in this stage, while they become adept at using symbols and engaging in pretend play, they show limitations, such as egocentrism and a lack of understanding of the principle of conservation. They may demonstrate a belief that quantity changes when an object's appearance changes, like assuming there is 'more water' in a taller, thinner glass after it has been poured from a shorter, wider one.
Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism's physiology because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues in an endocrine axis and within the second messenger systems of individual cells.truefalse
Answer: True,
Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues due to the second messenger systems.
explanation:
Second messemgers are the intracellular molecules which are activated by the extracellular molecules. Second messengers intracellulary triggers physiological changes such as proliferation differentiation migration etc.
When hormones are released they bind to specific receptors such as G-coupled recptors,tyrosine recpetor which when activated further activates second messengers such as cAMP and STAT respectively.
These second messengers amplify the hormone secretion and production by phosphorylation and increasing transcription.
Hence this is true that second messnegers amplify the hormones and their physiological results.
A researcher wants to determine if a new treatment program of yoga and vitamin A will improve test-taking skills in college students. To ensure that participants in the experimental condition are very similar to participants in the control condition, the researcher should:a. Randomly assign the participants to the conditions.
b. Choose the first people who signed up for the study to be in the control condition.
c. Ask for volunteers from a local yoga school.
d. Let the participants choose whether they want to be in the experimental or control condition.
Answer:
Option a
Explanation:
Random selection or random sampling from a given population is the most appropriate way, especially in experimental studies. This method is simple and accurate. According to the above-mentioned case, if the researcher selects students randomly for the experimental and control group, then each of them would have an equal chance of selection. Hence, the results would be generalized and not biased.
_____ on college campuses increases the likelihood of other risky behaviors, such as smoking cigarettes, using drugs, and having multiple sexual partners.
Answer: Heavy drinking
Explanation:
Heavy drinking in the college campus increases the chances of the misbehave among students and other people.
There can be risky behavior, such as smoking cigarettes, drugs or having sex with multiple partners.
These behavior gets favored in effect of alcohol. The person is not conscious and can behave in a very bad way to the people around him.
The combination of dominant tree species in Eastern forests will likely change in the future. Some forest types, including spruce/fir and maple/beech/birch, may shrink significantly or disappear altogether, depending on how greatly carbon dioxide emissions increase in the future. How would you adapt your behavior to create a different scenario, one in which the was no substantial change in the tree species over time? Select the tactic that would be of NO help.
A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint.
B) Consider alternate energy resources that are not carbon-based: solar or wind energy.
C) Eat locally-produced and organic food; cur meat and dairy consumption.
D) Manage lands for restoration and watershed conservation.
Answer:
The tactic which will be of no help will be A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint.
Explanation:
Increasing demand for green products will require the cutting down of trees for meeting up the needs. Hence, lesser the trees, more will be the carbon dioxide as trees tend to take up carbon dioxide and use it in the process of photosynthesis.
Also, by using green products, our carbon footprint will not be reduced because the amount of carbon dioxide we release will remain the same. Hence, option A is the correct option.
The substantial change in the tree species over time A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint. Therefore , A) Increase your demand for green products and services to reduce your carbon footprint is correct .
The relationship between the increasing demand for green products and the potential consequence of cutting down trees presents a complex environmental challenge.
While green products aim to reduce environmental impact, the production process and raw material extraction may counterintuitively contribute to deforestation, leading to a higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Trees play a crucial role in sequestering carbon dioxide through photosynthesis, a process that helps mitigate climate change by converting CO2 into oxygen.
Therefore, cutting down trees to meet the demand for resources may exacerbate the issue of rising carbon dioxide levels.
It's essential to carefully consider the sustainability of sourcing practices for green products to avoid inadvertently contributing to deforestation.
Furthermore, the claim that using green products does not reduce our carbon footprint needs clarification.
While it's true that some green products may still have associated carbon emissions in their production, transportation, and disposal, the overall environmental impact is often lower compared to conventional alternatives.
Adopting a comprehensive approach that includes sustainable sourcing, production, and disposal practices can contribute to a more significant reduction in carbon footprint, even if it may not eliminate it entirely.
Addressing the growing demand for green products requires a holistic and sustainable approach that considers the environmental impact throughout the product's life cycle.
Balancing this demand with the preservation of trees and mindful resource management is essential for mitigating the adverse effects on atmospheric carbon dioxide levels.
The relationship between abstract virtues (principles) and ________ (practice) is often difficult to grasp.
Answer:
Values
Explanation:
A virtue is a characteristic of a person that supports individual well being and moral excellence. They are also called principles.
Values on the other hand are what is culturally acceptable.
The relationship between them is that values are desirable qualities whereas virtues are rules.
Sometimes it is difficult to grasp the relationship between the two since most people presume they are similar.
Some pigs learned to pick up and deposit wooden coins in a piggy bank, but soon the pigs were more often dropping the coins and pushing them with their snouts. This best illustrates the concept of ________ in operant conditioning.a) Conditioned reinforcementb) latent learningc) generalizationd) biological predisposition
Answer:
Biological predisposition.
Explanation:
Operant conditioning may be defined as the form of the learning that are mainly associated with the punishments and rewards of an individual. John B. Watson introduces the concept of operant conditioning.
The learning of the pigs to pick the coins and its deposition in the bank is considered as rewarded with some conditions. The biological predisposition occurs in the memory of the pigs as this increases the likelihood works of the pigs.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Ira brags about how wonderful he is, talks endlessly about his accomplishments, and pushes people to admire him. He lashes out when his inflated sense of importance is threatened by others. Ira would rate high in a measure of ________.
Answer:
Narcissism
Explanation:
Narcissism is a kind of personality disorder in which a person has a sense of admiration, fragile self-esteem and heightened sense of self importance. People with such disorder face serious problems in their relationships and are always disappointed if not given favors and admiration. Other people do not prefer to stay around a narcissist. They have a tendency to monopolize communication ad perceive other people inferior to themselves.
What is the molecular movements is due to diffusion or osmosis?
Answer:
is the movement of substances due to random thermal molecular motion. is the diffusion constant, representative values of which are found in [link]. Osmosis is the transport of water through a semipermeable membrane from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
Explanation:
What is a species? Question 10 options: A group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another.
Answer: The statement is true
Explanation:
Species is a group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another but a member of a species cannot interbreed with a member of another species.
For example, all human beings belong to a species, while all giraffes belong to a different species, So both human beings and giraffes cannot interbreed.
So, the statement is true
Which of these statements about the afferent division of the nervous system is true?It ascends with sensory information.It descends with motor information.It descends with sensory information.It ascends with motor information.
It ascends with sensory information.
Explanation:
The peripheral nervous system has two parts: Efferent division and the afferent division.The afferent division of the nervous system consists of the sense organs and sensory nerves.The efferent division consists of the motor nerves and the effector organs.The afferent division is thus, concerned with reception of sensory stimulus and directing the nerve impulse to the mixed nerves.The efferent division is concerned with receiving the impulse from the mixed nerves and directing it towards the effector organ to produce a suitable response to the stimulus.Bacteria are extremely diverse in structure and in how they obtain energy and nutrients. This diversity enables bacteria to live in a wide variety of environments. Classify each statement or picture as applying to gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, or both. Drag each item to the appropriate bin.
Answer and explanation:
Gram positive bacteria :
1) They retain crystal violet stain thus staining purple
2)They only produce exotoxins.
3)Peptidoglycan is thicker and multilayered
4)Techoic acids are present in their cell walls.
5)Lipopolysaccharides are absent in their cell wall.
6)No periplasmic space present
Gram negative bacteria :
1) They retain red safaranin stain thus stain pink.
2)They produce both exotoxins as well as endotoxins.
3)Peptidoglycan is thinner and single layered.
4)Techoic acids are absent in their cell walls.
5)Lipopolysaccharides are present in their cell wall.
6)Periplasmic space in present.
Answer:
Gram staining is a technique for classifying bacteria based on differences in the structure of their cell walls. Gram-negative bacteria and gram-positive bacteria both have a plasma membrane surrounded by a cell wall that contains peptidoglycan. However, the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is composed of a thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane, whereas the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan. Gram-negative bacteria appear red or pink because the alcohol rinse washes away the crystal violet dye. Gram-positive bacteria appear purple because the alcohol rinse does not wash away the crystal violet dye.
Explanation:
A scientist wants to perform a test that will indicate whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA. Testing for the presence of which of the following is most appropriate in this situation?
The options are :
A) phosphate
B) nitrogen
C) guanine
D) uracil
E) thymine
Answer:
The correct answer is E) thymine
Explanation:
DNA and RNA are both made up of nucleotide. There are two major difference between DNA and RNA. In DNA deoxyribose sugar is present and in RNA ribose sugar is present.
The other difference is in DNA thymine nucleotide is present which makes complementary base pairing with adenine but in RNA thymine is replaced by uracil.
Therefore testing for the presence of thymine is most appropriate in this situation to find out whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA.
Final answer:
To determine whether a nucleic acid sample is RNA or DNA, scientists can test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose and the base uracil or thymine. Techniques like southern and northern blotting along with nucleic acid probes are utilized to detect specific sequences indicative of RNA or DNA.
Explanation:
A scientist determining whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA should test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose, as these sugars are indicative of RNA and DNA, respectively. Additionally, the presence of the base uracil is characteristic of RNA, while thymine is found in DNA. RNA can easily be distinguished from DNA by testing for uracil, which is not present in DNA.
Methods such as southern and northern blotting are used to detect specific sequences in DNA and RNA samples respectively. For DNA, nucleic acid hybridization or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to detect a specific sequence. In the case of RNA, sequencing techniques involve nucleotide-specific cleavage with RNases.
Finally, using nucleic acid probes is another method to distinguish between DNA and RNA. These probes will only bind to nucleic acid samples containing sequences complementary to the probes. Since uracil is unique to RNA, a probe targeting uracil-containing sequences would confirm the presence of RNA in the sample.
The assumption used in phylogenetics that says the simplest explanation is the most likely to be correct is called _____________ .
Answer:
Answer is occam's razor.
Explanation:
Phylogenetics explained the evolutionary differences and similarities associated or found in the relationship of two organisms.
Occam razor is a problem solving principle which states that the simplest explanation among sets of explanation on an event is usually the best or perfect one, meaning that simplicity is equal to perfection.
In this case, the simplest explanation of the of the phylogenetics is the best one.