Answer:
dominant traits cancel out a recessive trait, two dominant traits, such as blue eyes from both parents would equal an 100% dominant trait for blue eyes in the offspring
Answer:
A dominant trait is an inherited trait or characteristic that appears in an offspring and covers the effects of another allele and/or prevails or exhibit its trait above another.
An organism of the genus Staphylococcus is ________, while an organism of the genus Spirochaeta is ________.
Answer:
The question lacks options, the options are:
A) spherical / rod shaped
B) rod shaped / coiled
C) spherical / coiled
D) coiled / spherical
The answer is C
Explanation:
All life forms has been classified into a major wide group called DOMAIN. Bacteria is one of the set of organisms classified in this domain. Bacteria are single-celled organisms composed of different species represented by different genera. Two of those genera is the basis of this question; Staphylococcus and Spirochaeta.
Staphylococcus is one of the genera of bacteria. It consists of species that are gram-positive and spherical in shape (coccal) while Spirochaeta is a bacterial genus that consists of species that are gram-negative, motile and spiral or coiled shaped.
Staphylococcus organisms are gram-positive bacteria and can cause a variety of infections, whereas Spirochaeta organisms are gram-negative bacteria, often spiral-shaped, and include species causing diseases like syphilis.
Explanation:An organism of the genus Staphylococcus is gram-positive, while an organism of the genus Spirochaeta is gram-negative.
Staphylococcus is a type of bacteria that's grouped in clusters like grapes. It's gram-positive, meaning it has a thick peptidoglycan layer that will retain the stain used in a gram stain test. Examples include Staphylococcus aureus, which can cause skin infections, pneumonia, and food poisoning.
Spirochaeta, on the other hand, is a genus of spiral-shaped bacteria. They're gram-negative, possessing a thinner peptidoglycan layer and outer membrane. It will not retain the stain used in a gram stain but will hold a counterstain. Examples include Spirochaeta pallida, which causes the syphilis disease.
Learn more about Bacteria here:https://brainly.com/question/33307224
#SPJ3
What is the main explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females of the same body weight?
Answer:
Male have higher teststerone
Explanation:
Basal metabolic rate is the calories required by a person at rest. This energy is used endothermically by body in maintaining variuos mechanisms such as breathing, blood circulation and liver functioning. More a person is active more will be the energy requirement.
Males have higher basal metabolic rate than females because of higher concentration of testosterone. Testosterone helps in building muscle. More the muscles a person have more will be his basal metabolic rate.
While females have less testosterone and higher proportion of fat cell in body and thus have lower metabolic rate.
The difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females is primarily due to variations in muscle mass and body fat percentage, with men generally having a higher BMR due to larger muscle mass.
Explanation:The main explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates (BMR) between males and females of the same body weight lies in the differences in body composition and metabolic processes. Men typically have a greater muscle mass and a lower body fat percentage than women.
Since muscle tissue has a higher metabolic activity compared to fat tissue, men usually exhibit a higher BMR.
This difference is also reflected in age-related changes, where females experience a more rapid decline in BMR between the ages of 5 and 17 than males.
Furthermore, weight influences BMR, as a heavier weight, specifically more muscle mass, is associated with a higher BMR. For example, the metabolic rate of obese women is approximately 25 percent higher than that of their thinner counterparts.
Factors such as genetics, diet, and physical activity level also play a role in determining an individual's BMR and can be adjusted to modify one's metabolic rate and muscle mass. However, it's important to note that genetic predisposition to a naturally low metabolic rate can make weight management challenging for some individuals.
Describe how diseases are spread happens in communities.
Subject: Anatomy and Physiology
Explanation:
Disease is an abnormal condition of a body that negatively affects the structure or functions of the parts of body of an organism.Disease can be caused by external factors such as pathogens or by internal dysfunctions.The Diseases are further catagorised into Infectious Disease and Non infectious Disease.The Infectious diseases can be spread through direct contact i.e. from person to person. Infectious diseases spread through bacteria, viruses or other germs from one person to another.The disease is also spread through body fluids when blood of one person is transferred to the other person.The non infectious disease do not require any medium to transfer from one person to another.The non infectious disease is caused within the body. It is due to dysfunctioning of body parts.The diseases are spread in communities by the pathogens such as bacteria, viruses etc.Bacteria: Bacteria are single cell organisms, responsible for illnesses such as Tuberculosis, Urinary tract infections.Viruses: Viruses can cause multiple diseases that can range from the common cold to AIDS. Fungi: Fungi can cause skin diseases, such as ringworm and athlete's foot. It also infect our lungs or nervous system. Parasites: Parasites may be transmitted to humans from animal faeces. Malaria disease is caused by a parasite that is transmitted by a mosquito bite.The disease are spread in communities by the above pathogens:1. When the area is filthy.
2.When pot holes are not covered.
3. When the rain water accumulates in a specific area.
4. When the food is not kept safe or it is kept in an open area.
5. When drinking water is not kept safe or it is opened.
6. When the same food or water is used by multiple people in an unhygenic manner.
The height of a yarrow plant (Achillea millefolium) depends on its genotype and the altitude at which it is raised. Suppose that one of the genotypes produces plants that are tall at low and high elevations and short at medium elevations. In this case we might conclude that the genotype codes for the __________ for the yarrow plant.
Select one:
a. variation range of height
b. norm of reaction for height
c. altitude reaction of height
d. flower color
Answer:
The right answer to this question is B. Norm of reaction for height.
Explanation:
Norm of reaction is a type of study that focus on a single genotype, and how it'll influence the phenotype of the species in different environments. In this case, we're studying Achillea Millefolium, that according to the question, depends on one specific genotype to be or not to be tall. Through this information given by the question, we can be sure that this is a norm of reaction, because after that, to check if the plant is tall of not, we test it on different environments, confirming the norm of reaction again.
The genotype codes for the option b. norm of reaction for height in the yarrow plant. This explains how the plant's height varies with altitude, reflecting its phenotypic expression under different environmental conditions.
In this situation, we can presume that the genotype codes for the standard of response for level in the yarrow plant. The term 'standard of response' alludes to the examples of phenotypic articulation of a genotype under various ecological circumstances.
In your model, the genotype produces tall plants at low and high elevations yet short plants at medium heights. The way the plant's phenotype (height) changes in response to the environmental variable (altitude) is shown by this altitude-dependent variation in height, which is a classic illustration of the norm of reaction.
which part of the central nervous system is used to serve as the main communication link between the body and the brain
Answer: The central nervous system (CNS) controls most functions of the body and mind. It consists of two parts: the brain and the spinal cord. The brain is the center of our thoughts, the interpreter of our external environment, and the origin of control over body movement
Explanation: The central nervous system (CNS) controls most functions of the body and mind. It consists of two parts: the brain and the spinal cord.
The brain is the center of our thoughts, the interpreter of our external environment, and the origin of control over body movement. Like a central computer, it interprets information from our eyes (sight), ears (sound), nose (smell), tongue (taste), and skin (touch), as well as from internal organs such as the stomach.
The spinal cord is the highway for communication between the body and the brain. When the spinal cord is injured, the exchange of information between the brain and other parts of the body is disrupted.
Dr. Martin has just asked a potential client to talk about herself. As she responds, the doctors next question is based on some interesting point the client made. There are few constraints on the conversation. Dr martin has just conducted an
Answer:
Unstructured interview was conducted by Dr. Martin.
Explanation:
In unstructured interview the person asks questions randomly, because they are not properly arranged. In other words, these questions are not in a direction but comes randomly.
For example: Dr. Martin asked question to her about herself and when she answered to him then within her answer he took the point and asked question about that point she answered in previous question.
You would like to know whether the progeny of a pair of mated fruit flies are distributed among the resulting four phenotypic classes in a 1:1:1:1 ratio. You perform a chi-square test and obtain a p value of 0.04. Assuming you have done the test correctly, select the best interpretation of this result?
A. The phenotypic ratio is actually 9:3:3:1
B. Approximately 4% of the offspring lie outside the range of values expected for a 1:1:1:1 ratio.
C. The differences between the observed and expected counts are too large to be attributed to chance.
D. The traits being studied are on separate chromosomes.
Answer:
C. The differences between the observed and expected counts are too large to be attributed to chance.
Explanation:
The p-value of the statistic represents the chance that the observed count is based on luck or chance. When p value too high, the research can't be used since the chance that its not represent real condition are too high. Most researchers use 5% (0.05) as the cutoff of something called statistically significant. In this research, the p-value is 0.04 or 4%, so it is statistically significant.
Terrestrial vertebrates use the urea cycle to convert the ammonium ion to urea such that the urea can be excreted. In the production of urea, only one of the nitrogens in the product comes from ammonium ions. What is the source of the other nitrogen?
Answer:
Asparate is the source of other nitrogen
Explanation:
In the terrestrial vertebrate urea cycle is present which converts ammonium ions to urea and then this urea is excreted out of the by through urine.
First ammonia and bicarbonate combine to form Carbamoyl phosphate. The Carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine get condense to citrulline. Until here the reaction occurs in mitochondria.
Then the citrulline is transported in the cytosol where another nitrogen is added by an amino acid called aspartate and citrulline is condensed into argininosuccinate and aspartate converts and released as fumarate. So the correct answer is aspartate.
The source of the other nitrogen in the production of urea in terrestrial vertebrates comes from the deamination of amino acids.
Explanation:The source of the other nitrogen in the production of urea in terrestrial vertebrates comes from the deamination of amino acids. Deamination of amino acids results in the production of ammonia, which is converted to urea through the urea cycle in mammals. This allows the body to excrete nitrogenous waste in a less toxic form. Animals that secrete urea as the primary nitrogenous waste material are called ureotelic animals.
he researchers bought samples of whale meat—all labeled simply as kujira, the generic Japanese term for whale meat—from markets in Japan and sequenced DNA from these samples. They compared their data with sequences from known whale species. Because subspecies of whales from different populations differ genetically, the researchers were able to analyze the genetic variation in their samples and learn the location from which the whales were likely captured. These results would indicate if illegal whale meat was being sold.
First, let's complete the question by adding the missing piece of information
Match each statment as question, observation, hypothesis, prediction, or test
1) Whales are being harvested illegally and their meat sold in markets in Japan
2) Where is the whale meat being solid in Japanese markets coming from?
3) If whale-s are being illegally harvested, reported whale captures will be far lower tahn the number of captures predicted by genetic analyses of whale meat in markets
4) The availability of whale meat in Japanese markets exceds that expected from the reported legal captures of whales
5) Scientists subject whale meat to genetci analysis to determine its likely capture location and to extimate whale captures at that location
Answer:
Question:- where is the whale meat being sold in Japanese markets coming from?
Observation:- The availability of whale meat in Japanese markets exceds that expected from the reported legal captures of whales.
Hypothesis:- If whales are being illegally harvested, reported whale captures will be far lower than the number of captures predicted by genetic analyses of whale meat in markets.
Prediction:- Whales are being harvested illegally and their meat sold in markets in Japan.
Test:- Scientists subject whale meat to genetic analysis to determine its likely capture location and to estimate whale captures at that location.
Explanation:
A Scientific method is a basic problem solving step in biology, chemistry and physics.
The scientific method entails:
1) Observation: Data you gathered in thr course of an experiment
2) Question: what you desire to know or have answer to
3) Hypothesis: a possible explanation which can be tested to prove if it is going to be correct or if we need to propose a new hypothesis.
4) Prediction (is dependent on the Hypothesis): the expected outcome
5) Test: to undergo an experiment on the variable or data given.
The flow of genetic information from DNA to protein in eukaryotic cells is called the central dogma of biology.
(a) State two reasons gene regulation must be regulated in eukaryotes (5 points) and
(b) describe three processes that regulate gene expression in eukaryotes. In other words, what specific role does gene regulation accomplish in eukaryotes, and what are three methods of gene regulation. Be sure to include names of molecules that are affected by these three methods. (5 points each).
Central dogma of Biology is - DNA to RNA to Protein. The gene expression is controlled by gene regulation.
Explanation:
a) Two reasons why gene regulation must be regulated in eukaryotes are :
i. To remove the introns which are the non coding regions of the mRNA segment and make mature mRNA that will code for proteins.
ii. Gene regulation increases the flexibility and adaptability of a life form by permitting the cell to code for protein when required.
b) Three processes that regulate gene expression in eukaryotes are:
i. Transcription - Transcription is a main regulatory point for several genes. Group of transcription factors stick to specific DNA sequences in or around a gene and promote or repress its transcription into an RNA.
ii. RNA processing - cutting, capping, and poly-A tail addition to an RNA molecule can be regulated which can then exit from the nucleus. Various mRNAs can be made from the same pre-mRNA by the process of alternative splicing. Removal of introns also makes mRNA activated.
iii. Translation - Translation of an mRNA can be enhanced or inhibited by regulators. For example- miRNAs occasionally inhibit translation of their target mRNAs, instead of removing them.
Regulation in eukaryotes ensures proteins are made efficiently and as needed. Key processes include epigenetic, transcriptional, and post-transcriptional regulation, affecting DNA, RNA, and protein molecules.
Explanation:Gene Regulation in EukaryotesGene regulation in eukaryotic cells is vital for a number of reasons. Firstly, it ensures that proteins are produced at the right time and in the right cell type, supporting different functions and stages of development. Secondly, gene regulation conserves energy and resources, as synthesizing proteins that are not needed would be wasteful.
Processes of Gene RegulationEpigenetic gene regulation: affects the accessibility of DNA to transcription machinery through mechanisms like DNA methylation and histone modification.Transcriptional gene regulation: involves the use of transcription factors that enhance or repress the initiation of transcription at certain genes.Post-transcriptional gene regulation: includes splicing, editing, and degradation of mRNA, and the involvement of microRNAs to control mRNA stability and translation.Each of these processes modifies different molecules like DNA, RNA, and proteins to finely tune gene expression in response to internal and external stimuli.
In peas, the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t). The trait for yellow seeds is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seeds is recessive (y). A cross between two plants results in 292 tall yellow plants and 103 short green plants. Which of the following are most likely to be the genotypes of the parents?
- TyYY x Ttyy
- TTYy x TTYy
- TTyy x TTYy
- TtYy x TtYy
Answer:
Option D, TtYy x TtYy
Explanation:
Given
Tall plant trait (T) is dominant over short plant trait (t)
Trait for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant over traits for green seeds (y)
Total of [tex]292[/tex] plants are tall & yellow while [tex]103[/tex] plants are short and green
Thus, % of plants short and green is equal to
[tex]\frac{103}{103+292} * 100\\\\26[/tex]%
Nearly one fourth of the plants are having homologous recessive trait
Thus, the possible genotype of parent would be TtYy x TtYy as only in this the homologous recessive alleles can pair up.
Option D is correct
Answer:
The correct answer is option- TtYy x TtYy.
Explanation:
In this dihybrid cross the pea plant have dominant alleles are tall - T and yellow - Y while the recessive alleles are Short - t and green - y. The dominant traits masks the plants recessive character if present together.
To get offspring with tall and green plants should have at least one allele of T and Y and for the short green they must have sets of alleles ttyy in both. In the given option the first option one of the parent lack one of the character of size of pea plant. In the second option and third option there is no allele for short plants.
Thus, the correct answer is - TtYy x TtYy
Processing that is initiated by sensory information about the external environment is called _____ processing.
Answer:
The correct answer is - bottom-up processing.
Explanation:
In sensation and the perception process, there are two general processes - Bottom-up processing and top-down processing. Bottom-up processing is the processing that involves the processing of the sensory information is coming in such as the eyes detect any picture, brain collect all the information all together and you perceive a whole picture.
All the information is processed on the base of the sensory information that comes. Bottom-up is basically collecting information and forming it all together.
Thus, the correct answer is - bottom-up processing.
The rhythmic, wavelike motion produced by smooth muscles in tubular visceral organs is called _______.
Answer:
Peristalsis
Explanation:
This motion is to facilitate the movement of food to the mouth to the stomach and helps food travel from the small intestine to the rectum
. An inoculated thioglycolate medium culture tube is clear throughout the tube except for dense growth at the bottom of the tube. What is your conclusion?
The organisms are obligate anaerobes.
The organisms are facultative anaerobes.
The organisms are aerotolerant.
The organisms are obligate aerobes.
Answer:
The organisms are obligate anaerobes.
Explanation:
At the bottom of the tube the level of oxygen is zero thats why the dense growth at the bottom of the tube show obligate anaerobic microorganisms.At the middle of the tube micro-aerophilic microorganisms growth can be observed.At the top of the tube obligate aerobic microorganisms will show their growth.The correct conclusion is that the organisms are obligate anaerobes.
In a thioglycolate medium, which is a reduced medium, oxygen is initially present throughout the tube but is gradually used up by the action of the thioglycolate as it is diffusing into the medium from the top. This creates an oxygen gradient with more oxygen at the top and less towards the bottom.
When an inoculated thioglycolate medium culture tube shows dense growth at the bottom and is clear throughout the rest of the tube, it indicates that the organisms have grown only in the absence of oxygen. This is because obligate anaerobes cannot grow in the presence of oxygen; they can only grow in environments where oxygen is absent or in very low concentrations.
The other options can be ruled out based on the growth patterns they would exhibit in this medium:
- Facultative anaerobes can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. They would show growth throughout the tube, not just at the bottom.
- Aerotolerant organisms can grow in the presence of oxygen but do not require it. They might show growth throughout the tube, but this would depend on the specific strain and its tolerance to the reduced conditions of the medium.
- Obligate aerobes require oxygen to grow and would only grow at the top of the tube where oxygen is present, not at the bottom.
Therefore, the observation of dense growth only at the bottom of the tube, where oxygen levels are lowest, leads to the conclusion that the organisms are obligate anaerobes.
The ____ protein is embedded in the membrane of Agrobacterium and senses the presence of acetosyringone from the wounded plant cell. (In your answer include the full name of the protein: for example ChvX or VirX, instead of the X protein.)
Answer:
The _VirA_ protein is embedded in the membrane of Agrobacterium and senses the presence of acetosyringone from the wounded plant cell.
Explanation:
VirA is a protein histidine kinase which detects certain phenolic compounds and sugars. Wounded plants areas are typically contains these compounds. This site is a potential infection site for Agrobacterium tumefaciens as a result VirA is used by Agrobacterium tumefaciens to locate it and cause damage.
Which blood cell type is elevated at birth but decreases to adult levels during the first year of life?
Answer:
The correct answer is monocyte
Explanation:
The largest white blood cell in the circulation is monocyte. A high level of monocyte indicates inflammation and chronic infection. During birth, the monocyte level becomes elevated as compared to adults.
These monocyte plays an important role in providing innate immunity to the neonate because during birth the child is at the great risk of getting infection. Monocyte can be differentiated into dendritic cell or tissue macrophages and destroy pathogens in neonates. Therefore the correct answer is monocyte.
Many conditions other than those that attack the brain tissue directly can also produce symptoms of neurocognitive disorder. These can be either medical conditions or other types of mental disorders. One cause of neurocognitive disorder is the severe interruption of blood flow to the brain known as a?
Answer:
The neuro cognitive disorder of blood flow to the brain is called as dementia.
Explanation:
When mental function decreases due to mental diseases,the term is called dementia in medical terminology.
There are several causes of dementia are-
Brain injury which is caused by trauma.Intra cerebral hemorrhage,blood clot in the brainBreathing problem like hypoxia.Cardiovascular problems like TIA, Stroke,heart infection etc.Alzheimer disease,Huntington disease,HIV,any injury in brain.Pick disease etc A pluripotent stem cell _____.
a. can develop into a new organism if placed in a womb after its first four divisions during fertilization
b. can differentiate as one type of cell only
c. is an adult stem cell
d. does not have the ability to develop into a new organism, but can give rise to any of the cell types in a body
e. can allow regeneration of human body parts such as limbs
Answer:
d. does not have the ability to develop into a new organism, but can give rise to any of the cell types in a body
Explanation:
they are referred to as master cells with the ability to make cells from all three basic body layers, so they can potentially produce any cell or tissue the body needs to repair itself.
Archaeal flagella __________. a. rotate as bacterial flagella do b. do not contain a filament c. grow by the addition of subunits at the tip d. are powered by the flow of hydrogen ions across the membrane
Answer:
Option a. rotate as bacterial flagella do is correct.
Explanation:
The Archaeal flagella is a hair-like long appendage formed of flagellin protein which is attached by a hook. This rotating structure with switches propels the cell through a liquid medium.
A person who is ______ perceives themself as a member of a different gender from the one assigned at birth.
Answer:
Transgender.
Explanation:
Transgender is defined as a term that includes ways that people’s gender identities can be different from the sex they were assigned at birth. Transgender people have a gender identity or gender expression that differs from their sex assigned at birth. Some transgender people who desire medical assistance to transition from one sex to another identify as transsexual
What theory of hearing contends that areas of the basilar membrane are highly specialized, with each area responding to a different frequency?
Answer: Place theory
Explanation:
Place theory is a theory of hearing that affirms that, the areas of the basilar membrane are highly specialized, with each area responding to a different frequency. Our awareness of sound depends on where each component frequency produces vibrations along the basilar membrane. By this theory, the pitch of a sound, such as a human voice or a musical tone, is determined by the places where the membrane vibrates, based on frequencies corresponding to the tonotopic organization of the primary auditory neurons.
The Place Theory of hearing contends that each area of the basilar membrane is specialized, resonating and responding to specific frequencies.
Explanation:The theory of hearing that posits specialized areas of the basilar membrane, each responding to a different frequency, is known as the Place Theory. According to the Place Theory, specific parts of the basilar membrane resonate and respond to certain frequencies while ignoring others. Each segment corresponds to a specific pitch or frequency, which allows for the perception of different sounds. For example, high frequency sounds vibrate the base of the cochlea, closer to the middle ear, while low frequency sounds vibrate the apex, closer to the center of the cochlea.
Learn more about Place Theory here:https://brainly.com/question/33720815
#SPJ3
Traumatic experiences that occurred long ago are known as _____ stressors. Group of answer choices hidden life-changing distant naturalistic time-limited
Answer:
distant
Explanation:
Distant stressors are types of stress involving traumatic events witnessed or suffered by an individual in the past in which the negative effects is still being felt by the individual and thereby modifying the function of the immune system. This is as a result of their thought process and cognitive consequences that lingers for long. Examples of distant stressors include war trauma, child abuse.
In addition to naming species, Linnaeus also grouped species into a hierarchy of increasingly inclusive categories. The largest category that would include closely related species is:_______.
A) genus.
B) class.
C) order.
D) domain.
Answer:
The correct answer is D) domain
Explanation:
The father of taxonomy is Linnaeus. Taxonomy helps in classify and naming organisms. The modern taxonomy has eight levels of classification. Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
Domain is the highest level of classification so it is the largest category that would include closely related species. When we go from domain towards species the number of similarities increase and number of organism decrease and vice versa is true when we move from species to domain. So the right answer is domain.
In addition to naming species, Linnaeus also grouped species into a hierarchy of increasingly inclusive categories. The largest category that would include closely related species is A) genus. Therefore A) genus is correct .
In Linnaeus' original system, the broadest and most inclusive category was the "kingdom." He classified organisms into kingdoms based on major differences in form and function.
For example, plants and animals were placed in separate kingdoms.
Over time, as our understanding of evolutionary relationships deepened, the classification system evolved. Domains were introduced to reflect the fundamental differences in the cellular organization of life.
The three domains are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.
Domain: The highest taxonomic rank, grouping organisms based on fundamental differences in cellular structure and biochemistry.
Bacteria and Archaea are composed of prokaryotic cells, while Eukarya includes organisms with eukaryotic cells.
Kingdom: Each domain is further subdivided into kingdoms, reflecting major evolutionary lines.
For example, within the domain Eukarya, you have kingdoms like Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, and more.
Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species: These are subsequent hierarchical levels, each getting more specific in its classification. Species is the most specific level, representing individual organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
For such a more question on Linnaeus
https://brainly.com/question/26553578
#SPJ3
Need help ASAP.
1.) Explain the difference or similarities between CRISPR and at least one other type of Genetic Engineering Technique you have researched?
2.) What type of change to the DNA/RNA sequence is CRIPSR?
3.) How is CRISPR used to help people.
Answer:
Answer No 1) The differences between gene therapy and CRISPR are:
CRISPR is one of the methods which is used in molecular labs to alter the DNA. It can be considered as one of the tolls for gene therapy. On the other hand, gene therapy can be described as all the various techniques which are used to treat a certain genetic disorder. In this way, CRISPR technology comes under gene therapy.In traditional gene therapy techniques, infectious agents such as viruses were used for incorporation of new genes. CRISPR technology has made the incorporation process a lot less riskier by using molecular tools to incorporate DNA instead of viruses.Answer No 2)
The techniques used in the process of CRISPR were adapted from the normal genome editing process of bacteria. It is hence a genome editing change.
Answer No 3)
The CRISPR technology allows scientists to create cells or models of animals in the laboratory within no time. The CRISPR technology enables scientists to study diseases such as cancer and the possible treatments for these diseases in the laboratory. In the near future, CRISPR will be an effective tool for editing DNA in humans and treating various disorders. Through this technique a huge number of genetic diseases will be able to be cured.
Explanation:
The fingerlike projections which line the small intestine increase the surface area to maximize absorption and help mix the partially digested chyme with intestinal secretions are:______
Answer:
The correct answer is- Villi
Explanation:
Villi are the finger-like projection present in the highly folded surface of the intestine and line the intestine. Each villus has many microvilli which are microscopic projection on villi. These villi increase the surface area of the intestine because of having many folds. This increase in surface area helps in maximizing the nutrient absorption for the intestine.
It also helps in mixing the chyme with the intestinal secretion. The nutrient which is absorbed is then move to liver through the hepatic portal vein and then distributed in the body.
The fingerlike projections lining the small intestine that increase surface area are known as villi, and they contain an abundance of microvilli to further enhance nutrient absorption. Together, these structures provide a tremendously large surface for the absorption of nutrients from the chyme.
Explanation:The fingerlike projections which line the small intestine increase the surface area to maximize absorption and help mix the partially digested chyme with intestinal secretions are called villi. These villi are essential for the efficient absorption of nutrients as they create a large surface area over which the digested food can come into contact with the cells of the intestine. Moreover, within each villus, there is a network of blood vessels and lymphatics that transport absorbed nutrients to the rest of the body.
Additionally, the cells that line the villi have an even greater number of minute projections known as microvilli. These microvilli substantially contribute to the large surface area of the small intestine. The vast number of microvilli, with estimates of over 100 billion per square inch, ensures that an optimal number of nutrients can be absorbed to meet the body's needs.
Overall, the combination of these structural adaptations, including both villi and microvilli, is what allows the small intestine to efficiently perform its role in nutrient absorption.
Molecules found on the 'rungs' or steps of the DNA ladder.
A.
Sugar and phosphate molecules
B.
Nitrogenous bases held together by hydrogen bonds
C.
deoxyribose
Answer:
c
Explanation:
"Using careful experimental design, Blehert and colleagues proved definitively that the fungus Geomyces destructans is the cause of white nose syndrome."
The experiment conducted, support or rejects the hypothesis. Blehert and colleagues have supported their hypothesis which was proven correct.
The experiment they proved that is true through careful experimental design that proves the fungus Geomyces destructions is the cause of 'white-nose syndrome'.
What are Geomyces Destructants?Geomyces destructions is the fungus found in colder regions of the US and Canada. This fungus causes a fatal disease named 'White-nose syndrome' in bats.
White-nose syndrome is a devastating disease that affects hibernating bats, resulting in the death of millions of bats.
Thus, the experimental design that proved to show the fungus Geomyces destructants is the cause of 'white-nose syndrome'.
Learn more about Geomyces destructants here:
https://brainly.com/question/957490
mitosis worksheet help
Answer:
1. Prophase
2. C
3. A and F
4. CENTROSOME/centrioles
5. D
6. D-A-F-C-E-B
7. Animal cells
8. Interphase
9. Mitosis is necessary for growth and development of an organism
Explanation:
1. Cells A and F in the diagram depicts the early and late phase of Prophase respectively. The phase in cell A called early Prophase is characterized by the condensation of Chromatins to form visible chromosomes while the late Prophase also called prometaphase in cell F is characterized by the organization of the chromosomes by the spindle microtubules produced by the centrioles (structure X)
2. Cell C is in the Metaphase stage because the chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell called METAPHASE PLATE.
3. Cell A and F is the first phase of this MITOTIC process called Prophase because it is the phase where the chromosomes becomes visible as a result of the condensation of Chromatin material. In cell F as well, the chromosomes can be seen as an X-SHAPED structure after being organized.
4. The structure labelled X is the Centriole which is produced by the CENTROSOME. The centriole is responsible for the production of the spindle microtubules that aligns the chromosomes and eventually separate sister chromatids.
5. Cell D is the in-between phase of mitosis called INTERPHASE because it is the phase that occurs between two successive mitotic divisions. It is characterized by invisible strands called Chromatin and also the nuclear membrane that is still intact.
6. D-A-F-C-E-B is correct order of the cell cycle process. Cell D is at the Interphase stage, cell A is at the early prophase stage, cell F is at the late prophase stage, cell C is at the metaphase stage, cell E is at the anaphase stage, cell B is at the Telophase/CYTOKINESIS stage.
7. The cell involved in this cycle is depicted an animal cell because 1.) There is possession of centrioles at the prophase stage. Plant cells do not have centrioles. 2. ) A cleavage furrow is formed as a result of the contraction of the contractile ring seen at the middle of the cell. The cleavage furrow is what divides an animal cell into two during CYTOKINESIS. Plant cells do not form cleavage furrow, instead they form a cell plate because of their cell wall.
8. Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle because it is the phase the cell prepares itself for the next round of division. The preparation includes enlargement, DNA replication, replication of organnelles etc.
9. Mitosis is very important because it is the means by which all cells increase and multiply which utterly leads to the growth and development of an organism.
Mitosis, a crucial period in the cell cycle, involves the separation of duplicated chromosomes into identical nuclei. This process is divided into five stages - prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Understanding these stages will allow you to accurately fill out a mitosis worksheet.
Explanation:MitosisMitosis is a period of the cell cycle during which the duplicated chromosomes are separated into identical nuclei. This process is crucial to the passaging of heritable information from one generation to another through cell generation. Mitosis itself is divided into five essential stages - prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
Prophase: Chromosomes become visible and the nuclear envelope breaks down.Prometaphase: Spindle fibers form and begin to move the chromosomes towards the center of the cell.Metaphase: Chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell.Anaphase: The sister chromatids separate into individual chromosomes and are moved apart.Telophase: The chromosomes gather at opposite ends of the cell, two new nuclear envelopes form, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm).Understanding these stages will help you fill your mitosis worksheet accurately.
Learn more about Mitosis here:https://brainly.com/question/31626745
#SPJ11
You have a total body concentration of 300 mOsM and total body volume of 3 liters. If you add 0.5 L of a solution containing 150 mosmol of NaCl to the body, what would the new total body concentration be?a) 450 mOsM
b) 300 mOsM
c) 350 mOsM
d) 700 mOsM
Answer:
300 mOsM
Explanation:
The application of osmotic equilibrium comes in.
Using the equation; solute/volume = concentration
S/V =C
1.where does the energy required the process of cellular respiration come from?
2.What are the main reactants of cellular respiration?
3.For each molecule of glucose broken down during glycolysis, what is produced?
HELP PLS.