Answer:
The question is not complete, below is the complete question:
Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Make certain each sentence is complete before submitting your answer. ResetHelp
1. : Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells
2. : Slows or stops the immune response
3. : Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen 4. : Forms antibody producing cells
5. : Absence results in no immune response
words in the left column:
a. Helper T cell
b. Cytotoxic T cell
c. B cell
d. Memory cell
e. Regulatory T cell
The answer is:
1. Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells (Cytotoxic T cells)
2. Slows or stops the immune response ( Regulatory T cell )
3. Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen (Memory cell)
4. Forms antibody producing cells (B cell)
5 Absence results in no immune response (Helper T cell)
Explanation:
The question is just to test your knowledge of the functions of the various cells in the cell-mediated acquired immune responses.
First, it is important to note that immune response mechanisms is broadly divided into; innate and acquired (or adaptive) immune responses. Innate responses are those that occur naturally by birth, example, skin barriers, mucous membranes e.t.c., while acquired immune responses are those developed by the body in response to invading antibodies. The acquired immune responses can be further divided into two categories; the humoral and cell-mediated responses. The humoral responses have to do with responses with chemical intermediates or means other than cells, example is antibodies, while cell-mediated responses have to do with cells.
Now, let me explain each of my answer choices by giving brief details on each of the cell types mentioned above:
1. Cytotoxic T cells: These cells go by various other names including; cytolytic cells, Killer T-cells, CD8+ T-cells, Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes e.t.c. They are a type of T-lymphocyte that destroys cancer cells, virus-infected cells and other damaged cells. This destruction is brought about by their possession of T-cell receptors that recognize specific antigens on the surface of viral particles and cancer cells, after binding, these cells have the ability to produce cytokines which are used to kill the cells.
2. Regulatory T-cells: T Regulatory cells are cells that have immunosuppressive functions, i.e, they down regulate the activation and proliferation of the T-cells in immune response or that they slow or stop the immune response. This is important to prevent intolerance against self antigens, which can lead to autoimmune reactions.
3. Memory cells: Memory cells also known as memory B-cells are sub-types of B lymphocytes that are responsible for rapid response in an individual in the case of a re-infection or a secondary infection. During a primary or first time infection, it takes the B cells a while to manufacture antibodies to neutralize antigens in the body making the individual to come down with the effect of the antigen within this period, but after the antigens have been synthesized, the patterns are stored by the Memory cells, which can survive for decades in an individual, and if the individual is faced again with the same antigen after the first encounter, the Memory cells recognize the antigens whose complementary antibody patterns are stored, and synthesis is faster, enabling a quick and rapid response to secondary infections.
4. B cells: B cells are the chief humoral cells of the acquired immune responses. They differentiate and forms cells that produce antibodies called plasma cells. Antibodies are molecules that are produced in response to antigens, they are usually complementary to the antigens and they neutralize the effects of the antigen upon binding to it.
5. Helper T-cells: Helper T-cells can be considered to be the most important cells int he adaptive immune response, as they are essentially the activator cells in immune responses, by activating B cells to secrete antigens, Macrophages to engulf microbes, and Cytotoxic T cells to begin their immune response. The Helper cells themselves are activated by the Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs).
Final answer:
The exercise involves matching terms related to the immune system, such as 'Killer T cells' and 'Memory cells,' with their correct functions like killing infected cells and providing a rapid response to pathogens upon re-exposure, respectively.
Explanation:
When exploring the immune system, it's essential to understand the specific functions of various cells and responses to pathogens. The student's exercise is to match the correct terms with their definitions in the context of the body's immune system:
Killer T cells: Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells.Suppressor T cells: Slows or stops the immune response.Memory cells: Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen.Activated B cells -> Plasma cells: Forms antibody producing cells.If there is an absence of these cells: results in no immune response.Immunology, especially adaptive immunity, details the processes these cells and responses undergo to protect our bodies from pathogens.
Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?
ability to avoid seasonal illnesses
ability to go many years without seeing a doctor
ability to heal following injury
ability to run a marathon
The health benefit that is most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to go many years without seeing a doctor
Explanation:
Physical resilience is the ability of an individual to cope up with stress, adapt to various external and internal changes, at the same time maintain the body’s health and stamina.
Physical resilience is directly linked with a healthy body, overall well being, and a long healthy life which reduces the need for visits to a doctor or a healthcare facility to take care of any medical illness.
Healthy eating of nutritional foods, healthy mind with good mental stability, performing endurance exercises and resistance training will increase the physical resilience.
The correct option is 3. The health benefit most directly linked to physical resilience is the ability to heal following injury.
Physical resilience refers to the capacity of the body to recover from or adjust easily to misfortune or change. In the context of health, this typically means the ability to bounce back from illness, injury, or other physical stressors.
Let's consider the options provided:
1. Ability to avoid seasonal illnesses: While this is a positive health outcome, it is more closely related to a strong immune system rather than physical resilience per se.
2. Ability to go many years without seeing a doctor: This could be indicative of good health, but it doesn't necessarily reflect physical resilience. It could also be due to a lack of access to healthcare services or a tendency to ignore health issues.
3. Ability to heal following injury: This is a direct measure of physical resilience. It reflects how well the body can repair itself and return to its previous state of health and functionality after suffering damage.
4. Ability to run a marathon: This reflects cardiovascular endurance and muscular fitness, which are components of physical fitness rather than resilience. While being fit can contribute to overall resilience, the ability to run a marathon is not as direct a measure of resilience as the ability to recover from injury.
The correct question is:
Which health benefit is most directly linked to physical resilience?
1. ability to avoid seasonal illnesses
2. ability to go many years without seeing a doctor
3. ability to heal following injury
4. ability to run a marathon
Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from ______ syndrome.
Answer:
Turner syndrome.
Explanation:
Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects.
Turner syndrome may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Occasionally, in females with mild signs and symptoms of Turner syndrome, the diagnosis is delayed until the teen or young adult years.
Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.
Daria, age 28, is very short, has an abnormally small jaw, and her neck has extra folds of skin. She has never ovulated and has underdeveloped breasts. Daria suffers from Turner syndrome.
What is Turner syndrome?
Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. It may be diagnosed before birth (prenatally), during infancy or in early childhood. Girls and women with Turner syndrome need ongoing medical care from a variety of specialists. Regular checkups and appropriate care can help most girls and women lead healthy, independent lives.Learn more:
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Scott, who is 60, could not understand why he kept slowly gaining weight. He was eating the same amount of food that he had each day since he was 20, and he got regular exercise. What could explain his weight gain
Answer: Slower metabolism.
Explanation: Our body's metabolism, its chemical processes that support life, starts to slow as we age. This means less efficient use of the energy contained in food which, if unused, gets stored as fat.
Scott's weight gain can be attributed to a slower basal metabolic rate at age 60, requiring fewer calories than when he was younger. Adjusting caloric intake, increasing physical activity, and considering other health and lifestyle factors are crucial for successful weight management.
As people age, their basal metabolic rate (BMR) tends to slow down, resulting in fewer calories being burned throughout the day. Scott, who is 60 years old, experiences weight gain despite maintaining the same diet and exercise routine that he had when he was 20 because his body now requires fewer calories than it did when he was younger. Additionally, physiological changes, such as loss of muscle mass and potential medical conditions, can also lead to a decrease in activity levels, contributing to weight gain. Therefore, Scott may need to adjust his caloric intake and possibly increase his physical activity to balance his energy expenditure with his caloric consumption.
Other factors that affect weight control include dietary choices, lifestyle habits, and psychological factors. Succesful weight management requires a balance in lifestyle that includes healthy eating and regular physical activity. Scott should consider moderate-intensity physical activity for at least 30 minutes on most days, or potentially 60 to 90 minutes if he was previously overweight, to prevent weight gain or sustain weight loss. It's important to note that achieving and maintaining a healthy weight helps prevent many health issues associated with obesity and can promote overall well-being.
A group of students is reviewing information about the liver and associated disorders. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as a primary function of the liver?
a) Convert urea into ammonia
b) Excrete bile
c) Breakdown amino acids
d) Break down coagulation factors
Answer:
b) Excrete bile
Explanation:
The primary function associated with the liver includes to excrete bile, also helps to convert ammonia into urea, it is also associated with synthesizing the factors needed for blood coagulation and synthesizes amino acids from the breakdown of proteins.
The nurse is discussing acne vulgaris with a group of adolescents. The teenagers make the following statements regarding the topic. Which statement is the most accurate regarding acne vulgaris?
a) "Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup."
b) "There is a new immunization that you can get to keep from having acne."
c) "My mom says I have acne because I eat too much chocolate."
d) "My next door neighbor told me that acne was caused by a fungus."
Answer:
A. Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's make-up
Explanation:
Acne is as a result of blockage of the pilosebaceous units (hair follicles and their accompanying sebaceous gland).
The make up blocks the pores and allows build up of dead cells which eventually breaks out as acne.
Answer:
a) Sometimes I get acne when I use my sister's makeup.
Explanation:
Acne vulgaris is a skin disease involving the sebaceous glands found at the root of hair follicles. It commonly occurs during the pubertal phase of growth when the oil glands are active. Acne vulgaris is characterized by pimples, blackheads, cysts, and spots which are mostly found on the face, back, neck, chest and shoulders.
Acne occurs when sebaceous glands are blocked and infected by a bacteria called propionibacterium acnes.
Risk factors and causes of acne vulgaris include; genetic factors, hot climate, oily and greasy makeups, menstruations and hormonal changes.
It can be treated by using over-the-counter medications such as benzoyl peroxide, sulfur, salicylic acid, azelaic acid, antibiotics and also soaps and gels etc.
A client is caring for an 8-year-old child who weighs 30 kg. The health care provider orders gentamicin IM for the client. The recommended dosage range is 2-2.5 mg/kg q8h. What is the maximum amount of gentamicin the client will receive in a day
Answer:
According to the weight of the 8-year-old child and the dose of Gentamicin recommended by the medical provider, the maximum amount of Gentamicin that the client will receive in a day is 225 mg.
Explanation:
Gentamicin is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria, such as otitis media. For a child of the age and weight range, the usual dose of Gentamicin is 2 to 2.5 mg/kg/dose.
Data:
Recommended dose of Gentamicin: 2 - 2.5 mg/Kg dose. Interval between doses: 8 hours Child weight: 30 kg.Number of doses in a day = 3 (24 hours / 8 hours = 3=Maximum daily dose = 2.5 mg X Weight X number of doses/24 h.
Maximum daily dose = 2,5 mg X 30 X 3 .
Maximum daily dose = 225 mg / 24 h .
The maximum dose of Gentamicin that the child will receive in a day is 225 mg.
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Studies show that _____________ is the optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being
Eustress is the optimal amount of stress that people need to promote their health and well-being.
Explanation:The optimal amount of stress that people need to positively promote their health and sense of well-being is called eustress. Eustress is a type of positive stress that can motivate individuals to achieve their goals and perform well. Unlike negative stress, which can be harmful to health, eustress provides a sense of excitement, energy, and fulfillment.
An example of eustress is when a student prepares for an important exam. While there may be some pressure and nerves involved, the anticipation and motivation to succeed actually enhance their performance and overall well-being. It is important to note that the optimal amount of eustress may vary for each individual, as what may be motivating and beneficial for one person may be overwhelming for another.
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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
Select the phrase that correctly completes the statement. Please Help me its for a test!!
(Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella,Shigella ) ____________ is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.
Mike ate plain deli meat from the refrigerator and then got sick. _________( Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium perfringens, Listeria monocytogenes, Salmonella ) made him ill.
Pathogens are those organisms which are capable of releasing toxins in the body.
What are toxins?Toxins are those dangerous substances which are capable of causing damages in the body. They may be released by pathogens.
The organism Clostridium botulinum is a harmful pathogen and produces toxins that are poisonous to the human body.
The microorganism which is commonly reputed to cause food poisoning is Clostridium perfringens which must be contained in the meat which Mike ate.
Learn more about pathogens: https://brainly.com/question/9004624?
Answer:
Not sure about the first one; might be Clostridium perfringens, second one is Listeria monocytogenes
Explanation:
this is what i got
You arrive at a local community center for a 56-year-old woman complaining of chest discomfort. The women tells you that she took one of her nitroglycerin tablets about 15 minutes ago, but she still has chest discomfort. Responding paramedics are approximately 10 minutes away. You should:
A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen
B. Assume that she is experiencing angina pectorals, administer oxygen, and perform a thorough physical exam.
C. Give her up to tow more nitroglycerin tablets, place her supine and elevate her legs, and update the responding paramedics
D. Place her in a semi sitting position, assist her in taking up to 3 more nitro tablets, and administer oxygen.
Answer:
A. Place her in a comfortable position, assist her in taking another nitroglycerin tablet, and administer oxygen
What type of lifespan developmentalist is interested in how a person who experiences a significant or traumatic event early in life would remember that event later in life?
Answer:
Cognitive
Explanation:
Cognitive has to do with how a person perceives, remembers, thinks, judges or reasons in a particular situation.
A cognitive developmentalist is a person who studies how a child can perceive situations, process his or her thoughts, make appropriate decisions and remember certain situations that they have been in, from their childhood to their adulthood.
A nursing instructor is teaching pre-nursing students in a pathophysiology class. What would the instructor teach the students about Ménière's disease?
Answer:
The instructor should teach students about endolymphatic hydrops in the pathophysiology of Ménière's disease.
Explanation:
The options for this question are:
A) It is referred to as endolymphatic hydrops.
B) It originates in the middle ear.
C) It is referred to as lymphatic hydrops.
D) It originates in the outer ear.
Ménière's disease is a pathology that causes dizziness, motor instability and progressive hearing loss, as a result of disorders in the inner ear.
In the inner ear, the endolymphatic system is one of the main structures involved in the sense of balance. Obstruction of the snail aqueduct or inflammation of the labyrinth produces increased endolymphatic volume and pressure. This produces dilation of the endolymphatic duct and the symptoms of the disease.
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A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to
Answer:
Control or minimize the risk of intentional contamination.
Explanation:
A food defence plans helps to document the processes or procedures on how to control, minimise and totally stop if possible the risk associated with contaminating food intentionally.
It gives detailed procedure on how this can be achieved.
A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to:
Protect food from intentional contamination. Ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.Explanation:A food defense plan is a written document that records procedures to protect food from intentional contamination by an individual or group.
It is designed to prevent acts of food terrorism and ensure the safety and security of the food supply chain.
Examples of procedures in a food defense plan include implementing access controls, conducting background checks on employees, and monitoring and documenting inventory.
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In hospitals, it was common practice to clear the air bubble from a syringe by expelling a small amount of the syringe contents into the air. One microbiologist estimated that this practice resulted in the release of up to 30 liters of antibiotic into a typical hospital environment annually. How might this have brought about the appearance of antibiotic-resistant mutants in hospitals
Answer:
The ejection of syringe contents is to remove air bubbles that can be detrimental to patient health. When antibiotics are repeatedly released this way, microflora in the environment are exposed, albeit at non-lethal doses, which causes said micro-organisms to begin to develop means of neutralizing such antibiotics, thereby contributing to antibiotic resistance and mutations. Also, some syringe contents may not be anti-biotic in nature but they can have mutagenic effects on microbial genome at such concentrations.
Explanation:
Antibiotic resistance is the ability of bacteria or other microbes to resist the effects of an antibiotic. Antibiotic resistance occurs when bacteria change in some way that reduces or eliminates the effectiveness of drugs, chemicals, or other agents designed to cure or prevent infections. The bacteria survive and continue to multiply causing more harm
Answer:
The more use and abuse of antibiotics, the more are the chances for bacteria to become antibiotic resistant mutants.
Explanation:
Antibiotic resistance usually occurs when bacteria changes, causing it to reduce or completely diminish the drug's effectiveness, which is prescribed to cure the infection. When bacteria become antibiotic resistant, they survive, continue to multiply and cause harm.
A group of nursing students is reviewing information about the older adult and mobility. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which statement as accurate?
Answer:
Falls are the leading cause of death due to injury in individuals who are over the age of 75 years
Explanation:
Falls are the leading cause of deadly injury and the most common cause of nonfatal trauma-related hospital admissions among older adults. Risk factors for falls in the elderly include increasing age, medication use, cognitive impairment and and also sensory deficits.
"According to the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke, what is the ideal treatment plan for individuals with Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)?"
Your health care provider has advised you to lose weight. She encourages you to add fiber and complex carbohydrates to your diet and gives you a list of nutritious foods to look for at the grocery store. You stop at the prepared food section of the grocery store to pick up a healthy dinner. Which of these is the best choice to get you started on your "complex-carb" diet?
broccoli & brown rice salad
Answer:
The correct answer is- broccoli & brown rice salad
Explanation:
A complex carbohydrate diet with high fibers are part of a healthy and balanced diet. This diet helps us to enhance our mood, reduce cholesterol level, reduce the extra weight, provide energy and enhance our immune system.
The complex carbohydrate diet includes Brown and wild rice, vegetables like broccoli, legumes like black beans and chickpeas, salads, corn, barley, etc.
Therefore if I have to lose weight than I would choose broccoli & brown rice salad to start on my "complex-carb" diet because they are the best choice as they will provide me healthy carbohydrates.
In the "permission theory" of mood disorders, low ______ activity opens the door to a mood disorder and permits other neurotransmitters to define the form of the disorder.
Answer:
physical
Explanation:
The health care provider has prescribed amiodarone for a patient with ventricular dysrhythmias. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, which statement by the patient would lead the nurse to notify the health care provider?
Answer:
I take a blood thinner so I don't get clots.
Explanation:
A ventricular dysrhythmia is the disturbance in the typical rhythm of the electrical movement of the heart which arises in the ventricles while Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medicine utilized for treating and preventing different of types of irregular heartbeats. This includes ventricular fibrillation (VF), ventricular tachycardia (VT), and wide complex tachycardia, as well as paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and atria fibrillation.
From the patient's medical history it is not advisable to prescribe an amiodarone dosage.
Answer:
I do take blood thinners , to prevent clotting.
Explanation:
Amiodarone as oral or intravenous intake is used to slowdown or prevent excessive excitation of the heart to reduce irregular heart beats.(arrhythmia), They are therefore commonly refers to as anti-arrhythmia drugs.
Arrhythmia causes accumulation of blood in the vascular system, leading to blood clotting. Therefore blood thinners are usually used by patients with arrhythmia to prevent clot.
However,usage of amiodarone and blood thinner e.g heparin, will make the blood too thin, which may lead to lysis of blood cells and profuse bleeding.
Therefore the nurse should alert the health care provider immediately, she noticed this in medical history, to review the prescription.
For individuals with cancer who are undergoing chemotherapy, bone marrow suppression places these individuals at risk for life-threatening infections. What is the most common cause of these infections?
Answer:
Overgrowth of the client's own normal flora.
Explanation:
The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is overgrowth of their own normal flora. Hand hygiene, careful preparation of food, and avoiding exposure to individuals harboring an infection help to decrease the risks secondary to external organisms. These actions however, do not affect the risk of normal flora overgrowth.
Bacterial overgrowth syndrome (BOS) is a term that describes clinical manifestations that occur when the normally low number of bacteria that inhabit the stomach, duodenum, jejunum, and proximal ileum significantly increases or becomes overtaken by other pathogens.
Aplastic anemia.
The bone marrow failure syndromes comprise a group of disorders than can be either inherited or acquired. These diseases are intrinsic disorders of the bone marrow involving disruption in the homeostasis and function of hematopoietic stem cells, resulting in inadequate production of either a single or multiple cell lines (erythroid for red cells, myeloid for white blood cells, megakaryocytic for platelets). The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is aplastic anemia and overgrowth of their own normal flora.Learn more:
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To remember the four bases found in DNA-thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine-Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself, "The Girl Ate Cookies." Which of the following did Luke use in this scenario?
1. The method of loci
2. A mnemonic device
3. Chunking
4. Rhyming
Answer: 2)
A mnemonic device
Explanation: A mnemonic is a tool or memory aid that helps people to remember or memorize things easily. It helps you to remember an idea or phrase with a pattern of letters, numbers, or relatable associations. Mnemonic devices may include special rhymes and poems, acronyms, images, songs, outlines, and other tools. In the question Luke makes up a sentence using the first letter from each base as the first letters for his words, repeating to himself to help him remember more easily the bases of DNA. In other words Luke formed mnemonics using the first letters of the DNA bases to remember them easily.
A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?
A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis-This is an example of Internal evidence.
Explanation:
Internal Evidence refers to the practice data that is found in the health care records of a nursing home/clicnic.
On the other hand ,the external evidence are based on the information that is collected from various scientific research
In the statement -(A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis) the information related to the pilot program was obtained through internal evidence .
so we can say that the internal evidence factor has proven most effective in this decision
Internal evidence
Explanation:
Evidence-based practice is very crucial in healthcare services like nursing. This involves using the right evidence to make medical decisions regarding patient care. This is done by the combination of research, clinical expertise and patient preference.
This provides better healthcare outcomes, reduces healthcare costs, and also serves the healthcare professionals’ career.
Internal evidence includes clinical expertise, healthcare institution practice initiatives like quality improvement or outcome management project initiatives. The patient data collected through patient assessment and evaluation are also part of internal evidence .
The given case is a pilot program from the healthcare institution which provides data for internal evidence.
A young adult is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. When the LPN/LVN places the client's hand over his head, it remains in that position. The LPN/LVN understands that this is a description of which of the following?a) conversion hysteria.
b) waxy flexibility.
c) dystonic reaction.
d) neurasthenia.
Answer:
b. waxy flexibility
Explanation:
Waxy flexibility -
It is the symptom of catatonia , which is linked with some mental disorder like , bipolar disorder , schizophrenia etc.
In this symptom the person is not able to respond to any external as well as internal stimuli , and remain in a stable and constant posture .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
The correct answer is b. waxy flexibility .
Hysterical disorders are forms of communication; they provide the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey. This statement BEST reflects the perspective of _____ theorists.
Answer:
Hysterical disorders are forms of communication; they provide the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey. This statement BEST reflects the perspective of cognitive theorists.
Explanation:
Cognitive psycology basically focuses on how people think, understand and know. It has emphasis on learning how people comprehend and represent the world around them and focus on conscious thinking. Also has emphasis on individual's active construction for understanding. It also provides the person with a means for expressing emotions that would otherwise be difficult to convey.
Hence, this statement BEST reflects the perspective of cognitive theorists
All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates EXCEPT _________?
A) Bread
B) Soft drinks
C) Pasta
D) Rice
Answer:
the answer is soft drinks
Explanation:
Because Carbohydrates are essential to the body. They are sugars or starches that provide energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.
There are two different types of carbohydrates: simple and complex. People should limit their intake of simple carbohydrates, such as white bread, pasta, and rice. However, the body needs complex carbohydrates to support the following:
the immune system
brain function
the nervous system
energy to perform tasks
digestive function
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend a person consumes 45–65% of their daily calories from complex carbohydrates.
The following foods contain complex carbohydrates:
quinoa
brown rice
vegetables
whole grain pasta, bread, and other baked goods
oatmeal
fruits
barley
People should avoid overly processed products that contain bleached, white flour, and foods with added sugar.
Learn the difference between good and bad carbs here.
All of these foods give you complex carbohydrates except soft drinks, hence option B is correct.
What are the sources of carbohydrates?The body needs carbohydrates to function. They are sugars or starches that supply energy for all the cells and tissues in the body.
There are two different forms of carbohydrates: simple and complicated. Simple carbs, such as white bread, pasta, and rice, should be consumed in moderation.
The macronutrient category of carbohydrates includes a wide variety of foods and beverages. The majority of carbohydrates are found naturally in foods made from plants, such grains. Additionally, processed food makers add carbs in the form of starch or extra sugar.
Therefore, option (B) Soft drinks is correct.
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Dr. Frank is a therapist who believes that psychological disorders can be caused by neurotransmitter imbalances in the brain. Dr. Frank takes which perspective on human behavior?
Answer:
Biological
Explanation:
A pilot program implementing a new screening tool for drug and alcohol abuse has proven to be very effective by the staff of an acute medical unit. As the staff prepares to utilize this tool on a regular basis, which factor has proven most effective in this decision?
Answer:
internal evidence
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the factor that has proven most effective in this decision was internal evidence. This factor refers to information that has been gathered from the internal sources in which the contents have been discussed. Which in this scenario were the staff of an acute medical unit within the pilot program.
What is the main nutrition-related problem likely to be encountered by a vegan if his or her diet is not carefully selected? high cholesterol level insufficient intake of vitamin B-12 insufficient intake of complex carbohydrates insufficient intake of fibe
Answer: insufficient intake of vitamin B-12
Explanation:
The vegan diet is devoid of Vitamin B-12 which can lead to serious health complications like anemia. The Vitamin B-12 is found in animal derived food products for example, dairy, meat and eggs. There are no plant derived food which can provide sufficient amount of B-12.
Vegetarians must ensure to obtain the adequate amount of Vitamin B-12 each day to avoid a deficiency of this vitamin.
With _____ conflict, team members disagree because their different experiences and expertise lead them to different views of the problem and solutions.
Answer:rr
COGNITIVE CONFLICTS
Explanation:
Cognitive conflict happens when a person is confronted with information or idea that contradicts his or her own beliefs, value and ideas or the emotional discomfort that a person feels when his or her beliefs contradict each other. Example
Cognitive conflict can happen in a workplace when employees has different ideas about how to perform or carry out a given task and they start to contradict each other based on their beliefs , idea or value in order to make a work related decision .
Therefore when team members disagree because their different experiences and expertise lead them to different views of the problem and solutions it is called COGNITIVE CONFLICTS.
Answer:
Cognitive
Explanation:
Cognitive conflict is used to describe a kind of feeling or emotional discomfort whereby an individual's feeling, ideas or emotion goes contrary to their prior knowledge.
In the. situation where each individuals in the team have a different disagree because of their different experience we can say that the conflict experienced there is cognitive conflict.
Which theory would suggest that watching a horror movie late at night could make you more likely to interpret unfamiliar, faint sounds in your home as threatening as you subsequently tried to fall asleep?
Answer: Signal detection theory
Explanation:
Signal detection theory is the concept that defines about ability to distinguish between information contained stimulus and random stimulus pattern that disturbs the focus from information. Distraction can be created through noise-like factors.
According to the question, horror movie can induce random pattern which makes a person interpret about noises or sound while falling asleep because of distractions which does not happen while sleeping normally (without watching horror movie) as information-oriented pattern .Thus, it depicts signal detection theory.
Sylvia is almost nine months pregnant and very close to her delivery date. The doctors have found that she has an active case of genital herpes. Which of the following is the best course of action to prevent Sylvia’s baby from contracting the disease?
a. Perform a cesarean section
b. Terminate the pregnancy
c. Deliver the baby through the birth canal
d. Give the baby blood transfusions
The best course of action to prevent Sylvia’s baby from contracting genital herpes is to [ option a ] perform a cesarean section (C-section).
This methodology lessens the gamble of the child being contaminated during conveyance. Prenatal antiviral medication can assist in reducing outbreaks prior to birth.
This is very important because delivering a baby through the birth canal could put the baby at risk of getting the infection, which can lead to serious problems. Antiviral medication is part of the last month of pregnancy's prenatal care for women with genital herpes to reduce the likelihood of an outbreak at delivery. Notwithstanding, in the event that a flare-up happens during work, a C-segment is firmly prescribed to forestall neonatal HSV.