She has bradycardia. The action she should take is to go to an emergency, because the blood is not circulating normally through her body.
What is bradycardia?Bradycardia is irregular or slow heart rhythm, usually less than 60 beats per minute. At this rate, the heart cannot pump enough oxygen-rich blood to your body during activity or exercise.
With this information, we can conclude that She has bradycardia. The action she should take is to go to an emergency, because the blood is not circulating normally through her body.
Learn more about Bradycardia in brainly.com/question/10531694
#SPJ2
Linda's heart rate after exercising is 204 beats per minute, which is above her target heart-rate zone upper limit. She should decrease her exercise intensity to get her heart rate back within the target range of 100 to 170 bpm for her age.
Explanation:Linda, who is 20 years old, has a target heart-rate zone of 100 to 170 beats per minute (bpm) for moderate-intensity physical activity. After jogging, she counted her pulse for 10 seconds and obtained a count of 34 beats. To find her heart rate in bpm, we can use a conversion factor of six since there are 60 seconds in a minute and she counted for 10 seconds, so we multiply 34 beats by 6, resulting in 204 bpm.
Since Linda's heart rate of 204 bpm exceeds her target heart-rate zone upper limit of 170 bpm, she should decrease the intensity of her exercise. This adjustment is necessary to bring her heart rate back within her target zone to ensure she is exercising safely and most effectively for moderate-intensity physical activity.
A client is experiencing signs and symptoms of congestive heart failure. The client's disease is in which phase of its clinical course?
Answer:
Clinical.
Explanation:
Disease may be defined as the condition that can might result in the change in the normal physiology of the body. The diseases are classified into two main categories - clinical disease and sub clinical disease.
The sub clinical disease do not have any sign and symptoms. The clinical disease may be defined as the disease that has characteristic features and shows proper signs and symptoms in the individual. The congestive heart failure shows specific symptoms and included in the clinical disease.
Thus, the answer is clinical.
Which mode of oxygen delivery would most likely reverse the manifestations? A male client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and has an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%.A. Simple maskB. Non-rebreather maskC. Face tentD. Nasal cannula
Answer:
A non-rebreather mask
Explanation:
A non-rebreathing mask have an oxygen reservoir bag which can be used to deliver oxygen at high concentrations to a patient who is breathing spontaneously. It has a one-way valve that diverts the oxygen flow into the reservoir bag during expiration it also prevents exhaled gases from entering the reservoir bag.The use of the oxygen reservoir bag helps to increase the inspired oxygen concentration by preventing oxygen loss during inspiration.
A non-rebreather supplies close to 100% supplementary oxygen compared to the 21% in air and partial non-rebreather have no reservoir bag, allowing supplementary oxygen to blend with atmospheric oxygen causing delivery oxygen at a concentration of 45%.
Pharm-Ace holds a patent on a drug. Pharm-Ace used the patent (evidenced by the patent certificate) to secure a $1 million loan from First Bank. The patent is chattel paper.True / False.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
A chattel paper is a record which shows that or reveals that there is a monetary obligation and security interest in particular goods. In this case, Pharm-Ace holds a patent on a drug and have used it to secure a loan. The patent in this case serves as a collateral as it can be sold by the bank to recover their money back, but it is not a chattel paper because there isn't a security interest.
The statement regarding the patent being chattel paper is false because patents are intellectual property rights and not chattel paper. Chattel paper refers to a document evidencing a monetary obligation and a security interest in or lease of specific goods. Using a patent as collateral does not reclassify it as chattel paper.
The statement "The patent is chattel paper" is False.
In legal terms, chattel paper refers to a document that evidence both a monetary obligation and a security interest in or a lease of specific goods. A patent is an intellectual property right granted to an inventor, giving them exclusive rights to their invention for a certain period of time. It does not fit the definition of chattel paper. Using a patent as collateral for a loan is an example of using it as a security interest, but it remains categorized as a patent and not as chattel paper.
What is a Patent?
A patent is a limited property right granted by the government to an inventor, allowing them to exclude others from making, using, or selling their invention for a limited period of time. This exclusive right incentivizes the inventor to invest in developing and bringing new products to market.
Ashya wants to focus on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders and other problematic patterns of behavior. What area of psychology should she work in?
Ashya should consider pursuing a career in clinical psychology. Clinical psychology is a specialized field within psychology that focuses on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders and problematic patterns of behavior. The correct answer is clinical psychology.
Clinical psychologists are trained to assess and provide therapy for individuals facing a wide range of mental health issues, such as anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, and substance abuse, among others.
In this field, Ashya would work to understand the underlying causes of psychological problems, provide evidence-based treatments. Clinical psychologists often work in various settings, including hospitals, mental health clinics, private practices, and research institutions. They play a crucial role in improving the well-being of their clients by applying psychological theories and therapeutic techniques.
To become a clinical psychologist, Ashya would typically need to earn a doctoral degree in psychology (Ph.D. or Psy.D.), complete an internship, and obtain a license to practice in her jurisdiction. This path would equip her with the necessary knowledge and skills to make a positive impact in the field of mental health and well-being.
To know more about clinical:
https://brainly.com/question/34396485
#SPJ12
Ashya should consider working in the field of Clinical Psychology. This area of psychology is dedicated to the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders and problematic behavioral patterns.
Definition: Clinical psychology focuses on assessing, diagnosing, and treating mental disorders.
Scope: This includes a wide variety of issues such as anxiety disorders, mood disorders, personality disorders, and more. Psychologists in this field aim to alleviate psychological distress through various treatment methods.
Approach: Clinical psychologists often use evidence-based practices, integrating scientific research with practical applications to provide effective treatments.
Research Component: While clinical psychology is primarily applied, many professionals also engage in research to better understand psychological disorders and improve treatment outcomes.
Related Fields: There are related disciplines, such as Counseling Psychology, which focuses on emotionally healthy individuals and improving their quality of life in various contexts, including social and vocational aspects.
Career Path: Typically, individuals aspiring to become clinical psychologists pursue advanced education, such as a Ph.D. or Psy.D., and complete supervised training through internships.
Setting: Clinical psychologists can work in various environments, including hospitals, private practices, schools, and community health organizations.
In summary, pursuing a career in clinical psychology would allow Ashya to actively contribute to diagnosing and treating psychological disorders, making a significant impact on the lives of individuals facing mental health challenges.
Scott, age 24, has withdrawn from most social contact and stopped dressing appropriately. When you speak with him, his conversation tends to make no sense. Of the following options, Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with ________.A. generalized anxiety disorder.B. a specific phobia.C. schizophrenia.D. an addiction.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety. It lasts for longer than six months. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Generalized anxiety?Generalized anxiety disorder is a mental condition of excessive worry about the everyday issues and situations which one face. It lasts for longer than six months. In addition to feeling worried a person may also feel restlessness, fatigue, trouble in concentration, irritability, increased muscle tension, and trouble in sleeping.
The two main treatments for generalized anxiety disorder include psychotherapy and medications. A person may benefit most from a combination of the two treatments. It may take some trial and error method to discover which of the treatments works best for a person.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
Learn more about Anxiety here:
https://brainly.com/question/28481974
#SPJ2
What is your personal view on the definition of health? Please consider the theme of "residing within the body". How have we seen similar explanations in mental health? How is it more generally linked to causal explanations that are common in our culture? Please comment on the definition of health between Eastern and Western cultures?
Explanation:
To explain health in terms of the theme "residing within the body",
it points about the mental health and physical healththe outer cleaning is equally important to clean the inner organs by drinking plenty of water, and eating nutritious food.It is necessary to have work-life balance. We should never curse our body with too much of stress, work-load, etc.Eastern and western culture:
Western:
Divides the "health from the disease"Change the environmentEastern:
Health as balanced state and disease means imbalanced stateAdapt to the environmentCardiovascular exercise affects brain structures in nonhuman animals by promoting neuron growth and increased synaptic connections in a brain structure called the _____.
Answer: Hippo campus
Explanation:
The cardiovascular exercise affects the brain structure in non human animals. It is done by promoting growth of the neurons and hence increasing the synaptic connections.
The synaptic connections in the hippo campus are improved because of which the development takes place. The brain is adaptive and the damaged part of the brain is replaced by the functional part of the brain.
An adult is swinging a small child by the arms, and the child screams and grabs his left arm. It is determined in the emergency department that the radial head is partially dislocated. What is this partially dislocated radial head documented as?A) Volkmann's contractureB) SubluxationC) Compartment syndromeD) Sprain
Answer: B) Subluxation
Explanation:
A partial dislocation is referred to as a subluxation. A Volkmann's contracture is a clawlike deformity that results from compartment syndrome or obstructed arterial blood flow to the forearm and hand. Compartment syndrome is a condition in which a structure such as a tendon or nerve is constricted in a confined space and affects nerve innervation, leading to subsequent palsy. A sprain is injury to the ligaments surrounding the joint.
There are a number of federally subsidized programs that supply food to people in need in the United States. Match the population group with the nutrition program available to assist them.
Answer:
Fresh fruit and vegetable program
Food distribution program on Indian reservations
summer food service program
Home delivered meals
congregate meals for the elderly
Child and adult care food program
School breakfast program
National school lunch program
Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)
Commodity Supplemental Food Program
TEFAP
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (formerly Stamp)
Explanation:
Fresh fruit and vegetable program: Low income elementary schools.
Food distribution program on Indian reservations: Low-income American Indian and non-Indian households on reservations; members of federally recognized tribes.
Summer food service program: Residence in a low income neighborhood or participation in a program
Home delivered meals (meals on wheels): Age 60 or over homebound.
Congregate meals for the elderly: Age 60 or over
Child and adult care food program: Child enrolled in organized child-care program and seniors in adult-care programs; income guidelines are the same as those for the School Lunch
School breakfast program: Low income children of school age.
National school lunch program: Low income children of school age
Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC): Low-income pregnant/lactating women, infants, and children less than 5 years old at nutritional risk.
Commodity Supplemental Food Program: Certain low-income populations such as pregnant women, children until the age of 6 years, and seniors.
TEFAP: Low-income families
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program: Low-income families
The United States has several federal nutrition programs to assist specific populations: SNAP for families and individuals, government-subsidized meals for low-income students, and WIC for women and children. Additional assistance includes programs for home heating, rent, disability income, and health care.
Explanation:The United States offers various federally subsidized nutrition programs to assist different population groups with food security. The Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP), formerly known as the food stamp program, assists many families and individuals, including those with working members. For children from low-income families, the government subsidizes school lunches and breakfasts. The Special Supplemental Food Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) provides necessary nutrition to pregnant women, new mothers, and young children.
Other programs forming the safety net include the Low Income Home Energy Assistance Program for home heating bills, housing assistance for rent payments, Supplemental Security Income for the disabled and elderly in poverty, and Medicaid for health care. These programs collectively work towards reducing poverty and improving the welfare of vulnerable populations.
A 6-year-old girl presents with a limp. The parents noted that the girl was having difficulty walking for the past two days. They deny trauma or fever but did note a cold one week prior. On physical exam, the girl appears well and is afebrile, with the left hip held flexed and abducted. Laboratory tests reveal normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), C-reactive protein (CRP), and WBC. Ultrasound shows the presence of joint effusion of the left hip. Which of the following of the most likely diagnosis?a. Myositis
b. Septic arthritis
c. Stress fracture
d. Transient (toxic) synovitis
Answer:
d. Transient (toxic) synovitis
Explanation:
From the symptoms stated in the question, the girl has suffered from Transient (toxic) synovitis. Transient (toxic) synovitis results from inflammation in the synovium (inner linnings of the capsule) situated in the hip joint. Studies have shown that it is one of the most causes of hip pain in children.
It is known that symptoms can start suddenly before it typically shows up within 1-2 weeks. At the earlier stage during 1-2 weeks, an upper respiratory illness is noticed in affected patients. The symptoms usually develop afterwards with acute pain in the depressed area of the thigh, the junction of the trunk at the thigh, knee joints, hip and the srrounding region, thus the children walk with pain.
Also, in affected patient,they are often afebrile or have no or low-grade fever.
Ultrasound shows the presence of joint effusion(fluid collection) of the left hip causing monoarticular disorder of synovial joints, Hence,the hip is held flexed or abducted. Treatment includes Clinical administration of nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs and weight barrier capable of inducing the patient by exertion some force and pressure towards the weight should be limited.
Cheryl is trying to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her. According to observational learning theory, to be effective what must occur?
Answer:
To be effective, Learning through observation requires keen attentive abilities. This model does not meet reinforcement to occur, but instead, requires a social model such a friend, parent, teacher with surroundings.
Explanation:
This theory needs an individual learning a behavior by observing another individual and that individual serving as a model through whom other individuals learn the behavior. It suggests that an individual’s environment, cognition and behavior all incorporate and ultimately determine how the individual functions and model. There is a reciprocal determinism in which the environment can influence people’s behavior and vice versa.
According to observational theory, B. Her son must be motivated to learn how to do the laundry, must occur.
Cheryl wants to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her, which involves observational learning. According to Bandura's observational learning theory, four key steps must occur for learning to be effective: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation.
Attention: Cheryl's son must pay attention to what she is doing while doing the laundry. Without attention, he won't be able to observe the steps involved in the process.
Retention: He must be able to remember what Cheryl did. This means that he needs to retain the sequence of actions and any specific techniques she uses during the laundry process.
Reproduction: Cheryl's son must be able to reproduce the behavior. In other words, he needs to practice and perform the steps he observed and remembered to be able to do the laundry himself.
Motivation: Finally, he needs to be motivated to learn and perform the task. This could involve Cheryl explaining the importance of doing the laundry or offering some form of reinforcement for completing the task.
Given the options provided, the most critical factor, according to observational learning theory, is motivation, because without the desire to learn and perform the behavior, the son may not engage fully in the learning process.
Complete question:
Cheryl is trying to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her. According to observational learning theory, to be effective what must occur?
A. Her son must always model the behavior immediately.
B. Her son must be motivated to learn how to do the laundry.
C. Her son must be able to complete other tasks while watching her.
Since the advent of the Internet, there has been a(n) ________ in the percentage of American couples who report meeting online. The percentage meeting online is currently ________ among same-sex couples than among heterosexual couples.a. increase; larger
b. decrease; larger
c. increase; smaller
d. decrease; smaller
Answer:
Increase; larger
Explanation:
Before the internet came into existence, dates were arranged physically. However, since the advent of the internet, it is now possible to communicate and arrange dates online, Some of these dates actually leads to marriage; leading to an increase in the percentage of American couples who report meeting online. Nonetheless, it has been perceived that the percentage of same-sex couples is larger than among heterosexual couples, maybe partly due to the fact that not everyone has come to terms with same-sex marriages, thus online dating has become a popular option for them.
marking brilliant !!
Over the past few decades, what has been shown about school readiness programs?
A.They are too challenging and should be redesigned.
B. They have a positive impact on the pre-kindergarten child.
C. They promote anxiety because children are too young to be away from home.
D. They teach children more about functioning in a social institution than elementary school
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:the answer is b
Explanation:
In the Medicare program, which term describes the payment for hospital services based on flat fees determined by the diseases and problems treated during the hospital admission?
The correct answer is; Prospective payment system.
Further Explanation:
The prospective payment system was implemented by the Medicare program to pay hospitals a flat fee for certain services performed. The coding process is very important to this service so that the payment is made for the fixed price. The codes that are primarily used are;
Ambulatory Payment Classification for all outpatient claimsCurrent Procedural Terminology for any other outpatient claimsDiagnosis-related groups for all impatient claimsThe program was made so that hospitals would lower prices for the patients but the prices have kept rising over the years. In 2000, there was a new change in the law and this gave patients a fixed fee for going to an approved outpatient care faculty such as urgent care clinics. The clinics that are used must be part of the Federally Qualified Health Centers.
Learn more about the Medicare program at https://brainly.com/question/932602
#LearnwithBrainly
Noor has gained twenty pounds over her optimal weight. We would expect her levels of leptin and insulin to _____ in order to _____ her feelings of hunger.
Answer:
The correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
Explanation:
Insulin is the hormone that is made by the pancreas that permits the cells to absorb sugar or glucose to acts as energy. If insulin level is increase in the blood it will lead to increase the feeling of the hunger even however physiological you not need more food.
Leptin in other hand has the role as hunger hormone which include the lowering the feeling of the hunger if present in high level.
Thus, the correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
What is the minimal number of kilocalories that should come from carbohydrates in a diet of a body builder who consumes 4,100 total kilocalories daily?
Answer:
1845 kcal/day
Explanation:
According to dietary guidelines, 45% to 65% of kilocalories should come from carbohydrates in a daily uptake. A minimal number of kilocalories from carbohydrate should be 45%. If a body-builder consumes 4,100 kilocalories in a day, 1845 kilocalories comes from the carbohydrate.
45% of 4,100 kcal
= 45/100 x 4,100 kcal
= 0.45 x 4,100
= 1,845 kcal per day
It does not matter how much protein intake takes a bodybuilder. 45% of kilocalories should come from carbohydrates.
According to longitudinal population studies, the five factors commonly found to affect well-being include all of the following except_____________.
Answer: income
Explanation: longitudinal population studies are observational studies that track the same population, wherein the differences in such population are less likely to be the result of cultural differences. In it they study variations in thoughts, behaviors, emotions etc at instantaneous moments. As regards income, since these studies are instantaneous, there's no comparison to previous income or progression in income that affects wellbeing.
An older adult presents with a pearly-domed nodular looking lesion on the back of the neck. It does not hurt or itch. He does not know how long he's had it. What is the most likely etiology?
Answer:
Basal cell carcinoma .
Explanation:
Cancer may be defined as the uncontrolled division of the cell that might occur due to mutation. The different type of cancer are carcinoma, sarcoma and leukemia.
The basal cell carcinoma depicts the skin cancer cell that occur due to the mutation in the cell responsible for the production of new skin cell. This cancer is generally occur due to the areas that are directly exposed to the sun especially in the neck. These cancer can cause nodular like lesion.
Thus, the answer is basal cell carcinoma.
What type of pain reduction during child birth uses smaller needles and a system for administering continuous doses to reduce the pain of child birth?
Answer:
Walking epidural or dual spinal-epidural
Explanation:
Epidural which involves the direct administration of anesthesia into the outermost section of the spinal cord, is a form pain relief procedure usually used in childbirth. There are basically two types of epidural procedures. We have the continuous classical epidural and the walking epidural.
The walking epidural, also know as the dual spinal-epidural, involves the use smaller needless as well as a system in administering continuous small doses of drug cocktail to reduce the pain of the woman in labor as well as make her comfortable and aware of her contractions.
Unlike the classical epidural, walking epidural promotes contraction and mobility of the woman during labor, thereby shortening the length of labor. Walking epidural makes it possible for the woman to have control over her body unlike the classical epidural.
Suzy just spent a hot summer afternoon having a picnic. The food has been lying out for a few hours. Explain what she should do with the food and why.
Final answer:
Suzy should discard any perishable foods that have been out for more than two hours in the temperature range of 4°C to 60°C to avoid foodborne illnesses, as they are at high risk for bacterial growth.
Explanation:
Suzy should analyze the picnic foods that have been left out during the hot summer afternoon to determine if they are safe to eat or need to be discarded. Perishable foods that have been left out at temperatures between 4°C (40°F) and 60°C (140°F) for more than two hours are at risk for the growth of microorganisms that cause foodborne disease, and consequently should be thrown away to avoid illness. Foods that are meant to be eaten hot should have been kept hot, and those meant to be cold should have been kept refrigerated; any deviation from these guidelines potentially makes the food unsafe.
Regarding leftovers, since they have been exposed to outdoor temperatures for a few hours, it is likely that they have entered the temperature danger zone where bacteria can rapidly multiply. Following the safety guideline, these foods should not be consumed. It is crucial for food safety to prevent foodborne illnesses that can result from the consumption of improperly handled foods.
A sporadic case means a disease that is inherited by genes in the family, but its onset occurs in random generations. A) True B) False
Answer: False
Explanation: Sporadic case is onset in random generations but it doesn't show a disease that is inherited by genes.
A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2013. Her expected date of birth (EDB) would be:
Answer:
October 14th
Explanation:
Child birth is the most miraculous time of a human beings life. It takes a period of 9 months and a new human baby is brought into this life.
Being pregnant simply means that the female stops having menstrual cycles because the child is in the process of formation. Every specie has a designated time period in which the reproduction process completes. For human beings, it is nine months, for cats, it is 2 months and it varies.
A woman who had her last menstrual period on February 14th, would expect child birth on October 14th. It can be before or after too.
Which Dimension of Wellness includes openness to new ideas, continued learning, a sense of humor, and the ability to find solutions to challenges?
Answer:
Intellectual Dimensions of wellness
Explanation:
Intellectual Dimensions of wellness -
This dimension of wellness include , creative and innovative activities .
It refers to the ability and desire of the human mind to adapt and initiate new experiences and ideas , which would help the professional as well as personal lives , is referred to as Intellectual Dimensions of wellness .
The people learn and apply new innovative skills and challenges for better development .
Hence , from the question,
The correct term is Intellectual Dimensions of wellness.
The abyssal plain, or flat portion of the sea floor is littered with hills and mountains, many of which are volcanic in origin. Which of the following are the names of some of these features?o
a. Abyssal hills
b. Seamounts
c. Guyots
A victim with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. what should you do?
Answer:
Start CPR beginning with chest compressions.
Explanation:
Airway obstruction may be defined as any obstacle in the normal process of respiration. This might occur due to some allergy, disease or the inhalation of the foreign substance.
The airway obstruction might cause problem in the inhalation of the oxygen and its deficiency in the specific organs of the body. In this case the CPR (Cardiopulmonary resuscitation) must be performed on the individual. The chest must be compressed so that pulmonary attack can be prevented. The artificial ventilation must be given to the patient.
Thus, the answer is start CPR beginning with chest compressions.
If an individual with an airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, immediately call for emergency medical support and begin CPR if trained to do so. Check for the obstruction between compressions. It is paramount to only provide such aid if one has appropriate training.
Explanation:If a victim with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, it is crucial to call for emergency medical care immediately. Assess the situation quickly; if you are trained in providing aid, begin CPR with chest compressions. After each set of compressions, check to see if the object causing the obstruction has become dislodged. It's essential to be trained in the correct CPR and choking relief techniques to avoid further harm to the victim.
The person experiencing a foreign body airway obstruction may show signs like difficulty speaking or breathing, gasping or wheezing, clutching at the throat, and potentially turning blue from lack of oxygen. Immediate action can be lifesaving. However, remember that it's important only to perform such maneuvers if you are properly trained.
In cases of choking under anesthesia, a procedure called an endotracheal intubation is performed. This involves placing a tube into the trachea to maintain an open airway and ensure that oxygen reaches the lungs.
What could lead to the development of a musculoskeletal disorder?
Answer:
Lifting
Pushing
Pulling
Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) can be caused by poor body posture, performing repetitive tasks, heavy lifting, and working in an awkward position. Also, age, genetics, lack of exercise and poor diet can contribute to developing these disorders.
Explanation:Musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs) pertain to injuries or pain in the human musculoskeletal system, which includes the joints, ligaments, muscles, nerves, tendons, and structures that support limbs, neck and back. Several factors can lead to the development of a musculoskeletal disorder. Some of these factors include poor body posture, performing repetitive tasks, heavy lifting, or working in an awkward position. In addition, age, genetics, and lifestyle choices such as lack of exercise and poor diet can also contribute to developing MSDs. For example, someone who spends a lot of their day sitting and uses a computer might develop a musculoskeletal disorder if their office chair is not providing adequate back support.
Learn more about Musculoskeletal Disorders here:https://brainly.com/question/36220138
#SPJ12
Mr. Goodman is unresponsive. Valerie must now simultaneously check for breathing and a pulse for at least 5 seconds but no more than _______.
Answer: 10 seconds
Explanation: When performing first aid, since Mr Goodman is unresponsive, the next step is to open the victim's airway by tilting the head and lifting the chin.
Keeping the airway open, look, listen and feel for breathing. Before deciding that breathing is absent look, listen and feel for up to 10 seconds because time is critical when initiating CPR , which is the next step.
The research method used by Wilhelm Wundt in which volunteers were taught to carefully observe, analyze, and describe their own sensations, mental images, and emotional reactions is called _______________.
Answer:
trained introspection
Explanation:
Introspection is an act of self-consciousness that involves thinking and analyzing your own thoughts and behaviors, being one of the defining characteristics of the human being. We are naturally curious about ourselves. We repeat our own experiences and actions in the hope of understanding who and how we are, but the term is also used to refer to an experimental technique that consists in analyzing our own thoughts and feelings in a structured and rigorous way. Therefore, when we talk about introspection, we can be talking about the informal process of reflecting on oneself or the formal method used in experimental research in psychology many years ago.
The first meaning of introspection is that most people are probably more familiar with. This is the process that involves informally examining our own inner feelings and thoughts. When we reflect on our thoughts, emotions and memories and examine what they mean, we are doing introspection.
The second meaning would be a research technique developed by Wilhelm Wundt, also known as experimental self-observation. This technique consisted of training people in the most systematic and objective way possible to analyze the content of their own thoughts.
Wilhelm Wundt used a method called introspection to analyze and describe conscious experiences, which was fundamental to his approach in psychology and laid the foundation for structuralism.
Explanation:The research method used by Wilhelm Wundt, whereby volunteers were trained to observe, analyze, and describe their own sensations, mental images, and emotional reactions, is known as introspection. This method, also referred to as "internal perception," is crucial for understanding Wundt's approach to psychology. Wundt, often considered the father of experimental psychology, utilized introspection to break down consciousness into its basic elements. He further believed in voluntarism, emphasizing that participants in psychological experiments should be aware of the intentions of such experiments. His work in structuralism laid the groundwork for subsequent psychological theories and methods.
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. absent peripheral pulses. b. cool and clammy skin. c. restlessness or anxiety. d. rapid, shallow breathing.
Answer:
a. absent peripheral pulses.
Explanation:
Shock is a syndrome that is characterized by the inability of the heart and / or peripheral circulation to maintain adequate perfusion of vital organs. It causes tissue hypoxia and cellular metabolic failure, either by low blood flow, or by an irregular distribution of it.
The signs are as follows:
• Superficial veins disappear
• Cold and pale skin and mucous membranes
• Dryness of the mucous membranes
•Muscular weakness
• Anxiety
• Oliguria
• Accelerated or shallow breathing
• Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
A client in active labor is admitted with pree-clampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care? A. Patellar reflex 4+. B. Four-hour urine output 240 ml. C. Blood pressure 158/80.D. Respiration 12/minute.
Answer:
A. Patellar reflex 4+
Explanation:
Pree-clampsia in pregnant women shows some few symptoms which include; high blood pressure, protein in urine, swelling in legs and hands. Pree-clampsia is can be caused by poor nutrition or high amout of body fat, this high amount of blood fat can increase cholesterol which blocks the blood flow into the uterus. Now, a client in active labor who is admitted with pree-clampsia may increase the chances of long-term problems for both mom and baby in the labor process. The best assessment finding that is most significant in planning this child's care is Patellar reflex 4+.
This is because Patellar reflex 4+ test the L4 segment of the spinal cord.
The patella located at the knee region is being strike with a reflex hammer to stretch the muscle fibers in the quadriceps muscles. The effect of this activity give a signal to the spinal cord and synapses. Afterwards, motor neurons conduct an efferent impulse and relay the message back to the quadriceps muscle, thereby igniting contraction. This contraction can assist the client in active labor when planning for the client's suitable care.
The most significant finding for a client in active labor with preeclampsia for planning care is a Patellar reflex of 4+, indicating severe hyperreflexia which may require urgent intervention.
Explanation:The question is regarding the assessment of a client in active labor with preeclampsia and what finding is most significant in planning the client's care. Among the presented options, Patellar reflex 4+ (A), is the most significant. Preeclampsia can lead to hyperreflexia, and a patellar reflex of 4+ indicates severe hyperreflexia, which can be a precursor to eclampsia, a severe complication that can manifest as seizures. Options B (Four-hour urine output 240 ml), C (Blood pressure 158/80), and D (Respiration 12/minute) also require monitoring, but the exaggerated reflexes are a more immediate concern that may require urgent intervention.