Answer:
The correct answer is- third stage
Explanation:
Labor is divided into three stages first stage, second stage, and third stage. The first stage starts when a contraction starts which dilates the cervix and it ends when the cervix gets fully open.
In the second stage, the baby is pushed by the mother through the birth canal. It ends with the delivery of the baby. After the baby is born the third stage starts and the third stage ends with the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall and safely passed out through the vagina. Therefore the right answer is the third stage.
Collect a large array of colorful poisonous and non-poisonous mushrooms; also capture a mushroom-eating animal, such as frog. Present a hungry frog with a choice of mushrooms that have been dyed or painted a drab poisonous and non-poisonous mushrooms color versus others treated with a solution that is identical to the dye or paint used but uncolored. Record which mushrooms the animal eats. Repeat the test with one more animal and the same mushrooms.
Answer:
Many mushrooms are extremely colorful. One hypothesis is that the colors serve as a warning to prevent animals from eating mushrooms, much like the bright yellow and black stripes on wasps help to deter potential predators. Design an experiment capable of testing this hypothesis.
Explanation:
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Which of the following parts of the nervous system would carry messages from one’s sore knee to the brain and spinal cord to alert the person to stop running and rest?
Answer:peripheral
somatic
Explanation:
somatic nervous system carried information from the joints,muscles, and skin to the spinal cord and brain
A change in the responsiveness of the sensory system based on the average level of surrounding stimulation is called sensory _____.
Answer:
Sensory adaptation.
Explanation:
An exposure to constant or prolonged stimulus will slowly decrease our response.For example, when we rested our arm or hand on the table then the surface of the table will abruptly feel against our hand.Sensory adaptation helps us in daily life work by decreasing our response to constant stimulus that's why we give our attention to other environmental aspects. If our response will remain constant to prolonged stimulus then we can't detect new or important environmental aspects.In watermelons, bitter fruit (B) is dominant over sweet fruit (b), and yellow spots (S) are dominant over no spots (s). The genes for the two characteristics assort independently. A homozygous plant that has bitter fruit and yellow spots is crossed with a homozygous plant that has sweet fruit and no spots. The F1are intercrossed to produce the F2.
a) What will the phenotypic ratio be in the F2 generation?
b) If an F1 plant is backcrossed with the bitter, yellow spotted parent what phenotypes and proportions are expected in the offspring?
c) If an F1 plant is backcrossed with the sweet, nonspotted parent what phenotypes and proportions are expected in the offspring?
Answer:
A) 9:3:3:1
B) All bitter fruit, yellow spotted offsprings
C) Phenotypes are bitter yellow spotted (4), bitter no spot (4), sweet yellow spot (4), and sweet no spot (4). 1:1:1:1
Explanation:
This is a typical dihybrid cross involving two genes, one coding for fruit taste and the other for spot color. The allele for bitter taste (B) and yellow spot (S) is dominant over the allele for sweet taste (b) and no spot (s) respectively.
Hence, a heterozygous F1 resulting from a cross between an homozygous dominant (bitter fruit, yellow spot) and homozygous recessive (sweet fruit, no spot) will have a BbSs genotype. The heterozygous F1 offsprings are self-crossed and produce gametes BS, Bs, bS, bs. (See punnet square). The F2 offsprings will have the following phenotypes: Bitter fruit, yellow spot (9)
Bitter fruit, no spot (3)
Sweet fruit, yellow spot (3)
Sweet fruit, no spot (1)
Back cross between a F1 offspring (BbSs) and homozygous dominant parent (BBSS) will produce all bitter fruit, yellow spot offsprings (see attached image). BBSS (4), BBSs (4), BbSS (4), and BbSs (4) are the offsprings' genotypes.
For the back cross between a F1 offspring (BbSs) and a homozygous recessive (bbss) parent, the Phenotypes with their proportions are as follows:
Bitter fruit, yellow spot (BbSs, 4)
Bitter fruit, no spot (Bbss, 4)
Sweet fruit, yellow spot (bbSs, 4)
Sweet fruit, no spot (bbss, 4).
The phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation from crossing two heterozygous watermelon plants (BbSs) is 9:3:3:1. A backcross of an F1 plant with a homozygous bitter, yellow spotted parent results in 100% bitter, spotted offspring. A backcross with a homozygous sweet, non-spotted parent yields a 1:1:1:1 ratio of phenotypes.
Explanation:In classic Mendelian genetics, the cross between a homozygous bitter fruit, yellow-spotted watermelon plant (BBSS) and a homozygous sweet fruit, non-spotted watermelon plant (bbss) results in the F1 generation all being heterozygous (BbSs) since bitter fruit (B) is dominant over sweet fruit (b), and yellow spots (S) are dominant over no spots (s).
Phenotypic Ratio in the F2 Generation
The intercrossing of the F1 generation (BbSs) would result in the F2 generation having a phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1. This is because each characteristic (bitter vs sweet and spotted vs non-spotted) is inherited independently, resulting in four possible phenotype combinations: bitter with spots, bitter without spots, sweet with spots, and sweet without spots.
Backcross with Bitter, Yellow Spotted Parent
If an F1 plant (BbSs) is backcrossed with the bitter, yellow spotted parent (BBSS), the expected phenotypes and proportions in the offspring would be all bitter with spots (100% B-S-), due to the dominance of the bitter and spotted traits.
Backcross with Sweet, Nonspotted Parent
Similarly, if an F1 plant (BbSs) is backcrossed with the sweet, non-spotted parent (bbss), the resulting phenotypes and proportions expected in the offspring would be a 1:1:1:1 ratio. This results from the combination of the F1 heterozygous traits with the recessive sweet, non-spotted parent's traits.
1. Define isometric contraction and describe an example Isometric contraction occurs when the muscle is activated but held at a fixed length. An example would be the muscles of the leg when holding oneself in a squat position.
2. When the current reached the following stages, what proportion of fibers in the muscle were contracting?
a) at threshold
b) at the maximal stimulus
c) above the maximal stimulus
Answer:
1. Isometric contraction is best defined as a contraction that is not associated with any movement. It can be used by the therapist to increase strength and elasticity.
An example of an isometric contraction is carrying an object in front of you. The weight of the object would be pulling downward, but your hands and arms would be opposing the motion with equal force going upwards. Since your arms are neither raising or lowering, your biceps will be isometrically contracting.
2.
a. At threshold just a few muscle fibers are being recruited.
b. At the maximal stimulus is 100% of recruitable fibers are contracting.
c. Above maximal stimulus, the number of contracting fibers cannot increase.
Explanation:
Vertebrate immune responses involve communication over short and long distances. Which of the following statements best helps explain how cell surface proteins, such as MHC proteins and T cell receptors, mediate cell communication over short distances?
Answer:
The proteins receive electrical signals from nerve cells.
Explanation:
The immune system comprises immune cells that provide defense and protect the body cells and tissues from immunogens.
Immune cells send and receive signals for identifying and attacking pathogens and immunogens.
The cells communicate by:
The proteins interact directly with proteins on the surfaces of other cells.
This can be explained as:
The immune response facilitates the action generally by lymphocytes and T cells.Over short distances, the T-cells and MHC interact with the proteins found on the externals receptors of other cells.The receptors recognize and bind the molecules through the surrounding.Therefore, cells interact directly on protein surfaces.
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The theory that organisms can arise from inanimate matter is called Choose one: A. spontaneous generation. B. endosymbiosis. C. fermentation. D. germ theory.
Answer:
A. Spontaneous Generation
Final answer:
a) Spontaneous generation is the outdated theory that living organisms can arise from non-living matter, which has been replaced by the theories of biogenesis and Cell Theory, affirming that life comes from pre-existing life.
Explanation:
The theory that organisms can arise from inanimate matter is called a) spontaneous generation. This theory, which dates back to ancient Greeks like Aristotle, suggested that living organisms could spontaneously emerge from non-living materials. Flies were thought to arise from rotting flesh, and mice from wheat. However, this theory was disproved by experiments that proved living organisms come from other living organisms, a concept known as biogenesis. The Cell Theory, which is widely accepted today, states that all cells come from pre-existing cells, thus supporting biogenesis over spontaneous generation.
An important challenge to traditional (pre-1860) ideas about species was the observation that seemingly dissimilar organisms, such as hummingbirds, humans, and whales, have similar skeletal structures. This most directly suggested to biologists that ____________.
a) only the best-adapted organisms can survive
b) advantageous changes can be passed along to offspring
c) most evolution occurs rapidly following a mass extinction
d) dissimilar organisms might have evolved from a distant, common ancestor
e) all of the above
Answer:
Option-D
Explanation:
One of the common belief before the Darwin about the species was that the species can change over time but they do not evolve into another species that is the species do not share the common ancestor.
The collected evidence that the similarity in the skeletal system of the distantly related species like in the humming bird, the whales and the humans suggested that they have evolved from the common ancestor. This observation was the challenge to the pre- Darwinian ideas.
Thus, Option-D is the correct answer.
An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds during the Ortolani maneuver does what?
Answer:
B. alerts the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip.
Explanation:
An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds during the Ortolani maneuver would alert the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip. This can be said because the Ortolani maneuver is a technique that is used in order to check hip integrity, and if unequal movement is detected during this technique it suggests that the hip is dislocated.
The Ortolani maneuver is used to detect hip dislocation or dysplasia in infants. If unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds are found, the examiner performs certain movements to assess the state of the hip and may recommend further diagnosis.
Explanation:The Ortolani maneuver is an examination technique in the field of
medicine
that is utilized to detect hip dislocation or congenital hip dysplasia in infants. If during the Ortolani maneuver, the examiner discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds, it can be a sign of a dislocated hip. In such a scenario, the examiner moves the back of the lower legs up and back toward the buttocks, as if ((the infant)) is kneeling. The maneuver involves assisting in moving the infant's thigh diagonally upward and outward. The examiner might also move the thigh down and back, or twist the thigh and the lower leg inward. Upon detecting this abnormality, the examiner will likely recommend further diagnostic procedures to confirm the diagnosis and propose suitable treatment options.
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Helen Fisher suggests that "through evolution humans have developed a set of neurochemicals that drive an 'evolutionary trajectory of loving'." Which of the following is a neurochemical that she sees as important in human sexuality?1. lactose2. dopamine3. pyrethrin4. melanin
Answer:
2. dopamine
Explanation:
Dopamine is one of the neurochemicals involved in the transmission of signals between the neurons of the brain. It is usually referred to as “the feel good” “happy” hormone that is released when stimulated by engaging in a pleasurable experience or activity. Dopamine controls the emotional and mental processes of humans. It is important in sexuality of human as it is responsible for the pleasurable feelings of satisfaction we experience.
What is one way in which microbiologists can distinguish different bacteria that are similar in morphology and staining characteristics?
Answer: Biochemical testing
Explanation:
The biochemical testing is the method which is used to differentiate the bacterial species which is similar in morphology and staining conditions.
The microbiologists previously used gram staining but this technique is not much specific. Now the modern technique is biochemical testing which uses different testing method for more specific testing of the bacterial species.
Biochemical tests includes hydrogen sulfide production, citric acid utilization, methyl red, fermentation.
Which statement about an action potential is true? 1. It "skips" over segments of myelin, hopping from one node of Ranvier to the next. 2. It is a neurotransmitter that relays messages from motor neurons to muscles, enabling movement.3. It defends the brain from infection and inflammation.4. It has a nucleus containing DNA.
Answer:
1. It "skips" over segments of myelin, hopping from one node of Ranvier to the next.
Explanation:
The action potential is the electrical signal. It is produced in neurons and muscle cells to propagate the nerve impulse. It is fired when the membrane of a neuron is depolarized. Myelinated axons exhibit saltatory conduction of action potential. This means that the action potential is propagated from one node of Ranvier to the next while skipping the in-between myelinated region. This occurs since the voltage-gated channels are mainly concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier. Therefore, the action potential is mainly carried at nodes where Na+ and K+ flow across the membrane.
The students in Ms. Hill's science class were investigating the properties of water. Juan dipped a finger in a beaker of water; Sally dipped her finger in a beaker of alcohol. They both streaked the lab bench with the liquids on their fingers and watched to see which liquid disappeared or evaporated first. The alcohol evaporated quickly, leaving the water streak on the lab bench for several minutes. What unique property of water was illustrated by this simple experiment? A) buoyancy B) specific heat C) surface tension D) capillary action
Answer:
B) specific heat
Explanation:
The specific heat of a substance is how much heat per unit mass it need to elevate its temperature by one degree Celsius. Its units are joule per kelvin and kilogram, J/(K kg). In the example given you can observe that water need more heat in order to evaporate compared to the alcohol.
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Answer: Specific Heat
All of the cells in the human body contain the same genes. How do cells have different morphologies and functions when they contain the same genetic information?
"Afrofuturism in entertainment, art, and style does not offer younger generations a mirror where they can see themselves in expansive environments: science, technology, and in social/gender roles."A. TrueB. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Since its start in 1993, Afro-futurism offers a wide array of expressions by connecting the the existing traumatic mentality surrounded by astro blackness consciousness to the varied possibilities with in the world. It connect the emerging black identity with the techno cultural advancement around the world imbibing several changing parameters such as digital networks, software platforms, human technologies, algorithms, migration etc. It aims to provide a lens through which black and African culture can see the possible futures and realities.
Hence, the given statement is false
A female fly, full of fertilized eggs, is swept by high winds to an island far out to sea. She is the first fly to arrive on this island and the only fly to arrive in this way. Thousands of years later, her numerous offspring occupy the island, but none of them resembles her. There are, instead, several species, each of which eats only a certain type of food. None of the species can fly and their balancing organs (halteres) are now used in courtship displays. The male members of each species bear modified halteres that are unique in appearance to their species. Females bear vestigial halteres. The ranges of all of the daughter species overlap.If the malesʹ halteres have species-specific size, shape, color, and use in courtship displays, and if the speciesʹ ranges overlap, then the speciation events may have been driven, at least in part, by which of the following?
A) autopolyploidy
B) allopolyploidy
C) species selection
D) sexual selection
E) habitat differentiation
Answer:
The correct answer is option D) "sexual selection".
Explanation:
Sexual selection is a type of natural selection at which species of one sex chose their biological mates based on specific traits that represent an advantageous trait for the species. In this case, if the males halteres are used in courtship displays and the females select them in base of its size, shape and color, the speciation events may have been driven, at least in part, by sexual selection.
The correct answer is sexual selection.
If a cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, how many daughter cells result and what is the chromosome number in each daughter cell?
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Mitosis is a kind of sexual reproduction where a mother cell gives rise to two identical cells in which the initial number of chromosomes maintains the same.
So in this question, the products will be 2 daughter cells in which each cell will have 12 chromosomes.
A vestigial-winged, hairy male is crossed with a wild-type female, homozygous at both genes. This F1 generation is crossed to produce the F2 generation. Which of the following are accurate expectations regarding the F1 or F2 generations resulting from this cross? Choose all reasonable answers. Please draw the full 4x4 Punnett Square to answer this question.a.The expected proportion of F2 individuals which are homozygous recessive at both genes is 1/16b.Most of the F2 generation will have the normal phenotypes for both genesc.The expected proportion of F2 individuals with at least one recessive phenotype (either hairy or vestigial wings) is 8/16d.All of the F1 generation will have the normal phenotypes for both genese.There will be no homozygous individuals in the F1 generation
Answer:
The expected proportion of F2 individuals which are homozygous recessive at both genes is 1/16
All of the F1 generation will have the normal phenotypes for both genes
There will be no homozygous individuals in the F1 generation
Most of the F2 generation will have the normal phenotypes for both genes
Explanation:
A winged hairy male is crossed with a wild type female which is homozygous
Let the allele for vestigial trait be v
allele for wild trait be w
allele for hairy trait be h
Allele for non hairy be n
The genotype of parents would be
vvhh * wwnn
Thus in F1 generation all the offsrping will have normal phenotypes for both genes
In F2 generation
vwnh * vwnh
Out of 16 offspring only one wil be homozygous recessive i,e
wwnn
Rest all 15 will have normal phenotypes.
Hence, the correct answer is
The expected proportion of F2 individuals which are homozygous recessive at both genes is 1/16
All of the F1 generation will have the normal phenotypes for both genes
There will be no homozygous individuals in the F1 generation
Most of the F2 generation will have the normal phenotypes for both genes
When true-breeding or homozygous individuals that differ for a certain trait are crossed, all of the offspring will be heterozygotes for that trait. If these heterozygous offspring are self-crossed, the resulting F2 offspring will exhibit a ratio of three dominant to one recessive.
Explanation:When true-breeding or homozygous individuals that differ for a certain trait are crossed, all of the offspring will be heterozygotes for that trait. If the traits are inherited as dominant and recessive, the F1 offspring will all exhibit the same phenotype as the parent homozygous for the dominant trait. If these heterozygous offspring are self-crossed, the resulting F2 offspring will be equally likely to inherit gametes carrying the dominant or recessive trait, giving rise to offspring of which one quarter are homozygous dominant, half are heterozygous, and one quarter are homozygous recessive. Because homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals are phenotypically identical, the observed traits in the F2 offspring will exhibit a ratio of three dominant to one recessive.
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Which of the following correctly describes polyphyletic groups?
organisms that share all of the same traits
organisms that share a common trait, inherited from a common ancestor
organisms that share a common ancestor, but leave out some of the descendants
organisms that happen to share a common trait, even though they evolved
Answer:organisms that happen to share a common trait, even though they evolved
Explanation: polyphyletic groups have similar characteristics but
that have been grouped together
They do not share an immediate common ancestor.
Polyphyletic group is characterized by organisms that happen to share a common trait.
Polyphyletic groups are groups of organisms that include species with similar characteristics that have evolved from more than one ancestor. These characteristics may appear to be similar due to convergent evolution rather than deriving from a common ancestor.
6. Evolution explains both the unity and diversity of life. Explain how evolution can account for both why anoles and finches share certain traits and also why they differ. [2 pts]6. Evolution explains both the unity and diversity of life. Explain how evolution can account for both why anoles and finches share certain traits and also why they differ.
Evolutionary processes through natural selection acting on genetic variation explain the unity and diversity observed among species. Convergent evolution results in similar traits in different species, while divergent evolution leads to differences within groups that have common ancestors. Mutations drive the genetic variation that fuels these evolutionary processes.
Explanation:Evolutionary processes account for both the commonalities and differences between species such as anoles and finches. The theory of evolution is underpinned by the idea that all life is related and that modifications occur over time through natural selection acting on genetic variation.
On the one hand, convergent evolution explains how different species may develop similar traits as a result of adapting to similar environmental pressures. This leads to the unity of various life forms that look superficially similar due to similar selection pressures even though they might not be closely related genetically.
On the other hand, divergent evolution or adaptive radiation accounts for the diversity we see within groups of closely related organisms. Even though species like anoles and finches may share a common ancestor, the different environmental niches they occupy have pushed them to evolve distinct traits.
These differences highlight the adaptability and variation within species that result from the differential survival and reproduction of individuals with favorable traits. As environments change or as species spread into new habitats, natural selection favors different traits, leading to further diversification.
Variation within populations is driven by mutations, creating the genetic differences that are the raw material for evolution. The consistent yet various biological structures, behaviors, and adaptations seen in the living world all illustrate the balance of unity and diversity explained by evolutionary theory. It is this balance that has led to the rich tapestry of life we observe around us today.
What kind of animals are best suited to life in a desert? A. Animals that estimate during hot weather B. Animals that nest in tall trees C. Animals that hibernate during winter D. Animals that have thick layer of blubber or fur
Some animals have evolved salt glands, a physical adaption that permits salt to be secreted without causing water loss. Other morphological modifications achieved by desert animals include the absence of sweat glands and the concentration of urine. Thus, option A is correct.
What animals are best suited to life in a desert?All organisms must be able to change with their environment in order to live.This entails adapting in order to survive the ecosystem's climatic conditions, predators, and other species that compete with them for resources like food and habitat.
Evaporative cooling is the main strategy for bringing a hot bird or mammal down. A surface cools when water vapour escapes from it.
Animals like camels, rats, and snakes that can handle arid climates and lengthy periods without water.
Therefore, Animals that estimate during hot weather.
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Hector and his family came to the United States from Cuba last year. Hector speaks only Spanish and seems unable to learn English despite extended help from an ELL teacher. He is failing all subjects in second grade except for Art and P.E. He was recently evaluated for the possibility of an intellectual disability. The school psychologist administered an intelligence test in Spanish. Scores indicate that Hector has significant cognitive delays. Based on the findings, the IEP team is recommending that Hector receive special education services as a student with an intellectual disability. Did Hector receive a nondiscriminatory evaluation as required by IDEA?
Answer:
Yes he did
Explanation:
Non-discriminatory evaluation: An IDEA precept that allows schools to assess students equally in order to ascertain whether they have a disability, if so, which one and how severe.The assessment has to be conducted in a culturally responsive manner to facilitate fairness.
Reaction rates
1. Suppose that the enzymes that catalyze the dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions that build and break down organic compounds are sensitive to temperature. They operate most quickly at 30°C and become slower as the
2. At 20°C the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of polysaccharides functions at 1 reaction every 20 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis reactions of a very long polysaccharide molecule for 120 microseconds, into how many segments would this long polysaccharide be cut?
3. At 20°C the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of triglycerides functions at 1 reaction every 25 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes dehydration synthesis reactions for 450 microseconds, bonding fatty acids to glycerol, what is the maximum number of complete triglycerides that could be formed if no fatty acids were bonded to glycerol at the beginning of the reactions?
4. At 25°C the enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fatty acids from triglycerides functions at 1 reaction every 6 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis reactions for 96 microseconds, what is the maximum number of glycerol molecules that could be stripped of all of their fatty acids?
5. At 25°C the enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of proteins functions at 1 reaction every 3 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis reactions of a very long polypeptide molecule for 27 microseconds, how many segments would the polypeptide be cut into?
Answer:
1. These enzymes operate most quickly at 30°C and become slower as the temperature is lower, and also when is higher.
2. Six fragments
3. Eighteen complete triglycerides
4. Sixteen glycerol molecules
5. Nine peptides
Explanation:
Question 1. it's known that at low temperatures the movement of particles is slower, and being 30°C the optimal temperature for these enzymes to work, below 30°C these enzymes will work slower. As these enzymes are also temperature-sensitive, at higher temperatures they tend to denature, and will work slower as temperature increases, and will stop when are totally denatured
For questions 2 to 5, we divide the reaction time in any of the group of enzymes involved in catalysis, between the 1 reaction time to obtain the performance ratio. That means number of fragments, segments, or molecules rendered after hydrolysis, or synthesis, in the respective given sort of catalysis.
_______ is the study of how living things interact with each other and their environment
Answer:
EcologyExplanation:
Ecology is the study of biotic and abiotic factors of an ecosystem and the interactions between them.
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Ecology is the field of biology that deals with the interactions of living things with each other and their environment. It includes studying relationships between organisms and their surroundings and trying to understand the balance of life in the natural world.
Explanation:Ecology is the study of how living things interact with each other and their environment. This can involve examining the relationships and interactions between organisms, ranging from microscopic bacteria to large mammals, and their surroundings.
For example, ecologists might explore how tree populations impact the soil in a forest, how predators influence the behavior and population of their prey, or how pollution in a stream affects fish populations.
Overall, the goal of ecology is to understand the balance of life in the natural world.
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_____ includes crude comments or sexual jokes and behaviors that convey hostility toward a particular gender.
Answer:
Gender Harrassment
Explanation:
This could also be called sexism.
A client is diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. A review of the client's chart shows an ankle-brachial index (ABI) on the right of 0.45. This indicates that the right foot has which of the following?
a. No arterial insufficiency
b. Very mild arterial insufficiency
c. Moderate to severe arterial insufficiency
d. Tissue loss to that foot
Answer:
The correct answer is option c.
Explanation:
The ABI or the ankle-brachial index examination refers to a noninvasive and brisk way to determine PAD or peripheral artery disease. The disease takes place when narrowed arteries diminish the flow of blood to the limbs. The condition can result in leg pain at the time of walking and enhances the chances of stroke and heart attack.
On the basis of ABI, one can find that a healthy individual lacking arterial insufficiency exhibits an ABI of about 10. Those with an ABI of 0.95 to 0.5 shows minor to modest arterial insufficiency. The individuals with an ABI of less than 0.50 exhibits ischemic rest pain. Those with the loss of tissue show extreme ischemia and an ABI of 0.25 or less.
is not considered separate species because organisms of different breeds
can mate and produce fertile offspring.
Breed
Phenotype
Genotype
Fitness
Breed is not considered separate species because organisms of different breeds can mate and produce fertile offspring.
BreedExplanation:
A breed is a particular gathering of residential creatures having homogeneous appearance (phenotype), homogeneous conduct, and additionally different attributes that recognize it from different life forms of similar species. Comprehensively, various species can't interbreed and create solid, ripe posterity because of hindrances called systems of regenerative confinement.
These obstructions can be part into two classifications dependent on when they act: prezygotic and postzygotic. Generally, various species don't mate. Be that as it may, when they do, their posterity will be what are called cross breeds.
A specialization of the stomach that aids in grinding for animals that lack teeth is the ____.
a. esophagus
b. cloaca
c. gizzard
d. crop
e. rumen
Answer:
C. gizzrd
Explanation:
Final answer:
The correct answer is the gizzard (option c), which is a specialized stomach that grinds food in animals, such as birds, that do not have teeth for chewing.
Explanation:
The specialization of the stomach that aids in grinding for animals that lack teeth is the gizzard. Animals such as birds possess a gizzard that allows them to grind their food, as they do not have teeth to masticate. In the avian digestive system, food passes from the esophagus to a pouch called a crop, which stores food, then to the proventriculus where it is initially processed with digestive juices. The partially digested food next enters the gizzard, where it is ground into smaller pieces. Birds may also swallow stones or grit, which are stored in the gizzard to aid in the grinding process.
If the surface barriers of innate immunity, such as the skin or mucous membranes are breached, the second line of defense in innate immunity is (are) the:
Answer:
If the surface barriers of innate immunity, such as the skin or mucous membranes are breached, the second line of defense in innate immunity is (are) the: lymphocytes
Explanation:
The lymphocytes direct and regulate immune responses. Specifically, B lymphocytes produce antibodies to fight against bacteria, viruses and invading toxins. T lymphocytes destroy the body's own cells that have been infected by viruses or that are cancerous.
_________________ was the father of scientific management. Select one: a. Henry Gantt b. Elton Mayo c. Frank Gilbreth d. Frederick Taylor