Is it easier to balance a long rod with a mass attached to it when the mass is closer to your hand or when the mass is farther away?

Answer:

Supply-side bonding jumper.

Explanation:

A supply-side bonding jumper is a conductor installed on the supply side of a service or separately derived system to ensure the required electrical conductivity between metal parts required to be electrically connected.

The supply side bonding jumper was referred to as the equipment bonding jumper prior to 2011 NEC when its name changed.

The wire runs from the source of the separately derived system to the first disconnecting means.

Answer:

Explanation:

- The volume of water displaced by immersing the object is equal the amount of water spilled and caught by Dr. Hewitt.

- The amount of water is proportional to the volume of object of fraction of object immersed in water will lead to the same fraction of water displaced and caught by Dr. Hewitt.  

- When the object is immersed the force of Buoyancy acts against the weight and reducing the scale weight.

- The amount of Buoyancy Force is proportional to the fraction of Volume of object immersed in water; hence, the same amount is spilled/lost.

Final answer:

The average force that the net exerts on the man is approximately -5.02 x 10^7 N. The negative sign indicates that the force is in the opposite direction to the motion.

Explanation:

To determine the average force that the net exerts on the man, you can use the equation:

Force = mass x acceleration

First, calculate the acceleration of the man using the formula:

acceleration = change in velocity / time taken

In this case, the final velocity is 0 m/s, the initial velocity is 28 m/s, and the time taken is the distance the net stops the man divided by his initial velocity. Since the net stops the man within a distance of 1 mm (0.001 m), the time taken is:

time taken = distance / initial velocity = 0.001 m / 28 m/s = 3.571 x 10-5 s

Now, you can calculate the acceleration:

acceleration = (0 - 28) m/s / 3.571 x 10-5 s = -7.838 x 105 m/s2

Next, calculate the force:

force = mass x acceleration = 64 kg x (-7.838 x 105 m/s2)

force = -5.02 x 107 N

The average force that the net exerts on the man is approximately -5.02 x 107 N. The negative sign indicates that the force is in the opposite direction to the motion.

Answer:

Explanation:

Check attachment for solution

The analytical method of the components allows to find the results for the questions about the sum vector are:

     a) In the attached we have a scheme of the vectors

     b) the modulus is C = 96.3 m

     c) The angle is θ = 27.0º

Given parameters

To find

    a) Draw the vectors and their sum.

    b) The module.

    c) the adirection.

The sum of vectors has several methods of resolution:

The analytical method consists:

In the attached we have a diagram of each vector and its sum. Let's use trigonometry to find the component of each vectors.

Vector A

            cos θ₁ = [tex]\frac{A_x}{A}[/tex]  

            sin θ₁ = [tex]\frac{A_y}{A}[/tex]  

            Aₓ = A cos θ₁

            [tex]A_y[/tex] = A sin θ₁

            Aₓ = 40 cos (-20) = 37.59 m

            [tex]A_y[/tex]= 40 sin (-20) = -13.68 m

Vector B

           cos θ₂ = [tex]\frac{B_x}{B}[/tex]  

           sin θ₂ = [tex]\frac{B_y}{B}[/tex]  

           Bₓ = B cos θ₂

           [tex]B_y[/tex] = B sin θ₂

           Bₓ = 75 cos 50 = 48.21 m

           [tex]B_y[/tex] = 75 sin 50 = 57.45 m

we add the components.

           Cₓ = Aₓ + Bₓ

           [tex]C_y = A_y + B_y[/tex]  

           Cₓ = 37.59 + 48.20 = 85.8 m

           Cy = -13.68 + 57.45 = 43.8 m

b) We use the Pythagorean theorem to find the modulus of the resultant vector.

          C² = Cₓ² + [tex]C_y^2[/tex]  

          C = [tex]\sqrt{85.8^2 + 43.8^2 }[/tex]  

         C = 96.3 m.

c) We use trigonometry to find the angle of the resultant vector.

         tan θ =[tex]\frac{C_y}{C_x}[/tex]  

         θ = tan⁻¹ [tex]\frac{C_y}{C_x}[/tex]  

         θ = tan⁻¹ [tex]\frac{43.8}{85.8}[/tex]  

         θ = 27.0º

In conclusion, using the analytical method of the components we can find the results for the questions about the sum vector are:

     a) In the attached we have a scheme of the vectors

     b) the modulus is C = 96.3 m

     c) The angle is θ = 27.0º

Learn more about vector addition here:  brainly.com/question/25681603

Answer:

a)N = 3.125 * 10¹¹

b) I(avg)  = 2.5 × 10⁻⁵A

c)P(avg) = 1250W

d)P = 2.5 × 10⁷W

Explanation:

Given that,

pulse current is 0.50 A

duration of pulse Δt = 0.1 × 10⁻⁶s

a) The number of particles equal to the amount of charge in a single pulse divided by the charge of a single particles

N = Δq/e

charge is given by Δq = IΔt

so,

N = IΔt / e

[tex]N = \frac{(0.5)(0.1 * 10^-^6)}{(1.6 * 10^-^1^9)} \\= 3.125 * 10^1^1[/tex]

N = 3.125 * 10¹¹

b) Q = nqt

where q is the charge of 1puse

n = number of pulse

the average current is given as I(avg) = Q/t

I(avg) = nq

I(avg) = nIΔt

         = (500)(0.5)(0.1 × 10⁻⁶)

         = 2.5 × 10⁻⁵A

C)  If the electrons are accelerated to an energy of 50 MeV, the acceleration voltage must,

eV = K

V = K/e

the power is given by

P = IV

P(avg) = I(avg)K / e

[tex]P(avg) = \frac{(2.5 * 10^-^5)(50 * 10^6 . 1.6 * 10^-^1^9)}{1.6 * 10^-^1^9}[/tex]

= 1250W

d) Final peak=

P= Ik/e

= [tex]= P(avg) = \frac{(0.5)(50 * 10^6 . 1.6 * 10^-^1^9)}{1.6 * 10^-^1^9}\\2.5 * 10^7W[/tex]

P = 2.5 × 10⁷W

Explanation:

Below is an attachment containing the solution.

Answer:

Both A and B

Explanation:

The interaction of magnetic fields and armature results into a rotational force of the armature hence turning motion. It's important to note that you will always need two magnetic fields in order to experience the force since one magnetic field is at the rotating armature and another at the casing. Considering the arguments of these two technicians, both of them are correct in their arguments.

Answer:

(a). The maximum stretch during the motion is 20.7 cm

(b). The maximum speed during the motion is 3.84 m/s.

(c). The energy is 0.060 Watt.

Explanation:

Given that,

Spring stiffness = 205 N/m

Mass = 0.6 kg

Compression of spring = 13 cm

Initial speed = 3 m/s

(a). We need to calculate the maximum stretch during the motion

Using conservation of energy

[tex]E_{initial}=E_{final} [/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}kx_{c}^2+\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2=\dfrac{1}{2}kx_{m}^2[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}\times205\times(13\times10^{-2})^2+\dfrac{1}{2}\times0.6\times3^2=\dfrac{1}{2}\times205\times x_{m}^2[/tex]

[tex]x_{m}=\sqrt{\dfrac{4.43\times2}{205}}[/tex]

[tex]x_{m}=20.7\ cm[/tex]

(b). Maximum speed comes when stretch is zero.

We need to calculate the maximum speed during the motion

Using conservation of energy

[tex]E_{initial}=E_{final} [/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}kx_{c}^2+\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2=\dfrac{1}{2}mv'^2[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}\times205\times(13\times10^{-2})^2+\dfrac{1}{2}\times0.6\times3^2=\dfrac{1}{2}\times0.6\times v'^2[/tex]

[tex]v'=\sqrt{\dfrac{4.43\times2}{0.6}}[/tex]

[tex]v'=3.84\ m/s[/tex]

(c). Now suppose that there is energy dissipation of 0.02 J per cycle of the spring-mass system

We need to calculate the time period

Using formula of time period

[tex]T=2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{m}{k}}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]T=2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{0.6}{205}}[/tex]

[tex]T=0.33\ sec[/tex]

We need to calculate the energy

Using formula of energy

[tex]E=\dfrac{P}{t}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]E=\dfrac{0.02}{0.33}[/tex]

[tex]E=0.060\ Watt[/tex]

Hence, (a). The maximum stretch during the motion is 20.7 cm

(b). The maximum speed during the motion is 3.84 m/s.

(c). The energy is 0.060 Watt.

Answer:

A. Electric flux

Explanation:

Electric flux is the rate of flow of the electric field through a given area (see ). Electric flux is proportional to the number of electric field lines going through a virtual surface.

Electric flux has SI units of volt metres (V m), or, equivalently, newton metres squared per coulomb (N m2 C−1). Thus, the SI base units of electric flux are kg·m3·s−3·A−1.

Answer:

The charge on the particle = -0.00075 C = -0.75 mC = -750 μC

Explanation:

The solution to this question is presented in the attached image to this answer.

The Biot Savart's formula for calculating magnetic field due to moving point charge is used in this calculation.

Hope this Helps!!!

Answer:

11.4 rad/s

Explanation:

The motion of the diver is a free-fall motion, so its center of mass falls down with constant acceleration of

[tex]g=9.8 m/s^2[/tex] towards the water

Therefore, we can use the following suvat equation:

[tex]s=ut-\frac{1}{2}gt^2[/tex]

where:

s = 9.3 m is the vertical displacement of the diver

u = 0 is the initial vertical velocity

[tex]g=9.8 m/s^2[/tex]

And t is the total time of flight. Solving for t,

[tex]t=\sqrt{\frac{2s}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(9.3)}{9.8}}=1.38 s[/tex]

So, the diver takes 1.38 s to reach the water.

During this time, the diver makes 2.5 revolutions; since 1 revolution is equal to an angle of [tex]2\pi[/tex] radians, then the total angular displacement is

[tex]\theta=2.5\cdot 2\pi =15.7 rad[/tex]

Therefore, the average angular velocity of the diver is the ratio between the total angular displacement and the time taken:

[tex]\omega=\frac{\theta}{t}=\frac{15.7}{1.38}=11.4 rad/s[/tex]

Answer:

yes it is important.

Explanation:

It is important to study the climate of other planet to understand the climate of the earth because it is useful to know which things are harmful for our earth and which are important for our earth climate comparing with the other planets.

Final answer:

The work done by the spring force to ready the pen for writing is 0.404 J.

Explanation:

To find the work done by the spring force, we can use the formula for work: work = (1/2)k(x²), where k is the spring constant and x is the displacement of the spring from its unstressed length.

In this case, the spring is initially compressed 5.1 mm and then compressed an additional 6.1 mm. So the total displacement is 5.1 mm + 6.1 mm = 11.2 mm.

Substituting the values into the formula, we have work = (1/2)(257 N/m)((11.2 mm / 1000)²) = 0.404 J. The calculated work of 0.404 J represents the energy transferred to or from the spring as it undergoes the specified compressions, providing insight into the mechanical behavior of the system under the influence of the spring force.

Answer:

6.22 N/m

Explanation:

From Hooke's law we deduce that F=kx where F is the applied force and k is the spring constant while x is the extension or compression of the spring. Making k the subject of the above formula then

[tex]k=\frac {F}{x}[/tex]

We also know that the force F is equal to mg where m is the mass of an object and g is acceleration due to gravity hence substituting F with mg we get that

[tex]k=\frac {mg}{x}[/tex]

Substituting m with 425 g which is equivalent to 0.425 kg and g with 9.81 then 0.67 for x we get that

[tex]k=\frac {mg}{x}=\frac {0.425\times 9.81}{0.67}=6.222761194 N/m\approx 6.22\ N/m[/tex]

Therefore, the spring constant is approximately 6.22 N/m

a) 6.9 m/s

b) 4.9 m/s

c) After 4.50 cm

d) 5.2 m/s

Explanation:

a)

In this case, there is no resistive force. Therefore, according to the law of conservation of energy, all the initial elastic potential energy stored in the spring when it is compressed is converted into kinetic energy of the ball as it leaves the barrel; so we can write:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}kx^2=\frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

where:

k = 400 N/m is the spring constant

x = 6.00 cm = 0.06 m is the compression of the spring

m = 0.03 kg is the mass of the ball

v is the velocity of the ball as it leaves the barrel

Solving the equation, we can find the speed of the ball:

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{kx^2}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{(400)(0.06)^2}{0.03}}=6.9 m/s[/tex]

b)

In this case, there is a constant resistive force of

[tex]F_r = 6.00 N[/tex]

acting on the ball as it moves along the barrel.

The work done by this force on the ball is:

[tex]W=-F_rd[/tex]

where

d = 6.00 cm = 0.06 m is the length of the barrel

And where the negative sign is due to the fact that the force is opposite to the motion of the ball

Substituting,

[tex]W=-(6.00)(0.06)=-0.36 J[/tex]

Therefore, part of the initial elastic potential energy stored in the spring has been converted into thermal energy due to the resistive force. So, the final kinetic energy of the ball will be less than before:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}kx^2+W=\frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

And solving for v, we find the new speed:

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{kx^2}{m}+\frac{2W}{m}}=4.9 m/s[/tex]

c)

The (forward) force exerted by the spring on the ball is

[tex]F=k(x_0-x)[/tex]

where

k = 400 N/m

x is the distance covered by the ball

[tex]x_0=0.06 m[/tex] is the maximum displacement of the spring

While the (backward) resistive force is instead

[tex]F_r=6.0 N[/tex]

So the net force on the ball is

[tex]F=k(x-x_0)-F_r[/tex]

The term [tex]k(x-x_0)[/tex] prevails at the beginning, so the ball continues accelerating forward, until this term becomes as small as [tex]F_r[/tex]: after that point, the negative resistive force will prevail, so the ball will start delecerating. Therefore, the greatest speed is reached when the net force is zero; so:

[tex]k(x_0-x)-F_r=0\\x=x_0-\frac{F_r}{k}=0.06-\frac{6.00}{400}=0.045 m[/tex]

d)

After the ball has covered a distance of

x = 0.045 m

The work done by the resistive force so far is:

[tex]W=-F_r x =-(6.00)(0.045)=-0.27 J[/tex]

The total elastic potential energy of the spring at the beginning was

[tex]E_e=\frac{1}{2}kx_0^2 = \frac{1}{2}(400)(0.06)^2=0.72 J[/tex]

While the elastic potential energy left now is

[tex]E_e'=\frac{1}{2}k(x_0-x)^2=\frac{1}{2}(400)(0.015)^2=0.045 J[/tex]

So, the kinetic energy now is:

[tex]K=E_e-E_e'+W=0.72-0.045-0.27=0.405 J[/tex]

And by using the equation

[tex]K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

We can find the greatest speed:

[tex]v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(0.405)}{0.03}}=5.2 m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Below is an attachment containing the solution

Answer:

If the diameter is 54cm, then the radius is half that, the radius is:

r = 54cm/2 = 27cm

Then the perimeter of the wheel is p = 2*pi*27cm

this would mean that the pebble travels the distance:

d = 3*2*pi*27cm in one second.

Then the velocity of the pebble is:

speed = 3*2*3.1416*27cm/s = 509cm/s

Now, we know that the pebble does 3 cycles in a second, so does each cycle in 1/3 seconds, so the period would be the time that it needs to do one cycle, that we already find that is equal to 1/3 seconds.

Final answer:

The pebble stuck in the bicycle wheel tread has a speed of 5.091 m/s, and the period of its motion is 0.333 seconds.

Explanation:

To solve for the pebble's speed and the period of its motion, we will perform calculations based on the given wheel diameter and the frequency of the pebble's motion. The wheel's diameter is 54.0 cm, which gives us a radius (r) of 27.0 cm or 0.27 meters.

The speed (v) of the pebble on the tread of the wheel can be found using the formula for the circumference (C) of the wheel and multiplying by the frequency (f) of the pebble's motion:

C = 2πr

v = C × f

Plugging in the values we get:

C = 2 × π × 0.27 m = 1.697 m

f = 3 rev/s (since it goes by three times every second)

v = 1.697 m × 3 rev/s = 5.091 m/s

The period (T) is the inverse of frequency:

T = 1 / f

T = 1 / 3 rev/s = 0.333 s

Therefore, the pebble's speed is 5.091 meters per second, and the period of the pebble stone is 0.333 seconds.

When the volume of gas is reduced at constant temperature, the average velocity of the molecules, the average force of an individual collision, and the average number of collisions with the wall all increase.

When the volume of a sample of gas is reduced at constant temperature, the average velocity of the molecules increases, the average force of an individual collision between molecules and the container walls increases, and the average number of collisions with the wall, per unit area, per second increases.

When the volume of a gas is reduced at constant temperature, the gas molecules’ average velocity remains unchanged, the force of each collision increases, and collisions with the wall per unit area per second become more frequent.

If the volume of a sample of gas is reduced at constant temperature, according to Boyle's law, the average velocity of the molecules remains the same, the average force of an individual collision increases, and the average number of collisions with the wall, per unit area, per second increases.

At a constant temperature, the kinetic energy of the gas molecules, as well as their average velocity, does not change. This is in accordance with the kinetic theory of gases. However, as the volume decreases, the gas molecules have less space to move around, which means they will encounter the container walls more frequently. Hence, the number of collisions with the wall per unit area per second increases. Since the same amount of molecules exert force over a smaller area of the container wall (because the volume is reduced), the average force per collision also increases.

It's important to clarify that while the average velocity does not change, the frequency of collisions leads to the increased pressure we observe in a confined volume of gas. Consequently, the gas exerts a greater pressure on the walls of the container.

Answer:

The time required by the Athlete to work off 1.00 lb of body fat = 0.296 minute

Explanation:

1 lb of body fat = 4.1 k cal

1 k cal = 4.184 Kilo joule

1 lb of body fat = 4.1 × 4.184 = 17.1544 Kilo joule

Athlete expends 3480 Kilo joule in one hour

⇒ Time required to expand 3480 Kilo joule  = 60 minute

⇒ Time required to expand 1 Kilo joule = [tex]\frac{60}{3480}[/tex] [tex]\frac{min}{KJ}[/tex]

⇒ Time required to expand 17.1544 Kilo joule = [tex]\frac{60}{3480}[/tex] × 17.1544 = 0.296 min

Therefore the time required by the Athlete to work off 1.00 lb of body fat = 0.296 minute

Answer:

The answer for this is that they each have the same number of protons.

Explanation:

Plutonium is an element that is also used in nuclear power plants, because of the same amount of protons in it, plutonium is used in nuclear power plants.

The fact about all uranium atoms is that they have the same number of protons that make them very large and can be harmful if not carefully treated.

Answer:

same number of protons

Explanation:

mass₃<mass₁=mass₅<mass₂=mass₄

Explanation:

Given data :-

1. mass:  m      speed: v

2. mass: 4 m   speed: v

3. mass: 2 m   speed: ¼ v

4. mass: 4 m   speed: v

5. mass: 4 m   speed: ½ v

We know that Kinetic energy (KE) = ½ mv²

Where m= mass of the body

           v=velocity of the body

Substituting the values of respective mass and velocity from the above given data-

KE of Body 1(mass₁) = ½*m*v²             = mv²/2

KE of Body 2(mass₂) = ½*4m*v²         = 2mv²

KE of Body 3(mass₃) = ½*2m*(1/4v)²  =  mv²/16

KE of Body 4(mass₄) = ½*4m*v ²        =  2mv ²

KE of Body 5(mass₅) = ½*4m*(1/2v)²  =   mv²/2

Answer:

q₃=5.3nC

Explanation:

First, we have to calculate the force exerted by the charges q₁ and q₂. To do this, we use the Coulomb's Law:

[tex]F= k\frac{|q_aq_b|}{r^{2} } \\\\\\F_{13}=(9*10^{9} Nm^{2} /C^{2} )\frac{|(-4.00*10^{-9}C)q_3|}{(.250m)^{2} } =576q_3N/C\\\\F_{23}=(9*10^{9} Nm^{2} /C^{2} )\frac{|(2.40*10^{-9}C)q_3|}{(.300m)^{2} } =240q_3N/C\\[/tex]

Since we know the net force, we can use this to calculate q₃. As q₁ is at the right side of q₃ and q₁ and q₃ have opposite signs, the force F₁₃ points to the right. In a similar way, as q₂ is at the left side of q₃, and q₂ and q₃ have equal signs, the force F₂₃ points to the right. That means that the resultant net force is the sum of these two forces:

[tex]F_{Net}=F_{13}+F_{23}\\\\4.40*10^{-9} N=576q_3N/C+240q_3N/C\\\\4.40*10^{-6} N=816q_3N/C\\\\\implies q_3=5.3*10^{-9}C=5.3nC[/tex]

In words, the value of q₃ must be 5.3nC.

Answer:

Explanation:

A law and theory are distinct levels in the scientific method. They do not lead to one another.

A law is a description of an observed phenomenon in the natural world. Laws are always true and do not provide explanations as to why they hold true.

A theory is an explanation of an observed phenomenon. It is usually based on experimental evidence and bounded most time in the limits of available data.

Answer:

v' = 0.714 m/s

Explanation:

Solution:

- Assuming no external torque is acting on the system then the angular momentum is conserved for the system.

- The initial momentum angular Mi and final angular momentum Mf are as follows:

                                  Mi = Mf

                                  m*L*v = m*x*L*v'

Where,

             m : mass of the telescope

             L : Length of teether line

             v: Initial speed

             v' : Changed speed.

- Then we have:

                                  L*v = x*L*v'

                                  v' = v / x

                                  v' = 2 / 2.8

                                  v' = 0.714 m/s

Answer:

The answer to the question is

The linear speed of the telescope will be 5.6 m/s if the length of the line is changed to x*L where  x = 2.8; and initial velocity v = 2 m/s

Explanation:

Speed = v₁ = ωL = 2 m/s

When the line is changed to x*L where x = 2.8 the linear speed will be

v₂ = 2.8 × L× ω = 2.8× 2 = 5.6 m/s

The linear speed varies with the angular speed following the relation v/r =ω where

ω = angular speed

v = linear speed and

r = radius of the path of travel of the object at the vertex

Answer:

123 J transfer into the gas

Explanation:

Here we know that 123 J work is done by the gas on its surrounding

So here gas is doing work against external forces

Now for cyclic process we know that

[tex]\Delta U = 0[/tex]

so from 1st law of thermodynamics we have

[tex]dQ = W + \Delta U[/tex]

[tex]dQ = W[/tex]

so work done is same as the heat supplied to the system

So correct answer is

123 J transfer into the gas

Explanation:

Porosity is the percentage of spaces,(hollow) within a rock or a material that can contain air or fluid. This can be used in geology( study of rocks), soil mechanics, engineering and pharmaceutics. Industrial CT scanning can be used to test for porosity of a substance. While permeability is the ability of water or other fluids to flow through a rock or material that has spaces ( that is, that are porous). This is also applicable in the fields of chemical engineering and geology.

Porosity refers to the amount of void space in a material that can hold water, while permeability measures how well those spaces are connected, affecting water movement. Materials with high permeability have larger, well-connected pores, allowing water to flow easily; materials with low permeability do not. The hydraulic conductivity is a measure of permeability that accounts for both material and fluid properties.

Difference Between Porosity and Permeability

The difference between porosity and permeability concerns the storage and movement of water in subsurface materials like rock or sediment. Porosity refers to the percentage of open space within a material that can potentially hold water, expressed as a ratio of the volume of voids to the total volume of the material. Permeability, on the other hand, is about how well those pores are interconnected, determining the ease with which water can move through the material. Higher permeability indicates the presence of larger, well-connected pores, enabling water to flow with less friction. Conversely, materials with low permeability have fewer, smaller, and poorly connected pores, which restricts water movement.

Understanding both porosity and permeability is crucial when discussing groundwater storage and extraction, as they define an aquifer's ability to store and transmit water. Soil texture plays a significant role in determining these properties. Coarse-grained soils with larger pores tend to have both higher porosity and permeability, whereas fine-grained soils like clay can have high porosity but low permeability due to poorly connected pores.

Answer:

The acceleration of the centre of mass of spool A is equal to the magnitude of the acceleration of the centre of mass of spool B.

Explanation:

From the image attached, the description from the complete question shows that the two spools are of equal masses (same weight due to same acceleration due to gravity), have the same inextensible wire with negligible mass is attached to both of them over a frictionless pulley; meaning that the tension in the wire is the same on both ends.

And for the acceleration of both spools, we mention the net force.

The net force acting on a body accelerates the body in the same direction as that in which the resultant is applied.

For this system, the net force on either spool is exactly the same in magnitude because the net force is a difference between the only two forces acting on the spools; the tension in the wire and their similar respective weights.

With the net force and mass, for each spool equal, from

ΣF = ma, we get that a = ΣF/m

Meaning that the acceleration of the identical spools is equal also.

Hope this Helps!

Answer:

30 C

Explanation:

Given:

Current flowing in the circuit (I) = 50 A

Start-up time (t) = 0.60 s

Now, we know that, charge drawn in through a cross sectional area of the circuit is given as:

[tex]q=It[/tex]

Where, 'q' is the amount of charge drawn, 'I' is the current and 't' is the start-up time.

Now, plug in 50 A for 'I', 0.60 s for 't' and solve for 'q'. This gives,

[tex]q=50\ A\times 0.60\ s\\\\q=30\ C[/tex]

Therefore, the amount of charge drawn in the circuit at the start-up of the compressor of an air conditioner is 30 C.

Answer:

The answer is

The wavelength of the light is 557.2 x 10⁻⁻⁹nm

Explanation:

The wavelength of a wave is the distance between adjacent troughs and crests while the frequency of a wave is the number of completed cycles that pass a given per unit time

Electromagnetic radiation, such as light is usually described n terms of its frequency and wavelength

The equation relating the three quantities of speed of light, frequency and wavelength is as follows

Speed of light, c = Frequency of the light wave, ν × Wavelength of the light, λ

That is c = ν × λ

Where c =  299792458 m/s, v = 5.38 x 10¹⁴ Hz

Therefore the wavelength = [tex]\frac{c}{v}[/tex]  = 5.572 x 10⁻⁷ m 557.2 x 10⁻⁻⁹nm

Answer:

Explanation:

Give that

I=16A

The current is flowing to the right

Equal amount of positive and negative charges.

i.e, total charge is q= Q+Q=2Q. i.e magnitude

Then, the rate of charge that pass though is dq/dt

Give that,

q=it

2Q=it

Let differentiate with respect to t

2dQ/dt=i

Then, dQ/dt=i/2

Since i=16A

Then, dQ/dt=16/2

dQ/dt= 8 A/s. Toward the left

Answer:

[tex]3.34\Omega[/tex]

Explanation:

The resistance of a metal rod is given by

[tex]R=\frac{\rho L}{A}[/tex]

where

[tex]\rho[/tex] is the resistivity

L is the length of the rod

A is the cross-sectional area

The resistivity changes with the temperature as:

[tex]\rho(T)=\rho_0 (1+\alpha (T-T_0))[/tex]

where in this case:

[tex]\rho_0[/tex] is the resistivity of silver at [tex]T_0=21.0^{\circ}C[/tex]

[tex]\alpha=6.1\cdot 10^{-3} ^{\circ}C^{-1}[/tex] is the temperature coefficient for silver

[tex]T=180.0^{\circ}C[/tex] is the current temperature

Substituting,

[tex]\rho(180^{\circ}C)=\rho_0 (1+6.1\cdot 10^{-3}(180-21))=1.970\rho_0[/tex]

The length of the rod changes as

[tex]L(T)=L_0 (1+\alpha_L(T-T_0))[/tex]

where:

[tex]L_0[/tex] is the initial length at [tex]21.0^{\circ}C[/tex]

[tex]\alpha_L = 18\cdot 10^{-6} ^{\circ}C^{-1}[/tex] is the coefficient of linear expansion

Substituting,

[tex]L(180^{\circ}C)=L_0(1+18\cdot 10^{-6}(180-21))=1.00286L_0[/tex]

The cross-sectional area of the rod changes as

[tex]A(T)=A_0(1+2\alpha_L(T-T_0))[/tex]

So, substituting,

[tex]A(180^{\circ}C)=A_0(1+2\cdot 18\cdot 10^{-6}(180-21))=1.00572A_0[/tex]

Therefore, if the initial resistance at 21.0°C is

[tex]R_0 = \frac{\rho_0 L_0}{A_0}=1.70\Omega[/tex]

Then the resistance at 180.0°C is:

[tex]R(180^{\circ}C)=\frac{\rho(180)L(180)}{A(180)}=\frac{(1.970\rho_0)(1.00285L_0)}{1.00572A_0}=1.9644\frac{\rho_0 L_0}{A_0}=1.9644 R_0=\\=(1.9644)(1.70\Omega)=3.34\Omega[/tex]