In a thioglycolate tube, aerobic microorganisms grow at the surface where it is oxygen-rich, anaerobic microorganisms grow at the bottom where it is oxygen-poor, facultative anaerobes can grow throughout the tube and microaerophiles grow below the surface in low oxygen conditions.
Explanation:The oxygen requirements for microorganisms can vary. In a thioglycolate tube, the surface of the tube is aerobic because it is exposed to oxygen, meaning aerobic microorganisms grow here. As the depth increases in the tube, the oxygen concentration decreases, therefore anaerobic microorganisms grow at the bottom part of the tube since they do not require oxygen for growth.
There are also facultative anaerobes which can grow throughout the tube as they can adjust to both oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor environments. Finally, microaerophiles that require low levels of oxygen can be found growing a little below the surface where the oxygen concentration is lower than at the surface but higher than at the bottom.
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Humans, chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans are members of a clade called the great apes, which shared a common ancestor about fifteen million years ago. Gibbons and siamangs comprise a clade called the lesser apes. Tree-branch lengths indicate elapsed time.
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes _____.
A) polyphyletic
B) paraphyletic
C) monophyletic
D) into a new order
Answer:
The correct option is B) paraphyletic
Explanation:
A clade can be described as a monophyletic group which comprises of different organisms which have an ancestor in common and all its linear descents.
A paraphyletic group can be described as a group of organisms that have descended from the same evolutionary organism or ancestor groups, but it might comprise of one or more of the descendants.
Removing humans from the great ape clade results in a paraphyletic group as this group would then consist of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants.
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade would make phylogenetic tree of the great apes paraphyletic. A paraphyletic group consists of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants. As humans share a common ancestor with chimps, gorillas, and orangutans, removing humans from the group creates a grouping that includes some but not all descendants of that common ancestor. This exclusion breaks the completeness of the monophyletic group (which includes all descendants), therefore, the correct answer to the question is:
B) paraphyletic
Convergent evolution is said to have occurred if the mouse species on two islands with similar habitats are found to have similar characteristics even though they originated from different species that did not have these characteristics.A. TrueB. false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When two or more distantly related species develop some structural or functional similarities since they are found in the same environmental conditions, the process is called convergent evolution. Here, the developed similarities may not be present in the ancestors of these species. For example, the presence of wings in birds (Aves) and bats (mammals) represents convergent evolution. Therefore, the presence of similar features in two different species of mouse due to similar habitat conditions represent convergent evolution.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When two species of an organism habituating in two different locations with similar environmental conditions possess similar characteristics are said to evolve through convergence.
Such species have homologous structures due to which they have similar internal skeletal structure but their function and looks vary.
For example – wings of bat and limbs of human beings are homologous structure but their function and look are different from each other.
Hence, the given statement is true
Johanna, a 7-year-old girl, is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended? Johanna, a 7-year-old girl, is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended? 1. parathyroid 2. hormone thyroid 3. stimulating hormone 4. cortisol growth hormone
Answer:
4. cortisol growth hormone
Explanation:
It is possible to supply Johanna with the growth hormone because the deficiency in this hormone has been the cause of her short stature. This hormone is important because it is produced by the pituitary gland that is in the brain and is responsible for increasing height and muscle mass. There are medications that contain this hormone, it is recommended to apply at an early age and that has more risks of success
The concentrations of some essential minerals are much higher in the vascular cylinder of roots than in the soil solution around the roots What is the best explanation for this observation? O Essential minerals are also needed by other organisms in the soil, depleting the minerals in the soil Essential minerals accumulate in the apoplast reaching higher concentrations than in the soil. O Some essential minerals are taken into the symplast by active transport O Essential minerals are actively transported into the vascular cylinder by the Casparian strip Submit Reguest
Answer:
Some essential minerals are taken into the symplast by active transport
Explanation:
The soil solution contains minerals and water. The water gets absorbed by the roots via the process of passive transport called osmosis through aquaporins but the ions are unable to pass through the passive transport and require energy in the form of ATP and thus is known as active transport.
As the absorption of the mineral is an active process, therefore, minerals are absorbed against their concentration gradient and as a result, the minerals can be accumulated in the roots in much higher concentration than the soil solution.
Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.
Essential minerals are concentrated in the vascular cylinder of roots through active transport into the symplast and regulatory control at the Casparian strip, facilitating their eventual distribution by the xylem.
Explanation:The most accurate explanation for why concentrations of essential minerals are much higher in the vascular cylinder of roots than in the soil solution is that some essential minerals are actively taken into the symplast by active transport. Plants possess specialized mechanisms to absorb these minerals against their concentration gradient, which shows the remarkable ability of plants to take up minerals such as potassium (K+) from very low concentrations in the soil to much higher concentrations within the root cells. Notably, all water and minerals must pass through the Casparian strip within the endodermis, ensuring that uptake into the vascular cylinder is under tight regulatory control. This process prevents the backflow of water and solutes, thereby allowing the plant to efficiently manage the uptake and transport of essential minerals and water into the xylem for distribution throughout the plant.
From the following choices, identify those that are the inputs and outputs of the light reactions. (Recall that inputs to chemical reactions are modified over the course of the reaction as they are converted into products. In other words, if something is required for a reaction to occur, and it does not remain in its original form when the reaction is complete, it is an input.)
Answer:
Let's complete The question
Drag each item to the appropriate bin. If the item is not an input to or an output from the light reactions, drag it to the "not input or output" bin. (light, water, NADP+, ADP, O2, ATP, NADPH, glucose, CO2,G3P
Input:
light, water, NADP+, ADP
Output:
O2, ATP, NADPH
not input or output:
glucose, CO2,G3P
Explanation:
At the light reactions phrase, the energy of sunlight is employed in the oxidation of water (the electron donor) to O2 and transfer these electrons to NADP+, so as to give NADPH.
Some light energy is also employed to transform ADP to ATP.
The NADPH and ATP yielded are consequently used to run the sugar-producing Calvin cycle.
Which trait have we inherited from our distant ancestors to our detriment in the contemporary environment we inhabit?
Answer:
The trait may be defined as the particular characteristics of the organisms. The beneficial trait can be pass down from parents to their offspring and further in the next generation.
The individual acquire some trait depending on the external environment. The traits that are required in contemporary environment and can be inherited from the parents is ideal body size to cover the long distances. The individual appetites to consume large amount of calories that helps the individual to survive in the food shortage condition.
true or false? Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, whereas mitosis is the division of the nucleus.
Answer:True
Explanation:
Mitosis is just a part of a cell cycle. Mitotic M phase include both mitosis and cytokinesis.
In the cell cycle Mitotic cell division alternate with Interphase a growth phase. In the mitotic phase, mitosis divides the cell nucleus and distribute it's chromosomes to the daughter nuclei, cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm, producing two daughter cells.
During mitosis in the telophase stage of mitosis the division of one nucleus into two genetically identical nuclei, is completed.
In Cytokinesis, the division of the cytoplasm is usually well under way by the late telophase, so the two daughter cells appear shortly after the end of mitosis
Final answer:
True. The statement is correct; cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, while mitosis is the division of the nucleus, leading to two identical daughter cells.
Explanation:
The statement is true: cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, and mitosis is the division of the nucleus. Cell division consists of these two processes. During mitosis, the cell's nucleus divides to form two identical nuclei. Following mitosis is cytokinesis, where the cell's cytoplasm divides, leading to the formation of two daughter cells, each containing a complete set of genetic material. It is important to note that whilst the phases of mitosis are consistent across most eukaryotic cells, the process of cytokinesis can vary, particularly in cells with cell walls, such as plant cells.
What is the diploid chromosome number for your karyotype
Answer:
For example, a haploid human nucleus (i.e. sperm or egg) normally has 23 chromosomes (n=23), and a diploid human nucleus has 23 pairs of chromosomes (2n=46). A karyotype is the complete set of chromosomes of an individual.
Explanation:
In humans, the diploid chromosome number for a karyotype is 46, consisting of 23 pairs of chromosomes, including 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
Explanation:In humans, the diploid chromosome number for a karyotype is 46. This means that each somatic cell in the human body has 46 chromosomes, arranged in 23 pairs. These pairs include 22 pairs of autosomes (non-sex chromosomes) and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
In females, both sex chromosomes are X chromosomes, so their karyotype is written as 46,XX. In males, the sex chromosomes are one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so their karyotype is written as 46,XY.
A karyotype is a picture of an individual's chromosomes, organized in homologous pairs. It can be used to study chromosomal aberrations, cellular function, taxonomic relationships, and medicine.
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What are the key components of the CRISPR-Cas9 system that are activated (set into motion) when a virus invades a bacterium?
The CRISPR-Cas9 system, an adaptive immune system in prokaryotes, activates CRISPR arrays and Cas proteins to defend against viral invasion. CRISPR arrays store viral DNA segments that guide Cas proteins to target and cleave the viral genome, providing acquired immunity.
The CRISPR-Cas9 system is an adaptive immune mechanism found in prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, which activates upon viral invasion. When a virus invades a bacterium, two main components are mobilized for the bacterium's defense: the CRISPR array and the Cas proteins. The CRISPR array serves as a genetic memory of past infections by incorporating segments of viral DNA into its sequence. These segments, known as spacer DNA, are transcribed into RNA molecules that guide the Cas proteins. The Cas proteins, especially Cas9 in the CRISPR-Cas9 variant, are enzymes that use the RNA guide to identify and cleave complementary sequences in the invading viral DNA, thereby neutralizing the threat.
This system provides bacteria with a form of acquired immunity by allowing them to "remember" past infections and respond more effectively to repeated attacks by the same virus. The RNA molecules, transcribed from the CRISPR array, target the Cas proteins to the precise location in the viral genome that matches their sequence, resulting in the destruction of the viral DNA. This process exemplifies nature's own method of genetic editing, which has been harnessed by scientists for various applications in gene editing and biotechnology.
Does the ability of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis cell to infect a new host depend on its drug-resistant phenotype? 1. Yes, drug-resistant cells can infect a new host more easily than drug-susceptible cells. 2. No, drug-susceptible cells and drug-resistant cells are equally likely to infect a new host. 3. Yes, drug-susceptible cells can infect a new host more easily than drug-resistant cells.
Answer:
DRUGS!!!!!!!
Explanation:
are not good
Answer:
No, drug-susceptible cells and drug-resistant cells are equally likely to infect a new host.
Phosphoinositides mark different cellular membranes and play key roles in protein trafficking inside the cell. Among them, PI(4,5)P2 is involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis as well as phagocytosis at the plasma membrane. This phosphoinositide ...
A. is bound by the adaptor protein AP2.
B. is bound by the GTPase dynamin.
C. is depleted from clathrin-coated vesicles to promote their uncoating.
D. All of the above.
Answer:
All of the above.
Explanation:
PI(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) is the phospholipid present in the minor amount in the plasma membrane. This molecule plays an important role in the cell signaling.
The PI(4,5)P2 is involved in the clathrin coated vesicles and its depletion leads to the uncoating and continues the cell signaling process. The dynamin protein is important for the clathrin coating and and they require the adaptor protein AP2 for the clathrin association.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster has an allele that confers resistance to DDT and similar insecticides. Laboratory strains of D. melanogaster have been established from flies collected in the wild in the 1930s (before the widespread use of insecticides) and the 1960s (after 20 years of DDT use). Lab strains established in the 1930s have no alleles for DDT resistance. In lab strains established in the 1960s, the frequency of the DDT-resistance allele is 37%. Which statement is correct?
A) Alleles for DDT resistance arose by mutation during the period of DDT use because of selection for pesticide resistance.
B) The evolutionary fitness associated with the heritable trait of DDT resistance changed once DDT use became widespread.
C) Resistance to DDT evolved in some fruit flies in order to allow them to survive.
Answer:
The answer is option "B"
Explanation:
DNA is comprised of a set of genes that dictates a given trait. The genes themselves are comprised of alleles that allow for variations and differences in the trait that the concerned gene is responsible for. In the case of D. Melanogaster, there is an allele that allows for resistance to pesticides such as DDT. The two samples that are referred to in the question are differentiated on the basis of the amount of time that has lapsed since the start of significant DDT usage. So at the time when widespread DDT usage was not in place, the sample showed no DDT resistant alleles. With the passage of time in which DDT usage grew, the resultant effect as evidenced from the later sample indicated a significantly higher percentage of DDT resistant allele. This means that the ability of this species of fruit flies to survive, referred to as their evolutionary fitness, increased only after use of DDT increased. This means that DDT resistance trait changed as a natural response to the introduction of a different climate thereby allowing subsequent offspring of fruit flies to boast of higher numbers of alleles that have DDT resistance capacities thus allowing them to survive.
Consider the Color locus. At this locus there are two alleles - red and green. The red allele is dominant to the green allele. If the selection coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30, what it the fitness of the green/green homozygote?
Answer:
0.7
Explanation:
Using Hardy-Weinberg equation of genetic variation being constant when disturbing factors such has mutation and others are removed.
p² + pq + q² = 1 and p + q = 1
where p² is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (RR) and q² is the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (rr) and 2pq is the frequency of heterozygous genotype (Rr). p represent the frequency of "R" and q represent "g". since the coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30 then
the fitness of the green/green homozygote = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about variations in the anatomy of a child's respiratory tract structures in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they describe the shape of the larynx in infants as________________.
Answer:
The shape of the larynx in infants are cone shaped.
Explanation:
The size of the larynx is small in comparison to the adult one.
The larynx lies on the 4th cervical vertebrae and the axis of the respiratory system is parallel with the axis of digestive system that helps the infants to breathe constantly and swallow liquid foods.
The larynx is covered by soft cartilage and relatively the lumen is narrow.
The vocal cord is small and 7-9 mm wide with sub glottis which is 5.5-6 mm wide.
Soft cartilage favors deformity of the larynx and trachea.
The upper end is cone shaped structure and the cricoid cartilage is backwardly directed. Short vocal cord and the epiglottis is narrow which is hang above the larynx.
The cricoid cartilage is hyaline type in infants that affects the coloring intensity.
The epiglottis is an elastic cartilage which is covered by mucus.
The correct answer is a. funnel. The larynx in infants is funnel-shaped, situated higher in the neck to aid in breathing and prevent choking. This shape gradually changes as the child grows.
The larynx in infants is described as a. funnel-shaped due to the anatomical differences compared to adults.
In infants, the larynx is situated higher in the neck.It is shaped more like a funnel which helps in the breathing process and prevents choking while swallowing because the epiglottis can form a protective barrier over the larynx more easily.This funnel shape gradually changes into a more cylindrical shape as the child grows, resembling the adult larynx.This anatomical variation is significant in the pediatrics field for proper understanding of airway management and respiratory support in infants.Complete question:
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about variations in the anatomy of a child's respiratory tract structures in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they describe the shape of the larynx in infants as?
a. funnel.
b. cylindrical.
c. oval.
d. spherical.
If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores?
Answer:
The options
a) fraternal twins
b) identical twins
c) brothers and sisters
d) parents and children
The CORRECT ANSWER IS b)
b) identical twins
Explanation:
Identical twins both acquire identical genetic material. Therefore, if intelligence is basically controlled by heredity, you would foresee identical twins to possess the biggest correlation between IQ scores since they share 100 percent of the same genes
Answer:
the answer would be B, I got it right on edge :)
Explanation:
Does homeostasis occur in viruses?
Answer: living things maintain homeostasis, meaning keeping conditions inside the body stable. ... Viruses have no way to control their internal environment and they do not maintain their own homeostasis.
Explanation:
living things maintain homeostasis, meaning keeping conditions inside the body stable. ... Viruses have no way to control their internal environment and they do not maintain their own homeostasis.
In which stage of development does the child undergo astoundingly rapid change, and increase some 20 times in size, including dramatic changes in proportion and weight?
Answer:
Fetal.
Explanation:
The fusion of the male and female gamete leads to the formation of zygote. The zygote growth further in the womb of the female. The human being gestation period is nine months.
The fetal development starts after zygote formation and till the birth of a baby. The fetus grows regularly in size and development of the body organs completed in the nine months. The weight and size increase rapidly and baby face well developed at the 14 week of pregnancy. Finger nails are well developed around 40 weeks of pregnancy.
Thus, the correct answer is fetal.
A technologist in a tissue bank who performed HLA typing by DNA analysis was asked to bank all DNA extracted from specimens received in the laboratory so as to maintain the highest quality of nucleic acid for the longest period. How should the DNA be stored to satisfy this request?
Answer:
I believe the options are:
a) DNase-free water at 22°-25°C
b) DNase-free water at -70°C
c) TE buffer at 2°-8°C
d) Freeze-dried at 22°-25°C
The answer is d) freeze dried at 22°C to 25°C.
Explanation:
As compared to RNA, DNA is a relatively stable biomolecule. It is relatively thermostable. However, DNA is highly susceptible to nuclease and chemical degradation.
DNA Storage:
DNA storage methods depend upon the type of sample, the desired quality and for how long the sample needs to be stored.There are four major DNA storage methods:Dried, at room temperature–20°C –80°C –196°C (storage in liquid nitrogen)Freeze drying and storage in liquid nitrogen (-196°C) are the two most effective means to store DNA samples for a long time.For storage at room temperature, DNA samples are dried in a freeze drying machine. Freeze drying removes all the moisture and water from the sample which prevents any hydrolytic reactions.Early British anthropological researchers believed they could isolate and scientifically study the structure and specific details of what?
Early British anthropological researchers believed they could isolate and scientifically study the structure and specific details of Society.
Explanation:
Culture is that whole which incorporates information, conviction, workmanship, ethics, law, custom, and some other capacities and propensities obtained by man as a citizen. An ethnography is a writing about people, at a specific spot and time. Ordinarily, the anthropologist lives among individuals in another general public for a while, all the while taking an interest in and watching the social and social existence of the gathering. Anthropologists then compares the traits of people living in that particular society.
Finding it so directly on the threshold of our narrative, which is now about to issue from that inauspicious portal, we could hardly do otherwise than pluck one of its flowers and present it to the reader. What is the meaning of the word "inauspicious"? A.unremarkable, B. forgettable unintelligent, C.not educated unimpressive, D.poorly built unfavorable, E.boding ill
Question options:
A. Unremarkable, forgettable
B. Unintelligent, not educated
C. Unimpressive, poorly built
D. Unfavorable, boding ill
Answer:
Unfavorable, boding ill
Explanation:
The Scarlet Letter is a romantic historical fiction story written by an American author Nathaniel Hawthorne that was published in 1850.
While reading this excerpt from chapter 1 of The Scarlet Letter, the meaning of the inauspicious portal is unfavorable or ill bonding.
The meaning of the inauspicious doorway is unfavorable or bonding ill, according to this excerpt from Chapter 1 of The Scarlet Letter."Inauspicious" means "unfavorable" or "foretelling ill," hence option e is correct.
The Scarlet Letter is a romantic historical fiction novel written by Nathaniel Hawthorne and published in 1850.
It is frequently used to describe events or circumstances that appear to portend disaster. The word "inauspicious" is used to define the "portal" from which the story is going to emerge in the line you supplied. This means that the narrative will not be cheerful or successful.
Thus, option e is correct.
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Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n):______
a) enrichment culture.
b) differential and enrichment culture.
c) selective and differential medium.
d) selective median.
Answer:
C) Selective and differential medium.
Explanation:
Selective Medium:
A media contains specific ingredients which are required to promote the growth of microorganism and inhibit the other microorganisms to grow is called selective medium.
Differential Medium:
A media contains specific ingredients which differentiate the same group organisms or closely related organisms is called differential medium.
NaCl is used in media to promote the growth of Staphylococcus aureus and inhibit the growth of other gram positive and negative bacteria.
A yellow halo color shows the bacterial fermentation of sugar which will distinguish Staphylococcus aureus with other strains.
So, it will be selective and differential medium which will allow to grow Staphylococcus aureus and differentiate with other bacteria.
Why is having an extra chromosome 21 tolerable to the point that someone with this condition can survive to maturity? (as compared to having an extra chromosome 2 , for example)
Answer:
This is due to the fact that chromosome 21 is not fundamental to sustain and keep life going.
Chromosome 21 is the second human chromosome to be entirely sequenced. Chromosome 21 seems to consists of 200 to 300 genes that supply instructions for developing and forming proteins. These proteins undergo a variety of unique roles in the body.
Chromosome 21 is majorly involved in brain development at the frontal lobe and the medulla oblingata.
Final answer:
Chromosome 21 is one of the smallest chromosomes with fewer genes, which results in a less severe impact of an extra copy compared to larger chromosomes. This allows individuals with an extra chromosome 21, or Down syndrome, to survive to maturity and lead fulfilling lives with proper assistance despite some intellectual and physical disabilities.
Explanation:
For several reasons, having an extra chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21 or Down syndrome, is more tolerable. Chromosome 21 is one of the smallest chromosomes with fewer genes compared to other chromosomes such as chromosome 2. This reduces the impact of having an extra copy because the gene dosage effect is not as severe as it would be with larger chromosomes that carry more essential genes. The body can somehow manage the extra dose of the genes on chromosome 21, allowing individuals with Down syndrome to survive to maturity and lead fulfilling lives with assistance.
Embryos with extra copies of other chromosomes, or lacking a chromosome (monosomy), usually do not survive because essential genes are either missing or expressed too much, disrupting vital developmental processes. With chromosome 21 being one of the smallest, the impact of the extra genetic material is less damaging, although it still causes various degrees of physical and intellectual disabilities.
Furthermore, individuals with Down syndrome, with proper assistance, can become contributing members of society despite potential mental and physical impairments. The survivability and capabilities of individuals with Down syndrome illustrate that the extra chromosome 21 while presenting challenges, does not preclude a viable and active life.
In the first analysis all of the F1 flies from the students crosses have the identical phenotype with respect to body color and wing shape but the F2 flies have four different phenotypes describe how fetilization contributes to this genetic variability?
Answer:
Through formation of zygote by using gene pool of two gametes
Explanation:
During fertilization, an offspring is produced from the gametes of parents. Due to independent assortment and recombination, each gamete has unique combination of gene because of the meiosis cell division. This leads to reshuffling of genes of the mating parents and thus causes genetic variation in a given population. This is the reason why offspring of the same parents differ from each other phenotypically. A zygote is formed when the gamete of the two mating parents combine.
Fertilization is the process of combining two gametes to form a zygote. The gametes fertilize to produce different phenotypic characters in the offspring.
Recombination:
It is a process of creating a new combination of genes in the gametes. During the miosis (I) the non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange the genetic material. This results in the different genetic combinations in each gamete.
A gamete fertilizes to form a zygote and develop into offspring. The offspring will produce different traits according to the genes they have.
Therefore, gametes fertilize to produce different phenotypic characters in the offspring.
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Flower color in a particular plant species is determined by one gene. The alleles of that gene can code for either red flowers or blue flowers. When a red plant and a blue plant are crossed, some of the offspring produce purple flowers. What is the genotype of the plants with purple flowers? options: The genotype is BB because of incomplete dominance. The genotype is Bb because of incomplete dominance. The genotype is bb because of incomplete dominance. The genotype has nothing to do with the color of the flower.
Answer:
The correct answer is: The genotype is Bb because of incomplete dominance.
Explanation:
Incomplete dominance is a type of Non-Mendelian inheritance in which neither of the two alleles is dominant over each other. Both the alleles get expressed in a heterozygous individual harbouring both the alleles. Hence this heterozygous individual shows a phenotype that is in between the two homozygous phenotypes.In the given question, let us represent the red phenotype with b allele and the blue phenotype with B allele.The red (bb) and the blue (BB) parents are both homozygous.Gametes produced by each are b and B respectively.Crossing them,B
b Bb
After crossing, their offspring will have the Bb genotype, with a purple coloured phenotype, where the purple colour is between red and blue.Which directly contribute to sea levels rising?
Explanation:
he two major causes of global sea level rise are thermal expansion caused by warming of the ocean (since water expands as it warms) and increased melting of land-based ice, such as glaciers and ice sheets. ... In urban settings, rising seas threaten infrastructure necessary for local jobs and regional industries.
What directly contributes to sea levels rising is:
Melting of land iceIncreasing temperature in ocean waters.
Why are sea levels rising?
There are two major causes for sea levels to be rising during the last years. The first one is the melting land ice present in glaciers and lands. As these ices melt, the water goes to the ocean, increasing its levels.
The second direct cause is the increasing temperature of the ocean. In other words, the temperature of the Earth is increasing, so the oceans get warmer, and as a result, the water in them expands.
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Inflammation can be either local or systemic. What are the most prominent systemic manifestations of inflammation?
Answer:
Inflammation is the body response for protection against harmful things such as toxins, injuries and infection etc.
Explanation:
Inflammation can be either local or systemic.
Local; Invlove local area.
Systemic; Not restricted to particular tissue Invlove endotheliam and other organ. Its symptoms includes;
FeverHypothermiaAsthmaChronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseLoss of white adipose tissueWhat are the "rules" for how muscles produce movements depending on which side (anterior, lateral, etc) of a joint they cross?
Answer:
1.muscles have two attachment and must cross one point
2.muscles only pulls and don't push
3.insertion is the attachment that moves while that which is stationary is origin
4.muscles work in opposing pairs
5.muscle striation shows the pull direction
Explanation:
A protein is made and inserted into the membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. A binding site that is present in this protein is aligned so that it faces the lumen of the ER. If this protein is then moved to other endomembranes, at which surface of the membranes given below is this binding site unlikely to be found? A. the internal face of the Golgi apparatus membranes B. the internal face of a lysosome membrane C. facing the intermembrane space of the nuclear envelope membranes D.the lumen face of a vesicle just derived from the Golgi apparatus • E. the cytosolic face of the plasma membrane
Answer:
E
Explanation:
A protein is made and inserted into the membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. A binding site that is present in this protein is aligned so that it faces the lumen of the ER. If this protein is then moved to other endomembranes, the binding site is unlikely to be found at the cytosolic face of the plasma membrane whose main function is to protect the cell from its surroundings.
In _______________, brain cells are stimulated using a powerful magnetic field produced by a wire coil placed on a person's head that temporarily inactivates neural circuits.
Answer:Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)
Explanation:
Transcranial magnetic stimulation also known as repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation. TMS is a noninvasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in the brain to improve symptoms of depression. In TMS, brain cells are stimulated using a powerful magnetic field produced by a wire coil placed on a person's head that temporarily inactivates neural circuits. TMS devices operate completely outside of the body and affect central nervous system activity by applying powerful magnetic fields to specific areas of the brain that we know are involved in depression.
________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.
Answer:
The correct answer is- vitamin D
Explanation:
Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is produced in the skin due to the exposure of UV radiation on the skin. When the UV radiation penetrates the skin the provitamin D3 is converted into previtamin D3. Then this previtamin D3 gets isomerize to vitamin D3 which is natural form of the vitamin D.
This vitamin D is important for normal bone growth and its function. Vitamin D helps our bone to become strong by helping bone to absorb calcium from the food. It protects osteoporosis in older adults. Therefore the correct answer is vitamin D.
Vitamin D is a fat soluble substance, created in the skin when exposed to UV radiation. This vitamin is essential for absorption of calcium and phosphate, contributing to normal bone growth and function.
Explanation:The substance that is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function is Vitamin D. When UV radiation from the sun comes into contact with our skin, it triggers the synthesis of Vitamin D. It is essential in ensuring our bodies can absorb calcium and phosphate, crucial elements needed for bone health. Insufficient levels of Vitamin D can lead to skeletal disorders such as rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.
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