Answer:
Option D. 1000000
Explanation:
Adrenaline signaling occurs when the the hormones clings to the cell surface of the Adrenaline receptor.
The total modified protein target molecules resulting from a single activated signal receptor is 1,000,000 and this results in the consumption of 100 molecules of Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and 1,010,000 molecules of Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
What impacts can invasive species have on marine ecosystems?
Scientists have warned doctors of the danger of their increasing use of antibiotics for treating minor illnesses. They are concerned because __________.
Answer:
Excess amount of consuming antibiotics may lead to side effects in health.
Explanation:
Antibiotics are antimicrobial substance which is activated against certain bacteria.
Antibiotics are used against foreign substance or bacteria or any other pathogen but these are useless against viral infections,fungal infection etc.
Intake of high amount of antibiotics may create certain health issues like-
Diarrhea with watery dischargeVomitingAllergic reactionItching with discharge.white patches on tongue.shortness of breathing.Nausea,loss appetite,indigestion.Stomach cramping,painfeeling of fullness.
Luis contracts with Greenfield to buy several of Greenfield's dairy cows. Greenfield delivers the cows, but Luis doesn't pay for them. Greenfield may be able to have his cows returned if he seeks the remedy of:
Answer:
restitution
Explanation:
Based on the information it can be said that in this scenario Greenfield may be able to have his cows returned if he seeks the remedy of restitution. The law of restitution refers to the law of gains-based recovery in which the court forces the defendant to give up his/her gains/profit to the claimant in the court case. Which in this case would be Luis would be the devendant and Greenfield the claimant.
Greenfield may seek the legal remedy of replevin to retrieve his dairy cows when Luis fails to pay for them after delivery within the contractual agreement.
Explanation:In the context of Law, specifically contracts and sales, if Luis contracts with Greenfield to buy several of Greenfield's dairy cows, and Greenfield delivers the cows but Luis fails to pay for them, Greenfield has a possible legal remedy. This remedy is termed as 'replevin'. Replevin is a legal process by which one may recover goods that were wrongfully taken or retained. Contrary to a money-back guarantee mentioned in the text, which is more applicable to consumer goods market, in this contractual scenario related to property (dairy cows), Greenfield can seek the court's help to have his cows returned.
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Expected prevalence of a disease is:______.
a) the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations
b) the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time
c) the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances
d) the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time
Answer: c) the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances.
Explanation: Prevalence simply means the widespread of a thing or condition. In epidemiology, prevalence can be defined as the total number of people in a population that is affected by a medical condition or total number of cases of a disease in a population in a given period of time.
Expected prevalence of a disease is therefore the anticipated widespread of a disease or the anticipated total number of cases of a disease in a population based on past observed incidences.
Expected prevalence of a disease refers to the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations. It is different from the total number of cases over time, the anticipated geographical spread, or the number of new cases over a period of time.
Explanation:The expected prevalence of a disease refers to the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations (option a). Prevalence quantifies the proportion of individuals in a population who have a disease or healthcare-related event. It helps epidemiologists understand the likelihood of disease patterns in a population at a certain time.
For example, if healthcare professionals noticed an increased occurrence of a specific disease in a population every winter season in the past years, the expected prevalence of that disease would be high for the upcoming winter.
Prevalence is not to be confused with the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time (option b), the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances (option c), or the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time (option d), which are definitions for incidence, forecast spread, and incidence rate respectively.
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In a dihybrid cross involving two autosomal traits on different chromosomes in which the parents are purebred for the opposite forms of both traits, how many of the offspring would be expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits?
Answer:
The question lacks options, the options are:
A) 1 out of 16
B) 3 out of 16
C) 6 out of 16
D) 9 out of 16
The answer is 1 out of 16
Explanation:
This is a DIHYBRID cross because it involves two different genes coding for distinct traits. One of the traits will be dominant while the other recessive. Hence, parents that are purebred for opposite forms of the trait means that one parent is homozygous dominant while the other is homozygous recessive. When these two parents cross, they produce F1 offsprings that all possess the dominant trait but heterozygous/hybrids.
When these hybrids are self-crossed, they produce four different combinations of gametes which when crossed using a punnet square will result in F2 offsprings with a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio according to Mendel's observation.
9 represents offsprings that are dominant for both traits
The two 3's represents offsprings that are recessive for one trait and dominant for the other respectively.
1 represents offsprings that are homozygous recessive for both traits.
Hence, 1 out of 16 offsprings will be homozygous recessive for both traits.
In a dihybrid cross between purebred parents, the F₂ generation will produce one offspring out of sixteen that will have homozygous recessive traits for both characters.
Explanation:In a dihybrid cross involving two purebred parents, the resultant offspring will all be heterozygous for both traits. Now, if these F₁ generation offspring are allowed to self-cross, their resultant F₂ generation would have a spectrum of possible combinations. The homozygous recessive traits would occur in 1:16 ratio, that is due to the probability of 1/4 recessive for each trait in a monohybrid cross, and these probabilities are multiplied together for the dihybrid cross.
So, we can say that if we don't consider any specific influence other than genetic inheritance, one offspring out of sixteen would be expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits.
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Which are the main points of the cell theory? Select all that apply. A. Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things. B. New cells are produced from existing cells. C. All cells enclose their DNA within a nucleus. D. All living things are made up of cells.
The cell theory emphasizes that cells are the fundamental units of structure and function, new cells arise from pre-existing cells, and all living organisms are comprised of cells. Here options A, B, and D are correct.
A. Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things. This means that all living organisms, from the tiniest bacteria to the largest whales, are built from tiny, membrane-bound units called cells. These cells are like the building blocks of life, responsible for carrying out all the essential processes that keep an organism alive and functioning.
B. New cells are produced from existing cells. This concept, known as cell division, ensures the continuity of life. Cells don't just spontaneously appear; they arise from the division of pre-existing cells. This process allows organisms to grow, repair damaged tissues, and reproduce.
D. All living things are made up of cells. This fundamental principle encompasses the universality of cellular life. Whether it's a simple single-celled organism like an amoeba or a complex multicellular organism like a human, all living things are composed of one or more cells. Here options A, B, and D are correct.
Why are cellular respiration and photosynthesis considered opposite reactions
Explanation:
They are opposites because they are the same chemical reaction but reversed. Cellular respiration takes glucose (from nutrient/food) and oxygen (from atmosphere) in order to make CO2 (think about exhaling) and H20 (water).
Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are considered opposite reactions because cellular respiration is a catabolic reaction whereas photosynthesis is an anabolic reaction.
What are metabolic reactions?Metabolic reactions are the catabolic and anabolic reactions which takes place inside the cell of a living organism.
Catabolic reaction or catabolism is the breakdown of complex substances into simpler substances which produces energy in the form of ATP. These are the oxidizing reactions which occurs inside the mitochondria. These reactions provides energy in the multi-step processes in which metabolites are oxidized to produce ATP. Example: Cellular respiration.
Anabolic reactions are the reactions which include the conversion of simpler substances into complex substances such as glucose in the process of photosynthesis. These reactions build the necessary compounds which maintains the organism are the reduction reactions. Thus, organisms require both oxidizing and reducing agents.
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Bobby touches his newborn brother's palm, and his little brother takes hold of Bobby's finger and will not let go. This is known as the __________ reflex.
Answer: conditioned
Bobby touches his newborn brother's palm, and his little brother takes hold of Bobby's finger and will not let go. This is known as the conditioned reflex.
Explanation:
A conditioned reflex is a response or behaviour learned after birth. So, once the newborn acquires this learned response, they can perform them even without thinking about it.
Thus, Bobby's brother (the newborn) holding on to his finger and not letting go shows that it is a conditioned reflex
ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive to most inclusive: __________. View Available Hint(s) Ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive to most inclusive: __________. organism, population, community organism, population, community, ecosystem organism, community, population, ecosystem ecosystem, community, population, organism
Answer: Population, Community
Ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive: population to most inclusive: community
Explanation:
Starting from the total number of each single specie breeding freely together (population) to the entire group of plants, animals and microorganisms relating with the environment (community) in a given area; ecology seeks to understand the relationship between living things and their environment.
Ecology studies environmental interactions across four levels: organism, population, community, and ecosystem, arranged from the least to most inclusive, to understand complex natural interrelations.
Ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive to most inclusive: organism, population, community, and ecosystem. This hierarchical arrangement begins with the individual organism, which interacts with its immediate environment. A group of organisms of the same species living in a specific area forms a population. These populations interact with other populations to form a community. Finally, the interaction between communities and their physical environment (both biotic and abiotic components) constitutes an ecosystem. This framework helps scientists understand the complex interrelations among the different components of the natural world.
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
Explanation:
Their functionally similar and cell structure to human cells.Protozoa caused Most protist diseases in humans . Protozoa make people wiped out when they become human parasites. Chagas malady and sleeping sickness disease caused by Trypanosoma protozoa. The giardiasis, and Plasmodium protozoa cause malaria by the Giardia protozoa.Many of the most common and destructive human ailments are brought about by a protozoan infection. Any macroparasitic sickness of people and different creatures in which a piece of the body is tainted with parasitic worms, known as helminths.Schistosomiasis and Soil-transmitted helminthiasis are the most significant helminthiases, and are among the disregarded tropical sicknesses.Treating protozoan and helminthic diseases is challenging because these pathogens are eukaryotes, making it hard to target them without harming human cells.
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because these pathogens are eukaryotic organisms, much like human cells. Developing antimicrobial drugs that are specific to these pathogens without harming human cells is a significant challenge. Viruses present an added difficulty in treatment because they replicate within human cells, further complicating the development of drugs with selective toxicity. Fungal infections are particularly troublesome as they are also eukaryotes and do not respond to traditional antibiotic therapy.
Infections caused by protozoa require antiprotozoal drugs which may vary in effectiveness due to the diverse biology of protozoan organisms. Similarly, a variety of drugs must be used to target different helminthic parasites. Resistance to drugs is another problem, particularly noticed in the case of anti-malarial drugs where Plasmodium pathogens have developed resistance. These infections can be especially dangerous for those with compromised immune systems.
Describe four ways that species are being threatened with extinction globally
Answer:
Pollution, community growth, Global warming, and animal hunting
Explanation:
there are many different things that humans are doing to get the animals population to decrease everyday.
Pollution, community growth, Global warming, and animal hunting.
What are species?
A species is a unit of biodiversity as well as the fundamental classification and taxonomic rank of an organism in biology.
A species can also be identified by its karyotype, DNA sequence, anatomy, behavior, or ecological niche. In addition, since fossil reproduction cannot be studied, paleontologists use the chronospecies idea.
There are between 8 and 8.7 million different species of eukaryotes, according to the most recent accurate estimate. But by 2011, just 14% of these had been described. All species, with the exception of viruses, have a two-part.
Therefore, Pollution, community growth, Global warming, and animal hunting.
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What is the difference between evolution and coevolution? a) Evolution of one species only occurs in response to natural selection based on the changing environment that species lives in at a particular time. b) Coevolution is the only way speciation can occur. c) These concepts are not different; they only differ on time scale. d) Coevolution results when two or more species influence adaptation in each other.
Answer: d) Coevolution results when two or more species influence adaptation in each other.
Explanation:
The coevolution is a process of evolution in which two or more species affects each other evolution by the process of natural selection. The evolution of one species is dependent upon other species in coevolution process. The coevolution is affected by the mutualism, predator prey relationships and host parasite relationships.
In the course of evolution of one species adapt to the natural changes occurring in the environment. The changes occurring is one species remain unaffected of the other species.
Evolution is the change in characteristics of living things over time through natural selection, while coevolution is the mutual evolutionary influence between two species in close ecological relationships. Evolutionary changes are driven by environmental pressures, genetic variation, and are not necessarily tied to another species, unlike in coevolution.
Explanation:The main difference between evolution and coevolution is that evolution refers to the change in characteristics of living things over time, which occurs through natural selection and genetic variation, while coevolution involves the influence of closely associated species on each other's adaptation. In coevolution, as one species undergoes evolutionary changes, it affects the evolution of another species typically involved in a close ecological relationship. Evolution, on the other hand, can occur in response to a variety of environmental pressures and is not necessarily tied to changes in a specific other species.
Evolution does not have a predetermined goal of creating superior beings but is rather a response to changing environments, ensuring that species develop adaptations that maximize their reproductive success under current conditions. It's important to note that evolution can result in new species over time but does not always do so, as it can occur within the same species without leading to speciation.
__________is the process by which stimuli lose their ability to evoke learned responses because the events that had followed the stimuli no longer occur.
Answer:
learned response
Explanation:
learned response is the process by which stimuli lose their ability to evoke learned responses because the events that had followed the stimuli no longer occur.
Once alcohol enters the bloodstream it is quickly circulated to the __________, which impairs judgment and reasoning, the most critical skills needed by drivers.
Explanation:
Alcohol has an effect on the structures of brain which are complex. The chemical signals between brain cells are blocked by the alcohol which leads to the symptoms such as poor memory, slurred speech, impulsive behavior and slowed refelexes.Once the alcohol is ingested in our body, it affects our body immediately.It is absorbed in our bloodstream through the lining of or stomach, which then diffuses in the tissues present in our body.When we consume alcohol in excess, it kill our brain cells.The ice age 10,000 years ago killed off most cheetahs. This is an example of A. artificial selection. B. the founder effect. C. the bottleneck effect. D. natural selection. E. macroevolution.
Answer:
C. "THE BOTTLENECK EFFECT".
Explanation:
This could be placed as a rigid example of genetic glitch that happens when the size of a population is severely reduced. Events like earthquakes, floods, fires can reduce a population, killing most individuals and leaving behind a small random group of survivors.
Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the 9 2 pattern. They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glass like valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms
A key question for understanding the life of diatoms involves understanding the various factors that affect their ability to photosynthesize, their crucial means of nutrition. Understanding how environmental factors affect photosynthesis would grant insight into diatom survival.
Explanation:The most crucial question for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms would likely revolve around the factors that affect their ability to photosynthesize, as photosynthesis is the source of their nutrition. A possible question could be:
'What conditions or factors impact the photosynthesis process in diatoms?'
Diatoms, part of the phytoplankton, carry out photosynthesis using functional chloroplasts, like plants on land. They are encased within two porous, glass-like valves that allow the exchange of substances. Environmental factors such as light intensity, carbon dioxide and nutrient levels, and temperature can influence the rate and efficiency of photosynthesis. Understanding these factors would be essential for comprehending the day-to-day survival of diatoms.
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For someone interested in the day-to-day survival of diatoms, it's important to understand how they obtain nutrients, reproduce, and contribute to the ecosystem. This can be achieved through the process of photosynthesis, asexual and occasional sexual reproduction, and functioning in maintaining the carbon cycle.
Explanation:The most important question for someone interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms would be: How do diatoms obtain the nutrients they need for survival and how do they reproduce? Diatoms, which are members of the stramenopiles subgroup, exist as single-celled photosynthetic protists, and are a component of freshwater and marine plankton. They encase themselves in glassy cell walls or frustules composed of crystallized silicon dioxide.
Their nutrition is primarily obtained from functional chloroplasts as they carry out photosynthesis using photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c₁/C₂. Additionally, during periods of nutrient availability, they bloom in large numbers and their excess population, when they die, sinks to the sea floor and aids in maintaining the carbon cycle.
Furthermore, though diatoms mostly reproduce asexually, instances of sexual reproduction exist where the male gametes, featuring flagella, seek out female gametes. Thus, day-to-day survival of diatoms involves obtaining nutrients, reproducing and maintaining a balanced ecosystem.
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Which groups in the domain archaea require high salt concentrations for survival?
Answer:halophiles
Explanation:archaea and bacteria are the types groups of prokaryotes.prokaryotes are organism which lacks membrane bound organelle including the nucleus.as a result,they contain their chromosomes in the nucleoid;a poorly defined region in the cytoplasm.
Archaea and bacteria have several differences including in their cell wall.the cell wall of archaea contains isoprene while that of bacteria contains fatty acid chains.
Archaea are found in extreme environment. The methanogens are obligated anaerobes that produces methane gases and lives in swamps and sewage treatment plants.
The halophiles only lives in water with high salt concentration .
Some lives in acidic and sulphur hot springs and also in ocean depths
What are the characteristics of the vertebrate's nervous systems?
Answer:
Vertebrates contain nervous system which is highly specialized organ.
Explanation:
The nervous system is the complex system in the vertebrate body which is composed of central nervous system that contain brain,spinal cord and peripheral nervous system which contain cranial nerve, spinal nerve,involuntary nerve etc.
The nervous system contain neurons that mainly transmit signal to the different parts of the body.
The peripheral nervous sytem contain somatic and visceral part.
The grey matter and white matter are the 2 areas in vertebrate nervous system.
Sickle-cell anemia is associated with a mutation in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin that results in a change from glutamic acid to valine at position 6. All other amino acids are identical to a normal hemoglobin molecule. Based on the information above, which of the following mutations is the most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia?
a. A single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit.b. A single base-pair insertion in the gene encoding the beta subunitc. A single base-pair deletion in the gene encoding the beta subunit
d. A translocation of DNA from one chromosome to another
Answer:
AExplanation:
1. Sickle cell anemia is an inherited condition, disorder (disease).
2. It is a recessive condition, in which red blood cell become mutated and converted to a sickle like shape, and there aren't enough healthy red blood cells to carry oxygen throughout the body.
3. This condition normally occur when, there is inheritance of two abnormal or mutated copies of the β-globin gene, one allele from each parent.
4. β-globin gene makes haemoglobin.
5. Sickle cell anemia results when glutamic acid being substituted by valine at position 6 ( in short E6V substitution).
6. So, it a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit.
"The correct option is a. A single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit. The most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia is a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin.
Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the gene that encodes the beta subunit of hemoglobin. The mutation results in the substitution of a single amino acid, glutamic acid, with valine at position 6 in the beta-globin chain. Since glutamic acid is encoded by the codons GAA or GAG, and valine is encoded by the codons GTT, GTC, GTA, or GTG, a single base-pair change can result in this amino acid substitution.
For example, if the original codon for glutamic acid is GAG, a single base-pair substitution of A for T would change it to GTG, which codes for valine. This is a classic example of a point mutation, specifically a missense mutation, where a single nucleotide change in the DNA sequence leads to the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein sequence.
The other options are less likely to be the cause of sickle-cell anemia:
b. A single base-pair insertion in the gene encoding the beta subunit: An insertion would shift the reading frame of the gene, leading to a completely different amino acid sequence downstream of the insertion, which is not the case in sickle-cell anemia.
c. A single base-pair deletion in the gene encoding the beta subunit: A deletion would also shift the reading frame, resulting in a nonfunctional protein or a protein with a different sequence than the one associated with sickle-cell anemia.
d. A translocation of DNA from one chromosome to another: Translocation involves the movement of large segments of DNA between chromosomes, which is not consistent with the single amino acid change observed in sickle-cell anemia.
Therefore, the most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia is a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin."
Flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are called perennials.
True or false
Answer: False
Explanation:
Final answer:
The statement is false; flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are called annuals, not perennials. Biennials require two seasons, while perennials live for more than two years.
Explanation:
Flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are not called perennials; this statement is false. The correct term for plants that complete their life cycle in one season is annuals.
An example of an annual is Arabidopsis, also known as mouse-ear cress. Biennials, such as carrots, complete their life cycle in two seasons. The first season is dedicated to vegetative growth, while the reproductive phase occurs in the second season. In contrast, perennials, like the magnolia, have a life cycle that spans two years or more, often flowering annually once established and living for several to many years.
Number the events from earliest (1) to most recent (6) to outline the development of the cell theory.
Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called "animalcules."
Robert Hooke was the first to use the word "cell."
Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells.
Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells.
Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope.
Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells.
Answer:
The chronological order of events ealiest to most recent (1-6) are given below:
Explanation:
1. Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope in the year 1590.
2. Robert Hooke was the first to use the word "cell." In the year 1665
3. Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called "animalcules." In the year 1674
4. Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells in the year 1838
5. Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells in the year 1839
6. Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells in the year 1855
Answer:
The chronological order of events ealiest to most recent (1-6) are given below:
Explanation:
1. Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope in the year 1590.
2. Robert Hooke was the first to use the word "cell." In the year 1665
3. Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called "animalcules." In the year 1674
4. Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells in the year 1838
5. Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells in the year 1839
6. Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells in the year 1855
Why are primers needed for DNA replication? They help direct the placement of the telomeres. They help with the joining of Okazaki fragments. The primers help with the proofreading function of DNA polymerase. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to an existing chain. A tiny amount of RNA is needed to tell the cell where genes are located.
Explanation:
Primase makes a RNA groundwork, or short stretch of nucleic corrosive reciprocal to the layout, that gives a 3' end for DNA polymerase to take a shot at. A normal groundwork is around five to ten nucleotides in length. The preliminary primes DNA amalgamation, i.e., kicks it off. When the RNA preliminary is set up, DNA polymerase "extends" it, adding nucleotides individually to make another DNA strand that is integral to the layout strand. DNA polymerases can just make DNA in the 5' to 3' directions, and this represents an issue during replication. A DNA double helix is constantly hostile to resemble; as it were, one strand runs in the 5' to 3' heading, while different runs in the 3' to 5' bearing. This makes it fundamental for the two new strands, which are likewise antiparallel to their layouts, to be made in somewhat various ways.Primers are necessary for DNA replication because DNA polymerase requires an existing strand to add nucleotides. They facilitate the creation of Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand and are crucial for the replication of chromosome ends by telomerase, thus protecting the genetic information during cell division.
Explanation:Primers are an essential component of DNA replication because DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to an existing chain of DNA. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, replication begins with the synthesis of a short RNA primer by the enzyme primase. This primer serves as a starting point for DNA polymerase to extend the new DNA strand.
The leading strand is synthesized continuously using a single primer, while the lagging strand is synthesized in fragments known as Okazaki fragments, each requiring a separate RNA primer. Once a fragment is synthesized, the RNA primers are removed, and the gaps are filled with DNA nucleotides. DNA ligase then joins these fragments to form a continuous strand.
The existence of these primers also presents a challenge at the ends of chromosomes, the telomeres, where successive rounds of replication could lead to their shortening. However, the enzyme telomerase addresses this issue by extending the telomeres using an inbuilt RNA template, after which DNA polymerase and DNA ligase finish replicating the strand. This mechanism ensures that the chromosome ends are adequately replicated and protected from degradation.
In psychologist Robert Rescorla's classical conditioning experiment, one group of rats experienced a tone just before each of 20 shocks. A second group of rats experienced the same number of tone-shock pairings plus an additional 20 shocks with no tone. Rescorla found that the rats in the first group showed a much stronger conditioned fear response than the rats in the second group. How did Rescorla explain this finding
Answer:
The answer is given below.
Explanation:
Rescorla explain this finding by stating that the tone experienced by the group of rats just before each of 20 shocks was a reliable predictor of the shock for the first group.
The psychologist Robert Rescorla stated in his famous classical conditioning experiment that 2 stimuli does not produce the same level and kind of conditioning. Conditioning works in a better way, if the conditioned stimulus will act as a reliable signal that projects the appearance of an unconditioned stimulus.
Intact skin and mucous membranes: First line of defense. 2. : Second line of defense. 3. : Third line of defense. 4. : Innate defense system. 5. : Adaptive defense system.
Answer:
Skin and mucous membranes are the First line of defense of the body against disease.
First line of defense means that it is the first part which stops the disease infection and prevent it from infecting the animal body.
Skin also protects the body due to its rigid surface which does not allow pathogens inside the body.
Mucous contains white blood cells which attacks on the disease causing microorganisms and kill them before harming the body.
The first line of defense includes intact skin, mucous membranes, and various barriers. The second line of defense is the innate immune system, consisting of specialized cells and soluble factors. The third line of defense is the adaptive immune system, controlled by lymphocytes.
Explanation:The body's first line of defense is the intact skin and mucous membranes. They act as physical barriers that prevent pathogenic invasion into the body tissues. These barriers include the skin, tears, mucus, cilia, stomach acid, urine flow, and friendly bacteria.
The second line of defense is the innate immune system. It is a rapid but nonspecific response that involves specialized cells and soluble factors to destroy pathogens that manage to enter the body.
The third line of defense is the adaptive immune system. It is a slower but more specific and effective response that involves various cell types and soluble factors, primarily controlled by white blood cells known as lymphocytes.
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Erica is an 18-year-old and in her first year of university. One day while she was watching a video in class, Erica started to hear what she thought was music playing. Suddenly she began shaking in her seat and fell to the floor. After the incident ended, one of her classmates helped her to the campus medical center, where she was later diagnosed as having:
Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Epilepsy is part central nervous system (neurological) disorder in which brain activity becomes abnormal, causing seizures or periods of time and having unusual behavior, sensations, and sometimes loss of awareness.
The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found are
Answer:
is asnwer B
Explanation:
The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.
A membrane protein is a protein that is attached to a biological lipid membrane.The membrane proteins can be divided into integral membrane proteins (permanently attached to the membrane)peripheral membrane protein (temporarily attached to the membrane)Membrane proteins have hydrophilic domains that are in contact with water (H2O) molecules on the outside of the lipid bilayer. These hydrophilic regions are composed of hydrophilic amino acids such as glutamic acid, lysine and arginine. Moreover, membrane proteins have hydrophobic regions when they are incorporated into the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer.In conclusion, the hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.
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Secondary structure is determined by interactions between amino acid side chains and tertiary structure is determined by interactions between the repeating constituents of the polypeptide backbone.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The sequence of amino acids in a protein is determined by the DNA and the structure of protein thus formed is a linear sequence. These linear structures undergo structural changes due to the formation of bonds between the constituent molecules.
When bonds are formed by the interactions between the CO group of one chain and the -H group which forms the backbone is known as the secondary structures. Two types of arrangements arise of this that is the helical and pleated sheet.
When the bonds are formed between the side groups or the R group of the amino acid therefore the amino acid structure formed is known as the tertiary structure.
Thus, false is the correct answer.
Protein structure is organized into several levels: primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (local folding such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets), and tertiary (overall 3D structure due to various interactions). Each level builds on the previous to create the complex structure necessary for protein function.
Explanation:Protein Structure Levels
The primary structure of a protein refers to its sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain, which is critical as it determines the higher levels of protein structure. The secondary structure involves local interactions between stretches of a polypeptide, predominantly through hydrogen bonds forming structures like α-helices and β-pleated sheets. It's crucial to note that secondary structure does not involve the side chains (R-groups) of amino acids, which do contribute to the tertiary structure. Tertiary structure is the complete three-dimensional shape of the polypeptide chain, built from diverse interactions, including hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and disulfide bridges between amino acids that are distant in the primary sequence.
Understanding these structural levels is key to grasping how proteins fold and function, as each level of structure builds upon the previous to create a complex biological molecule capable of diverse functions within the cell.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding bulk flow? Select one: a. It requires active muscle movements b. It is an exergonic (energetically favorable) process that releases energy c. It requires ATP d. It provides for a much more efficient movement of oxygen from the atmosphere to cells
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Bulk flow is an energy-requiring mechanisms, whereby water and solutes move through the cell due to its pressure gradient. This process is much faster when compared to osmosis and diffusion.
A cutting is taken from a red-flowered geranium and placed in water to develop roots. Once roots have grown, the new plant is placed in soil and grows to produce another red-flowered geranium. a. sexual.b. asexual
Explanation:
it is (A sexual ) as the sexual reproduction involve the fusion of gametes there is no fusion of gametes which requires two plant , there is only one which produces the other one ( I hope this might help you )
The biggest risk factor for the development of skin cancer is excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation from sunlight. Exposure to UV light in a tanning booth is safer. Is this statement true or false?
Explanation:
Tans from a tanning bed or from the sun are proof of UV radiation harm. Each time you tan you are collecting sun harm which can cause wrinkles, hanging skin, and skin malignant growth. Tanning meeting can expand the danger of creating skin malignancy.There is nothing of the sort as a sound suntan. Any adjustment in your normal skin shading is an indication of skin harm. Proof recommends tanning incredibly expands your danger of creating skin malignancy. The expansion in skin color called melanin, which makes your skin tan, is an indication of harm.Final answer:
The assertion that tanning booths are safer than sun exposure is false. UV radiation from both the sun and tanning booths is a proven carcinogen that significantly increases the risk of skin cancer. Protective measures should be used to reduce the risk of UV radiation exposure.
Explanation:
The statement that exposure to UV light in tanning booths is safer than sun exposure is false. Both sunlight and artificial sources such as sunlamps and tanning booths emit ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which is a significant risk factor for skin cancer. The World Health Organization classifies UV radiation as a Group 1 carcinogen, which confirms it is known with virtual certainty to cause cancer. Therefore, artificial tanning exposes you to the same risks as natural sunlight.
Exposure to UV radiation, whether from the sun or tanning booths, can cause early aging of the skin and damage that leads to skin cancer. Lifelong sun exposure and severe, blistering sunburns greatly increase the risk of developing skin cancer. Protective measures such as seeking shade, applying sunscreen, and wearing protective clothing are recommended to reduce the risk of skin cancer.
Other risk factors for skin cancer include having light-colored skin, numerous moles, a family history of skin cancer, and the use of artificial tanning sources before age 30. It's important to recognize that the risk of skin cancer increases with any form of UV exposure and it is critical to take precautions to minimize that risk.