Answer:
CRP (cAMP receptor protein) is a protein found in bacteria. It is a regulatory protein.
Explanation:
CRP binds to cAMP which brings the conformational change which leads to the binding of CRP to specific sites on DNA promoter. This activates the transcription through interaction with RNA polymerase. Decrease in glucose and increase in cAMP causes an increase in CRP activity. cAMP is low when glucose behaves as a carbon source. This is due to inhibition of adenylate cyclase enzyme (cAMP producing enzyme). So, a decrease in glucose level will increase cAPM level.
Which proteins is used as a chemical defense at body surfaces?
Answer: Antimicrobial proteins.
Explanation:
Antimicrobial proteins are the type of proteins produced by the keratinocytes on the body surfaces. These proteins acts as the barrier and kills the microorganism which is trying to enter the body.
These are larger proteins containing more than 100 amino acids. They are often lytic in nature.
The cell membrane of the microbes is disrupted by the action of these amino acids or proteins on them.
True or False? The pharynx and larynx are generally not coordinated during swallowing in an unresponsive person, making them more prone to choking.
Explanation:
True. During swallowing, the pharynx changes from airway to a food channel channel.During mastication, the food bolus aggregates in the pharynx before swallow commencement. The structures in the oral pit, pharynx and larynx serve various capacities in breathing, talking, rumination and swallowing, Unsourced material might be tested and removed. The nasal cavity, The pharynx is the piece of the throat behind the mouth and larynx the cylinders going down to the lungs and stomach .Nourishment and fluid pass in reverse into the throat on their way to the stomach. Air pass out through the larynx and into the trachea.Tong et al. (1998) used binocular rivalry to test brain responses when the person perceived a house or a face. When the person perceived the face, activity in the _____ increased
Answer:
Parahippocampal place area (PPA)
Explanation:
Binocular rivalry is the visual event that require non-cognitive switching between two images. This happens when a person is being shown two images simultaneously, and is only conscious to one image at a time. That image is said to be dominant and the other suppressed.
PPA is increased because it is this area in the brain that is stimulated by visual segments such as pictures.
Final answer:
When a person perceives a face, the face recognition areas of the brain show increased activity. This activity is specific to faces and is different from the brain regions that process places or houses. Older adults show activity in both regions, which correlates with better memory for associated faces and places.
Explanation:
The study by Tong et al. (1998), which explored brain responses using binocular rivalry, found that when a person perceived a face, there was increased activity in the face recognition areas of the brain. These feature detectors are tuned to respond to particular objects, faces being one of the key stimuli. In contrast, places or houses would activate a different region. This is consistent with findings from fMRI scans and research using transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) that disrupting the face recognition areas leads to a temporary inability to recognize faces while still being able to recognize houses, indicating the specificity of these brain regions for processing certain types of visual information.
In essence, the research suggests that in young adults, only the brain region for processing faces is active when a face is perceived, unlike in older adults, where both face and place regions show activity. A resultant effect is that older adults tend to remember faces associated with certain places better, as indicated by a surprise memory test conducted after brain scanning.
Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs during
Answer:Respiration and photosynthesis
Explanation:
The proton gradient is formed by the electron transport chain and this is across the inner mitochondria membrane that enables ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.
Oxygen is needed in the cell for oxidative phosphorylation and it is of 2 component this include the electron transport chain and chemiosmiosis.
Electron transport chain- Electron are transport from one molecule to another.
Chemiosmosis- The energy is stored and then used to make ATP.
Proton gradients across membranes are generated during chemiosmosis, a process that is part of energy production in cells. This process involves the movement of hydrogen ions across a mitochondrial membrane to create concentration and electrical gradients known as the proton motive force, critical for ATP production.
Explanation:The generation of proton gradients across membranes primarily occurs during a process known as chemiosmosis. This process is involved in the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), an energy-carrying molecule, in cellular metabolism. In chemiosmosis, free energy is extracted from a series of redox reactions and used to pump hydrogen ions, or protons, across a mitochondrial membrane.
The movement of the hydrogen ions from the matrix into the intermembrane space creates an uneven distribution across the membrane, thus establishing concentration and electrical gradients. This is the result of the hydrogen ions' positive charge and their aggregation on one side of the membrane. This electrochemical gradient, often referred to as the proton motive force (PMF), is integral for the creation of ATP.
So, in essence, the generation of proton gradients across membranes is a key part of energy production and transfer within cells, particularly during the chemiosmosis process within mitochondria.
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When a virus infects a bacterial cell, often new viruses are assembled and released when the host bacterial cell is lysed. If these new viruses go on to infect new bacterial cells, the new host cells may not be lysed. What is the most plausible explanation for this?A) The bacterial cell must be resistant to infection by the virus.
B) The virus carries genes that confer resistance to the host bacterial cell.
C) The host bacterium couples the viral infection with transformation.
D) The virus has entered the genome of the bacterial cell and is in the lysogenic stage.
Answer:
D) The virus has entered the genome of the bacterial cell and is in the lysogenic stage.
Explanation:
Virus have two reproductive cycle lytic and lysogenic cycles. In the lytic cycle, the viral genome is expressed using the host molecular machinery and make capsid proteins. These capsid proteins surround the viral genome and make new phages which lyse the host cell and gets released.
After the release, they enter their genome in other host and that genome first incorporates in the host genome and replicates with the host genome. This cycle is called the lysogenic cycle and in this cycle lysis of cell does take place because no new phages are produced in it.
Final answer:
The virus entering the bacterial cell's genome in the lysogenic stage explains why new viruses may not lyse new host cells after the initial lysis.
Explanation:
The most plausible explanation for new viruses not lysing new host bacterial cells after initial lysis is D) The virus has entered the genome of the bacterial cell and is in the lysogenic stage. In the lysogenic cycle, the virus incorporates its DNA into the host cell's genome, forming a prophage and establishing a stable relationship with the host without causing immediate lysis. This allows the host cell to continue normal functions until conditions induce the virus to enter the lytic cycle.
The evolution and later reliance on our ______ system has been suggested as the reason why humans use pheromones less than other mammals as sexual cues.
Answer: Reproductive system
Explanation: the reproductive system in humans which is a complex system that consists of sex organs that work together for the purpose of reproduction. This system has taken over the use of pheromomes in human and some other mammals as sexual cues.
Humans use pheromones less than other mammals as sexual cues due to the evolution and reliance on our olfactory system. Though humans still respond to certain pheromones the prominence of our visual and auditory systems and the complexity of our behaviors have reduced our reliance on them. The role of pheromones in human interaction is a subject of ongoing research.
Explanation:The human sensory system referred to in the question is the olfactory system. Pheromones are a type of secreted chemical signal primarily used by many animal species to influence behavior, including attracting the opposite se issuing alarms, or marking food trails. In humans, however, the prominence of other sensory systems, particularly the visual and auditory systems, and the complexity of our behaviors reduce our reliance on pheromones.
Although humans are still thought to respond to certain pheromones, such as axillary steroids, our response is considered less significant compared to many other mammals. This is essentially due to our sophisticated olfactory system's evolution and our greater dependency on it. The less obvious role of pheromones in human-to-human communication continues to be a subject of scientific research.
In context, our evolution and increasing reliance on the olfactory system, which processes complex scents and aromas, has likely influenced humans to use pheromones less as sexual cues compared to other mammals. This shift towards olfaction and away from pheromone-based communication is a fascinating aspect of both biological and sociological studies of human interaction.
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Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates production of red blood cells (RBCs) in bone marrow. This hormone is secreted by which secondary endocrine organ?
Answer:
Kidneys.
Explanation:
Erythropoietin is a hormone that is produced by the kidney and stimulates the production of red blood cells (RBCs) in the bone marrow. Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to generate more RBC's.
By nature, Erythropoietin is a protein with having attached sugar. It is known as the glycoproteins that help in the stimulation for the specific types of RBC's growth in the bone marrow.
Arthropods invaded land about 100 million years before vertebrates did so. This most clearly implies that
Explanation:
The given statement implies that arthropods had more time to co-evolve with land plants than vertebrates
Co-evolution is a type of evolution in which two species reciprocally affect each others evolution in a way that they both evolve togetherFossil evidence gives the progressive interaction between arthropods and land plants through the later Paleozoic and Mesozoic eraEvidence includes the evolution of chemical defense strategy by plants along with the evolution of different mouthpart design in new insect groupsLeaf galls became common in Cretaceous coinciding with the evolution of several new insect groups and plantsData from coprolites(trace fossils) suggest that spore feeding preceded leaf feeding,experiments have indicated that some spores remain viable after passing through the gut and hence this feeding habit might have been advantageous to some early plants for propagule formationOf the three louse vectored pathogens here, which is or are unable to invade the insects gut and penetrate into its body cavity to grow and reproduce?
Explanation:
The body louse , Pediculus humanus corporis, is the vector of three human pathogens such as the operator of pandemic typhus and Borrelia recurrentis and Rickettsia prowazekii,The specialist of backsliding fever and Bartonella quintana, the operator of channel fever, bacillary angiomatosis, endocarditis, incessant bacteremia, and constant lymphadenopathy.Mite borne ailments can be related with high rate of illness and demise, particularly scourge typhus and backsliding fever, which can be lethal in up to 40% of patients. The ailments are for the most part common in individuals living in neediness and packed conditions, for instance, vagrants and those associated with war circumstances.Sodium ions, oxygen (O2), and glucose pass directly through lipid bilayers at dramatically different rates. Which of the following choices presents the correct order, from fastest to slowest?A. Glucose, oxygen, sodium ions.
B. Glucose, sodium ions, oxygen.
C. Oxygen, glucose, sodium ions.
D. Oxygen, sodium ions, glucose.
E. Sodium ions, glucose, oxygen.
F. Sodium ions, oxygen, glucose.
Answer:
2wdaswdawad
Explanation:
The correct order for substances passing through the lipid bilayer, from the fastest to the slowest, is oxygen, glucose, and then sodium ions (option C). Oxygen diffuses freely, glucose requires some assistance, and sodium ions, being charged, require specialized channels for facilitated diffusion.
The passage of substances through the lipid bilayer of plasma membranes occurs at different rates depending on the nature of the substance. Gases like oxygen (O₂) can easily diffuse across the membrane because they are small and nonpolar. On the other hand, polar substances such as glucose and charged particles like sodium ions cannot readily pass through the nonpolar lipid bilayer without assistance. Sodium ions, in particular, are impeded due to their charge and require special transport proteins to facilitate their movement through the membrane.
Considering these properties, the correct order from fastest to slowest for the passage through the lipid bilayer would be oxygen first, as it diffuses freely due to its non-polarity and small size. Glucose, being a small hydrophilic molecule, would pass through at a much slower rate. And sodium ions, due to their charge, would pass through the slowest as they are unable to move through the lipid bilayer without facilitated diffusion through specialized channels.
Therefore, the correct order from fastest to slowest is:
Oxygen (O₂)GlucoseSodium ionsIf a bacterial cell culture contains 2 cells at time zero, 8 cells one hour later, 32 cells after 2 hours, and 128 cells after 4 hours, then which of the following describes the growth of this culture?
A) g = 0.5 h, v = 5 h^-1
B) g = 0.5 h, v = 2 h^-1
C) g = 2 h, v = 0.5 h^-1
D) g = 1 h, v = 1^-1
Answer:
B
Explanation:
This cell culture is in exponential growth, as every 30 minutes the cell population is doubling. at regular intervals.
The generation time (g) describes is the time interval required for the cells to divide.
generation time (g) = time (in hours)/ number of generations
The total time in hours is 4. And the number of generations is the number of population doublings it takes to get to 128, which is 8 (0, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128)
g = 4/8
g = 0.5
Therefore, the answer is either A or B.
v = the specific growth rate of bacteria, with the units h⁻¹. This corresponds to the number of population doublings per hour. The data shows that the population doubles 2x every hour. Therefore, the answer is B.
The domestic dog, Canis lupus familiaris, has 39 pairs of chromosomes in each of its diploid somatic (body) cells. Therefore, the haploid sperm cells of a male dog created via meiosis will each contain ________ chromosomes.
Answer:39 chromosomes
Explanation; meiosis is a form of nuclear division that produces gametes with half the number of chromosomes in the parent cell.it involves two successive divisions to produce four daughter cells.meiosis occurs only in reproductive cells.
In this case,the dog has 39 pairs of chromosomes,which is 78 chromosomes.it would undergo meiotic division to produce the half number of chromosomes,which is 39 chromosomes.this 39 haploid chromosomes are contained in the sperm cells or in the egg cells.
When the egg and sperm fuses,the diploid number of chromosomes is restored.
The haploid sperm cells of a male dog created via meiosis will each contain 39 chromosomes.
What is meiosis?It is a form of nuclear division that generated gametes with half the number of chromosomes in the parent cell. It includes two successive divisions to generate four daughter cells. Meiosis arises only when there should be reproductive cells. Since there is 39 pairs of chromosomes so meiosis also contains 39 chromosomes.
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The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
Answer:
The sliding filament model of contraction involves actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
Explanation:
Sliding filament model states that during muscle contraction the myofilaments myosin and actin slide towards each other and overlap. This shortens the sarcomere and the entire muscle/ Muscle cells are shocked by nerve impulses from motor neurons.
The force behind the muscle contraction is the ratchet movement of the tiny myosin heads toward the centre of thei sarcomere. This ratchet movement occurs many times during muscle contraction.
Points of the sliding filament theory will be as follows :
A bands (contains actin) : Moves close together and do not shorten.I Bands (Distance between A bands of successive sarcomeres) : Decreases in length.H bands (myosin only) : Shortens during contraction.Actin and myosin filament interactions inside muscle fibers are a component of the sliding filament model of contraction.
Thus, actin filaments slip past myosin filaments after myosin heads connect to them and go through a series of conformational changes. This causes muscle contraction. Sarcomeres, the fundamental contractile units of muscle fibers, shorten as a result of this sliding movement, which causes muscular contraction.
The energy needed for the myosin heads to separate from actin and restart for the following cycle of binding and sliding is provided by ATP. The sliding filament model offers a fundamental knowledge of molecular mechanisms underlying muscle contraction.
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A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kilocalories and 30 grams of fat. Approximately ______% of the total energy is provided by fat.
Answer:
19%
Explanation:
It is known that a gram of fat contains 9 calories
Now; in 30 grams of fat; the number of calories will be: 30 × 9 =270 calories
The _____ percentage of the total energy from 1400 kcalories can now be determined as:
= [tex]\frac{270}{1400}[/tex]
= 0.19
= 19%
∴ Approximately 19% of the total energy is provided by fat.
When considering the initiation of transcription, one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA polymerase(s) bind. Which are common consensus sequences in E. coli?
a. any trinucleolide repeat
b. satellie DNAs
c. TTTTAAAA
d. GGTTC
e. TATAAT
Answer:
e. TATAAT
Explanation:
Transcription is the process by which mRNA is produced from DNA and starts by the binding of RNA polymerase on DNA. RNA polymerase binds to specific binding sites on DNA determined by promoters and in E. coli three sequence elements are found in promoters.
The consensus sequence TATAAT are present in the pribnow box in E. coli and about ten base pairs upstream from the transcription starting site. That is why it is also called as -10 sequence. It is considered as idealized consensus sequence. The pribnow box with the sequence of six nucleotides (TATAAT) is most common transcription initiation factor in most bacteria like E. coli. The most commonly occurring bases from different promoters analyzed are showed by it.
What is the role of the lymphatic system in the innate immune defense
Answer:
The lymphatic system carries out the body's immune responses by producing and distributing cells, such as lymphocytes and macrophages, that combat disease. Lymph vessels, or lymphatics, drain fluid from all parts of the body and return it to the heart.
Explanation:
The lymphatic system is vital for innate immune defense by producing, maturing, and circulating lymphocytes, and filtering pathogens from lymph fluid.
The Role of the Lymphatic System in Innate Immune Defense
The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in the body's innate immune defense. It consists of a network of vessels, ducts, and organs that manage the fluid levels in body tissues and filter out pathogens. One of the primary functions of the lymphatic system is the production, maturation, and circulation of lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that is vital for immune responses.There are several key features of the lymphatic system related to the immune response:Production of Lymphocytes: Lymphocytes are produced and matured primarily in the bone marrow and thymus.Filtration: Lymph nodes filter pathogens from the lymph fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream, providing an essential checkpoint for immune monitoring.Secondary Lymphoid Organs: These include structures such as the lymph nodes and spleen, where mature lymphocytes congregate to detect and respond to foreign invaders.Transport of Immune Cells: The lymphatic system transports immune cells throughout the body to intercept pathogens and mobilize an appropriate immune response.Although lymphocytes are primarily associated with the adaptive immune system (specific defense), the lymphatic system also supports the innate immune response by filtering pathogens and by aiding in the initial activation of immune cells. This helps ensure a rapid response to infections, preventing pathogens from spreading throughout the body.Overall, the lymphatic system is indispensable for both innate and adaptive immunity, providing both immediate and long-lasting defense mechanisms in the body.What events occurs in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes?
Answer:
In prokaryotes nucleus is not present so replication transcription and translation takes place in the cytoplasm in the prokaryotes while in eukaryotes replication and translation takes place in the nucleus.
In prokaryotes, transcription and translation are coupled but in eukaryotes, transcription and translation are separated by nucleus and post-transcriptional modification takes place in eukaryotes, not in prokaryotes.
In prokaryotes, ATP synthesis takes place in cell membranes because they do not have mitochondria. Eukaryotes contain mitochondria where ATP synthesis takes place in them.
A significant body of research indicates ____ for exam stress; large scale disasters; loss of a spouse; response to viral challenge including herpes simplex, Epstein Barr, HIV, and cold virus; and long-term caregiving by loved ones of persons with dementia. immune system growth immune system suppression increased growth of phagocytes immune dysregulation
Answer:
immune system suppression
Explanation:
Research indicated suppression of the immune system can have many causes like stress during exam releases corticosteroid which is a stress hormone that reduce the function of the immune cell thereby suppress the immune system.
Emotional stress like loss of a spouse or loved ones suppresses the immune system of a person and makes a person vulnerable to disease. Viral challenges especially those that attack the immune system suppress our immune system.
Research suggests that Dementia caregivers are at increased risk of lower immunity, cardiovascular disease and lower immune response towards vaccine.
Sustainable use of forests in the united states would likely be encouraged by
Answer:
recycling
Explanation:
The threshold on a dose-response curve is the:_______.
a. point at which the dose of the drug causes maximal response.
b. lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of the drug.
c. safe effective dose of the drug.
d. therapeutic index of the drug.
Explanation:
In toxicology, the dose - response relationship is an important concept.With changes in health and body functions, it correlates exposure.Severe response is seen when the dose is higher.The dose response relationship is based on cell studies, human clinical, and observed data of experimenatl animal.The visual representation of the population's response rate to a range of doses of a substance is a Dose Response curve.
The threshold on a dose-response curve is the lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of a drug. It reflects the minimal amount of a drug needed to produce a significant response in the organism. Understanding this is important for determining adequate drug dosages.
Explanation:The threshold on a dose-response curve is understood to be the lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of a drug. This means, it is the minimal concentration or amount of a drug required to produce a significant response in the organism. From a biomedical perspective, understanding this threshold is critical as it helps in the determination of the ideal dosage for a drug that will maximize therapeutic benefits while minimizing adverse effects.
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In prophase I of meiosis, crossing over results in
Answer: More genetic variation and chromosomes with a combination of both maternal and parental DNA.
Explanation: Crossing over is the exchange of segments of DNA from non-homologous chromosomes (non from the same parent), and creates a combination of maternal and paternal DNA, which results in more combinations of alleles in offspring.
Above a certain substrate concentration, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction drops as the enzymes become saturated. Which of the following would lead to a faster conversion of substrate into product under these saturated conditions?
a. an increase in concentration of enzyme
b. decreasing the temperature
c. increasing the substrate concentration
d. add a noncompetitive inhibito
An increase in the concentration of enzyme leads to faster conversion of substrate into the product under these saturated conditions. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Enzyme?An Enzyme may be defined as the substance in living organisms that act as a catalyst and catalyzes specific biochemical reactions.
An increase in the concentration of enzyme leads to the reduction in the activation energy of the reaction, which as a result leads to faster conversion of substrate into product.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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You ingest 20 cells of Salmonella. This bacterium has a doubling time of 30 minutes. After 4 hours, how many of these bacteria would be present in the body (assuming no immune system responses or other biological activities affect its growth)?
Answer:
You ingest 20 cells of Salmonella. This bacterium has a doubling time of 30 minutes. After 4 hours, how many of these bacteria would be present in the body (assuming no immune system responses or other biological activities affect its growth)?
240 cells of salmonella
Explanation:
20 cells of salmonella
in 30 mins = 40 salmonella
60 minutes= 60 salmonella
120 minutes= 120 salmonella
240 minutes (4hours)= 240 salmonella
What is an effect of complement activation?
Explanation:
compliment activation is the lysis,(destruction) of bacterial, viral, fungal, through the membrane attack complexes.
A 35 year-old man presents with a testicular mass. Beta-HCG and Alpha-Feto Protein blood levels are normal. A radical orchiectomy is performed. Grossly the mass is tan-white and nodular without hemorrhage. Microscopically it is composed of large cells with clear cytoplasm, visible cell membrane, fibrous septa and lymphocytes. What is your diagnosis?
Answer: Classic seminoma
Explanation:
The classic seminoma can be defined as the germ cell tumor of the testicles or mediastinum. It is a type of malignant neoplasm and is treated and curable stage of the cancer.
It has a survival rate of more than 95 % if it is detected during the early stages of diagnosis.
It originates in the germinal epithelium of the semniferous tubules. In this case the fertility of the person is not affected and sexual function also remains intact.
A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
a. "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug."
b. "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately."
c. "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly."
d. "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."
Answer:
The correct answer is C- I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly.
Explanation:
Mitoxantrone is a anti cancer drug which is given to stop the growth and spread of cancer. It is infused in patients very slowly taking up to three to five minutes and administered once in every three months for 2 to 3 three years.
Liver functioning Tests and a pregnancy test should be done before each infusion.
In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to __________. View Available Hint(s) In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to __________. increase the growth rate increase the dilution rate (rate of addition of medium) increase the temperature increase the concentration of nutrients in the medium
Answer:
In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to increase the concentration of nutrients in the medium
Explanation:
A Continuous culture is to keep a culture growing indefinitely. This can be done if :
Fresh nutrients are continually suppliedAccumulated cells and waste products are removed at the same rateConditions such as temprature and pH are kept at their optimum values.The best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to increase the nutrients concentration in the medium.
For sub-freezing temperatures, the saturation vapor pressure just above a liquid water surface is ____ the saturation vapor pressure above an ice surface.
Explanation:
Greater than Is Right Answer.Freezing precipitation is essentially rains that falls through a shallow layer of cold temperatures at or underneath 0 degrees Celsius (32 degrees F) close to the surface. Numerous individuals can drive in the rains and day off, when the streets become cold, it is practically difficult to drive. Freezing happens when the particles of a fluid get so cold that they hinder enough to snare onto one another, framing a strong precious stone. Pure water, this occurs at 32 degrees Fahrenheit, and not at all like most different solids, ice grows and is in reality less thick than water.Which one of the following is NOT true? Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions. An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape. Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze. Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates. An enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's active site.
Answer:
Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
Explanation:
Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up or accelerate the rate of chemical reactions within a biological system. Enzymes regulate the rate of chemical reactions without being destroyed in the chemical reaction nor altered in the biological process. Specific molecules called substrate, bind to the active site of enzymes to produce molecules referred to as products. Enzymes are vital to life as they participate in so many biological process in body such as in digestion, DNA synthesis. The function of an enzyme is dependent on the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme.
An example of an enzyme is hexokinase, that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate.
The statement 'Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions' is not true.
Explanation:Enzymes are not used up in chemical reactions. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by reducing the energy of activation. They are not consumed or used up in the chemical reactions they catalyze. Instead, they emerge unchanged and can catalyze the same reaction many times over.
For example, an enzyme called catalase can catalyze the breakdown of millions of hydrogen peroxide molecules into water and oxygen every second. The other statements in your question are indeed correct.
An enzyme's function does depend on its three-dimensional shape, as this shape determines the enzyme's active site where it binds to its substrate. Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates in similar way a lock fits a specific key. Enzymes bind to their substrates at the enzyme's active site.
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It is necessary for the immune system to clearly distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body.
(a) Explain why this is the case:
Answer: It is necessary for the immune system to clearly distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body so that the immune system will be able to fight foreign cells and proteins and eliminate them from the body.
Explanation: The ability of the immune system to clearly distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body helps the body to identify pathogens that invade the body and trigger appropriate immune response to eliminate the foreign cells and proteins.
When the immune system of the body fails to distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body, the body launches an attack against its cells, that is the immune system triggers an autoimmune response in which attacks are launched against the cells of the body and destroy them. This condition in which the immune system recognizes the cells of the body as non-self and launches an attack against them is known as autoimmunity. Autoimmunity is the major cause of most degenerative diseases such as type I diabetes mellitus.