In pea plants, the allele for inflated pod seed, I, is dominant over the allele for constricted pod seed, i. The Punnett square shows a cross for this trait. Which offspring will be homozygous dominant?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The offspring which carries the allele II will be homozygous dominant.

Explanation:

A dominant trait can be described as a trait which masks the effect of a recessive trait. A recessive trait can be described as a trait which gets masked by the dominant trait.

A homozygous dominant trait occurs when both the alleles for the gen are dominant. A heterozygous dominant trait occurs when one allele is dominant and the other is recessive for the trait.  

Hence, a homozygous dominant trait will carry the alleles II.

Answer 2

Answer

II

Explanation:


Related Questions

Robert and Stephanie are married; both have achondroplasia. Each always knew that they would only marry someone with achondroplasia. This type of choice can disturb Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and is an example of what?

Answers

Answer:The gene Y 11 is only partially dominant over y 11 ; thus heterozygote Y 11 y 11 plant has ...

Explanation:they have  it i their genes

A bunionectomy is a hallux ____ correction.A needle biopsy is a way of obtaining a piece of tissue out of the body by excision of the tissue. It can be examined under a microscope by a pathologist. Because this biopsy is performed through the skin, it is called a percutaneous biopsy.

Answers

Answer:

Valgus.

Explanation:

Bunion may be defined as the joint enlargement at the big toe. The bunionectomy may be defined as the surgical procedure to remove the bunion.

The hallux valgus is corrected in the bunionectomy. This is a type of deformity involve in the functional disability of the foot and pain in the lower part of the body. This correction is important as it might cause problem in the individual and excess pain in the foot.

Thus, the answer is valgus.

Using careful experimental design, Blehert and colleagues proved definitively that the fungus Geomyces destructans is the cause of white nose syndrome.

Answers

Answer:

False.

Explanation:

The scientific hypothesis may be defined as the complete explanation of any particular natural phenomena. The scientific hypothesis and theory cannot be used synonymous with each other.

The hypothesis are generally based on the observation of the particular phenomena. The Blehert and colleagues set up the experimental design for the hypothesis. This is incorrect because the hypothesis can be accepted or rejected but cannot be proven.

Thus, the answer is false.

The explanation for the fact that radioactive isotopes of an element exhibit the same chemical behavior as the stable isotopes of the element is that each has the same:

Answers

a. atomic number.

b. number of neutrons.

c. mass number.

d. atomic weight.

Answer:

a. atomic number

Explanation:

Radioactive isotopes of an element have the same chemical behavior as the stable isotopes of the element due to the fact that they have the same atomic number with that of the stable isotopes of the element. The atomic number determines the electron number and configuration of an element.

Electron number and their arrangement determine the chemical behavior of an element, as they determine how the element interacts and form bonds.  

Demetri is a participant in an auditory detection study using the method of constant stimuli. He never detects the 10 unit tone. He detects the 20 unit tone 25% of the trials. He detects the 30 unit tone 50% of the trials. He detects the 40 unit tone 80% of the trials. He detects the 50 unit tone 95% of the trials. His threshold for hearing tones would be taken as the _________.

Answers

Answer:

30 unit tone

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that his threshold for hearing tones would be taken as the 30 unit tone. This is because "threshold" refers to the amount that must be exceeded for a certain result to occur or manifest. Which in this case is indicated by the 50% mark that the 30 unit tone indicates. Making it the minimum for consistency.

A chi-square test was performed and indicated that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expecteD. Which of the following P-values would support this conclusion?

Select one:

a. 0.536
b. 0.752
c. 0.024
d. 0.159
e. 0.995

Answers

Answer: C. 0.024

Explanation:

The pvalue 0.024 is < 5% which shows that the expected number of offspring were statistically different from expected.

Final answer:

Among the given options, choice c. 0.024 is the correct answer, supporting the conclusion that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expected. This is because in a chi-square test, a P-value less than 0.05 indicates a statistically significant difference.

Explanation:

A chi-square test is a statistical tool used to determine if there is a significant difference between the observed and expected frequencies of events. The P-value of the chi-square test indicates the probability of obtaining the observed data if the null hypothesis is true, in which the null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference between the observed and expected quantities.

Typically, a P-value of less than 0.05 is considered statistically significant and supports the rejection of the null hypothesis. In the given options, choice c. 0.024 is the P-value that would support the conclusion that the observed numbers of offspring were significantly different from the expected, since it is less than 0.05.

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The liver plays an important role in modulating blood glucose levels by removing glucose from the blood during periods of abundance or secreting it into the blood when blood glucose concentration is low. However, the liver doesn't simply stockpile glucose. Rather, it polymerizes it into glycogen, which it can then hydrolyze back into glucose monomers as needed. Why would storage as glycogen be better than simply storing the glucose.

Answers

Answer: glycogen is insoluble in water

Explanation:

Glycogen is a better storage of glucose because Glycogen is insoluble in water thus, because of the glycosidic linkages. Storing glucose as glycogen will not upset the osmotic pressure rather than glucose which is soluble in water and if it is stored as glucose it will disturb the osmotic pressure making the solution hypertonic that will cause the cell to lyse.

The glucose from glycogen is readily mobilized and is therefore a good source of energy when needed rather than free floating glucose

Final answer:

The liver stores glucose as glycogen, allowing for a compact, controlled, and efficient system of glucose storage and release. After a meal, insulin promotes glucose conversion to glycogen for storage, and when blood sugar levels decrease, the liver converts glycogen back into glucose.

Explanation:

The liver stores glucose as glycogen, a polymer of glucose, rather than as free glucose for several important reasons. First, glycogen is a more soluble and compact way to store glucose making it more space-efficient than storing individual glucose molecules. Second, the conversion of glucose to glycogen and back, through processes known as glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, allows for a more controlled release of glucose when it is needed.  Additionally, glycogen stabilizes blood glucose levels by releasing glucose when blood glucose concentration is low and storing it when the concentration is high.

After a meal, blood glucose levels increase, stimulating the pancreas's production of insulin which promotes glucose uptake by liver hepatocytes and other cells. Inside these cells, glucose is converted into glucose-6-phosphate and then stored as glycogen for future energy needs. If blood sugar levels drop, the glycogen is hydrolyzed back into glucose and released back into the blood. This process allows for the maintenance of stable blood glucose levels, providing a steady supply of energy for body cells.

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The correct functions of your lungs contribute to the normal pH level of between 7.35 and 7.45 in your blood. If your lungs do not exchange and remove carbon dioxide from your blood, the blood pH will change. A reading of pH 6.4 of your blood indicates:A. no health risk, as part of normal pH changes in your body that in this case bring it closer to neutral pH.B. a health problem due to the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) being 10X higher than normal in your body.C. a health problem due to the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) being 2X higher than normal.D. a health problem due to the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) being 2X higher than normal in your body.E. a health problem due to the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) being 10X higher than normal in your body.

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The lung not being not been able to exchange and remove the carbon dioxide created a health problem due to the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) being 10X being higher than in normal body. Although the difference is just about 1, it will result increase hydrogen ion concentration 10 times, similarly an increase or decrease in pH from 4 to 2 will give rise to 100 times increase in hydrogen ion concentration. It can equally be applied to hydroxyl in concentration.

Excess plasma lipids in the form of cholesterol contribute to the formation of atherosclerotic plaques within blood vessel walls. Which of the following is NOT a likely consequence of such plaques?

Answers

The question is incomplete. The multiple options are as follows:

turbulent blood flow around the plaque .

increased pressure due to a loss of elasticity in the vessel wall .

more resistance to flow due to a decrease in blood vessel diameter.

All options are correct.

Answer:

All options are correct.

Explanation:

Blood is composed of the plasma and formed elements in the body. The formed elements consists of the red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.  

The blood plasma consists of the proteins, antibodies and different types of chemicals. The excess level of cholesterol can cause the plaque formation that disrupt the proper blood flow. The plaque may result in the loss of elasticity and excess rigidity in the walls of blood vessels. The blood resistance flow increases and causes the lowering the diameter of blood vessels.

Thus, all given options are correct.

Why do mushrooms grow back in the same spot each year even if someone removes the cap and stem of the mushroom?

Answers

Answer:

The old hyphae was left underground and a new mushroom will regrow from it.

Explanation:

Mushrooms is the fleshy part of a fungus that bears spores.  Is found above the ground. It is comprised of parts such as the cap which is the top part.

Underneath the cap are the gills and the stalk or the stem is where the cap and gills are attached.

A part from the seen features, underneath the ground is where the hyphae which can give rise to another fruiting body or the mushroom.

After suffering an accidental brain injury, Kira has difficulty walking in a smooth, coordinated manner. It is likely that she has suffered damage to her:

Answers

Answer: Kira has difficulty in walking in smooth coordinated manner because she has suffered injury to the cerebellum.

Explanation:

Cerebellum is a part of the brain situated inferior to cerbrum and posterior to pons. It receives sensory information and converts it into motor responses. Motor coordination is when subsequent parts of the same movement, or the movements of several limbs or body parts are combined in a manner that is well timed, smooth, and efficient. Cerebellum coordinates voluntary motor movements resulting in smooth coordinated muscular activities. Injury to cerebellum causes its loss of function which in return causes

1) loss of coordinated movements

2) inability to perform alternate rapid movements

3) movement tremors

4) staggering wide based gait

Final answer:

Kira likely damaged her cerebellum, as this part of the brain regulates fine motor control and coordination. Damage can lead to ataxia, characterized by unsteady, uncoordinated movements.

Explanation:

After suffering a brain injury and having difficulty walking in a smooth, coordinated manner, it's likely Kira has suffered damage to her cerebellum.

The cerebellum is part of the brain responsible for fine motor control, balance, and coordination. Damage to this area can result in ataxia, a type of movement disorder characterized by a lack of muscle control during voluntary movements, leading to unsteady and uncoordinated walking.

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Most eukaryotic cells contain mitochondria, but a few single-celled eukaryotic organisms found in oxygen-free environments do not. Which of the observations led biologists to reject the hypothesis that these mitochondria-free eukaryotes evolved before the endosymbiotic event that established mitochondria in other eukaryotes?

Answers

Answer:

Their nuclear genome contained relics of mitochondrial genes

Explanation:

Mitochondrion is a double membrane bound organelle that is found in most eukaryotic organism whose main function is to produce or generate energy. The mitochondria has DNA thus it is passed exclusively from mother to offspring.

It is hypothesized that it exists inside the cell after an endosymbiotic event                                            

Since their nuclear genome contains relics of mitochondrial genes, biologists rejected the hypothesis that they evolved before the endosymbiotic event.

An interneuron may receive multiple stimuli from the same sensory neuron over a very short period of time. The firing rate of the receiving neuron is proportional to the number of signals received from the sensory neuron over time.

Answers

Answer:

This is Temporal summation

Explanation:

The basic objective of temporal summation is to   merge the amplitudes of   individual  pre- synaptic potential  with the post synaptic potential. so that  the sum amplitude of the potential  produced can be greater than individual amplitudes. The merged amplitudes will enable the membrane  potential to reach  the threshold level    for  generation of   post synaptic action potential.

Generally, the post synaptic membrane  stores charges.Thus it stores in  quick succession the amplitude of the  first action potential, and as this is falling, it stores that of the second , third and fourth and merged this together to reach the threshold.

Temporal summation depends on the ''time frame' between the first and second pre-synaptic potential. Because the closer they are(pre-synsptic potential) the higher the chances of storing  charges in the post-synaptic membrane for Post-synaptic potential. Thus if the duration is long, membrane potential of the post -synaptic neuron will be reduce, threshold will be be reached and  PSP will not be achieved

In summary temporal summation depends on the time frame of the occurrence of post-synaptic potential.

Over the course of a month, which of the following is most likely to describe an appropriate flow unit for a process analysis of a hospital?
A) The number of physicians
B) The number of beds
C) The square footage of the building
D) The number of patients

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is D) the number of patients

Explanation:

The number of patients who arrive in a hospital to get treated will determine the flow unit of the hospital. The more facilities and positive environment a hospital will have, the more will be the patients who arrive in that hospital. Hence, if we want to check how the working staff of a hospital is, we should look for the number of patients who visit the hospital. A hospital which has a positive environment and more facilities will attract more number of patients.

Which of the following is NOT a membrane-disrupting toxin?

A) A-B toxin
B) hemolysin
C) leukocidin
D) streptolysin O
E) streptolysin S

Answers

Answer:

Answer is A-B toxin.

Explanation:

A membrane-disrupting toxin is toxin that affect the cell membrane. The effect of its secretion  could be by interrupting the phospholipid layer or through pores formation on the membrane.

Membrane- disrupting toxins are regarded as  exotoxins. Examples are leukocidin and hemolysin which their effects cause leakages of the cytoplasmic content and lysis of the cell, through the formation of pores on the cell membrane.

The A-B toxin are produced by the proteins of pathogenic organisms such as the bacteria. Example is botulinum toxin.

Final answer:

The A-B toxin is not a membrane-disrupting toxin. A-B toxins work by having one subunit disrupt cellular processes, while the other aids entry into the cell. The other options are all examples of membrane-disrupting toxins.

Explanation:

The toxins listed in the question are all associated with disrupting cell membranes, except for the A-B toxin. A-B toxins are a type of bacterial toxin that consists of two parts or subunits. The A subunit is typically responsible for the toxic effect (it enters the cell and disrupts cellular processes), while the B subunit helps the A subunit enter the cell. Examples include diphtheria toxin and cholera toxin. On the other hand, hemolysin, leukocidin, streptolysin O, and streptolysin S are all types of membrane-disrupting toxins. They function by creating pores in cell membranes, leading to cell lysis and death.

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Sexual selection favors individuals with traits that increase their ability to obtain mates, such as mating calls in crickets. Using this example, propose a scenario where sexual selection could contribute to divergence in sympatric speciation.Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.male(s)female(s)cool forest floorwarm forest canopyVariation in ________ calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the _______ and a higher-pitched call in the _______. _______ in the _______ could start to prefer _______ with lower-pitched calls, and ________ in the _________ could start to prefer _________ with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.

Answers

Answer:

variation in male calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call in the warm forest canopy. Females in the forest floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.

Two parts of the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle affect the human host in the follow ways. The________ is responsible for the clinical symptoms of malaria in one human host, and the_______ releases spores into the human's blood that make it possible for the malaria to be passed on to a_______ and then to another human.
1. a. asexual portions
b. sexual portions
2. a. sexual portion
b. a sexual portion
3. a. moosquito
b. flea

Answers

Answer:

The answer to 1. is option a. asexual portion.

The answer to 2. is option b. sexual portion.

The answer to 3. Is option a. Mosquito

Explanation:

1. The asexual portion is the stage in the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle where the parasite develops in the erythrocytes causing accumulation of waste and toxic substances which ultimately end up in the bloodstream when the infected cells lyse. These factors acts to produce the symptoms experienced in malaria.

2. During the sexual portion of the Plasmodium cycle spores formed in the human host are released into the bloodstream which is usually picked up by an uninfected female anopheles mosquito when it takes a blood meal.

3. An infected mosquito passes the sporozoites to a new human host when it takes a blood meal and the cycle starts all over.

Complete the sentences with the correct terms. If one plant cell sends a signal to another plant cell by passing a small molecule to that cell through the plasmodesmata, this would be referred to as signaling. After a big meal, in those individuals who do not have Type I diabetes, the pancreas secretes insulin, which circulates through the body and binds to receptors on various cell types to signal to those cells that the body is in the "fed state." This is an example of Neurons secrete neurotransmitters that bind to target cells in the local environment and induce a response. While this is an example of paracrine signaling, it is more specifically referred to as During an allergic response, histamines are released by mast cells. These histamines bind to receptors on cells in the local environment only. This is an example of .

Answers

Explanation:

A. direct contact

Also known as juxtacrine signalling where cells in contact are next to each other. Here in this question plasmodesmata which acts as a channel through which molecules move in and out of nearby cells is an example of direct contact signalling.

B. endocrine signalling

In this signalling, signal is sent from one cell to other cells which is far away from the cell. The signal will be in a steady state. Insulin is secreted from Beta cells of pancreas to other target cells through blood. So, insulin secretion is an example for endocrine signalling.

C. synaptic signalling

The junction between nerve cells where transmission of signals is called synapse. And the paracrine signalling that occurs among the neuron cells can be specifically called as synaptic signalling.

D. paracrine signalling

If cells release signals and is passed to the local environment or immediate surrounding areas it is called paracrine signalling. The clue is itself in the question "cells on local environment only". So this histamine signalling to other cells follows paracrine signalling

You are given a prepared slide and are told that it is a streptobacillus. Without even looking at the slide under the microscope, you know which of the following? 1. The bacteria are linked together in chains. 2. The bacteria are spherical in shape. 3. The bacteria are in grape-like clusters. 4. The bacteria are rod-shaped. 5. The bacteria are Gram-negative.
A) 1,2.
B) 1,4.
C) 2,3.
D) 2,4.
E) 1,4,5.

Answers

Answer:

1 and 4

Explanation:

Streptobacilli are linked together in chains, the bacterium is gram positive and   the generally rod-shape. The genus could be aerobic ( required oxygen for their growth), falcultative anaerobe (in the absence of oxygen, they can switch to fermentation).

Select the reasons why viruses, prions, and viroids are not classified as living organisms. a. They are not able to reproduce independently. b. They are only motile in the early stages of growth. c. They do not use energy for metabolism of any kind. d. Their virulence is maintained by non-living cultures.

Answers

Answer: Viruses, prions, and viroids are not classified as living organisms because they are not able to reproduce independently, and they do not use energy for metabolism of any kind. Option A and C

Explanation:

Viruses, prions and viroids are not classified as living organisms because they are not made out of cells, they are not able to reproduce independently, and they do not use energy for metabolism of any kind.

Listed below are four adaptations of terrestrial vertebrates. Which is a characteristic only of truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any stage of the life cycle?
1. tetrapod locomotion
2. hearts with more than two chambers
3. lungs
4. amniotic eggs
5. All of these are essential for a completely terrestrial existence

Answers

Answer: Amniotic eggs

Explanation:

Amniotes are the characteristic feature of tetrapod vertebrates comprising the birds, mammals and reptiles. The amniotes lay their eggs on the land and retain the fertilized egg inside the mother.

They are differentiated from the from the organism which lay eggs in water. Anamniotes are the organism which are specialized to live in water and they cannot survive on land.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4

Final answer:

The production of amniotic eggs is a characteristic exclusive to truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any lifecycle stage. This feature helps in moisture conservation, crucial for life on land. Other listed adaptations are also observed in some aquatic species.

Explanation:

The characteristic exclusive to truly terrestrial animals with no need to return to water at any lifecycle stage is the production of amniotic eggs. Amniotic eggs contain a specialized structure called amnion, which helps in the conservation of moisture, a critical characteristic required for life on land. Even though tetrapod locomotion, hearts with more than two chambers, and lungs are adaptations that help in survival on land, they are also observed in some aquatic animals. For example, frogs have lungs and tetrapod locomotion but need water for their reproduction. Therefore, out of the listed options, only the amniotic eggs are characteristics strictly tied to terrestrial life.

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What are the roles of the parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system in maintaining everyday homeostasis?

Answers

Answer: The parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system play opposite roles

Explanation:

To ensure a stable internal environment (homeostasis) is achieved, the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS) play OPPOSITE roles.

The PNS dominate during relaxed periods and stimulates the

- liver to break down glycogen

- constriction of bladder to pass out urine

- increases heartbeat

- dilate pupils etc

The SNS, in contrast dominate in times of emergency or stressful periods and do the EXACT opposite of the processes mentioned above.

Thus homeostasis is maintained

Alex recently quit smoking. Now he has trouble paying attention at work and forgets simple things. Which neurotransmitter is most likely causing Alex's symptoms?
acetylcholine ( T/F)

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Tobacco is consumed during smoking which contains an addictive substance called Nicotine. Nicotine exerts its effect on the body by stimulating the acetylcholine receptors in the neurons. The stimulation of these receptors stimulates another neurotransmitter like glutamate, dopamine and GABA which produce addictive effects in humans.

Since the acetylcholine is involved in stimulating the other neurotransmitters therefore true is the correct answer.

Thus, true is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Alex's issues with attention and memory after quitting smoking are likely due to the interruption of acetylcholine neurotransmission, as nicotine from smoking acts as an agonist to acetylcholine. The absence of nicotine leads to decreased stimulation of acetylcholine receptors, which can cause these symptoms.

Explanation:

The neurotransmitter acetylcholine plays a significant role in memory and attention. When Alex quit smoking, his body was deprived of nicotine, which acts similarly to acetylcholine within the brain. As a result of quitting smoking, Alex could experience difficulty with attention and memory recall, symptoms typically linked with the disruption of acetylcholine neurotransmission.

Nicotine's agonistic action on acetylcholine receptors leads to increased arousal and reward while using tobacco products. However, sudden cessation leads to a decrease in the simulation of acetylcholine receptors, causing symptoms that can mimic those of conditions associated with acetylcholine undersupply, like Alzheimer's disease. Over time, these symptoms may improve as the body adjusts to the absence of nicotine.

Therefore, to answer the original question, it is likely that the neurotransmitter acetylcholine—or more specifically, the temporary imbalance caused by the cessation of nicotine that mimics acetylcholine—is influencing Alex's difficulties with attention and memory after quitting smoking.

Afterbirth includes all of the following EXCEPT: Question 3 choices Choice A.,fluid from the amniotic sac. Choice B.,the placenta. Choice C.,the umbilical cord. Choice D.,other membranes.

Answers

Answer:

A) fluid from the amniotic sac

Explanation:

Afterbirth involves the expulsion of placenta, umbilical cord and fetal membranes from the uterus followed by the birth of child. While the fluid from the amniotic sac is released before or during the labor which is also called water breaking.

Final answer:

The term afterbirth refers to the placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes that are expelled from the mother's body after the birth of a child.  Option A is likely the correct answer

Explanation:

The term afterbirth refers to what is expelled from the mother's body after the birth of a child, which is the third stage of childbirth. It typically includes the placenta, the umbilical cord, and other membranes that surrounded the baby in the womb, such as the amnion and chorion.

Regarding the options given in your question, all of them are generally included in the afterbirth EXCEPT for Choice A: Fluid from the amniotic sac. The amniotic fluid, which surrounds and cushions the baby during gestation, is generally expelled during the process of labor and delivery (often referred to as when a mother's 'water breaks') rather than after the birth itself. Hence, option A is likely the correct answer to your question.

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At the base of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, he identifies ______ as including the need for food and shelter.

Answers

Answer:

Physiological needs

Explanation:

Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs is a motivational theory in psychology that was propounded by Abraham Maslow. Man’s needs that drive their motivation are depicted on a pyramid shape diagram, with the most basic and fundamental needs placed at the bottom. From the bottom to the top, we have the following needs: physiological, safety, love, esteem, and lastly, self-actualization.

According to Maslow, physiological needs include food and shelter. These make up the fundamental needs that man seeks to satisfy before progressing upwards to meet other needs.

Adaptive radiations on archipelagos (island chains) represent some of the best-understood speciation events. Why is an ancestral species more likely to give rise to multiple descendent species on an archipelago than on an equal-sized area of mainland?A) Favorable mutations are more likely to arise on an archipelago as populations try to adapt to conditions on their specific island.B) By chance, different species will colonize different islands in a chain.C) Populations on nearby islands are more likely to be genetically isolated than populations that are equally close to one another on the mainland.

Answers

Answer:

Populations on nearby islands are more likely to be genetically isolated than populations that are equally close to one another on the mainland.

Explanation:

Adaptive radiation may be defined as the process of evolution in which the single ancestral specifies diversify to form the new multiple species. This is a kind of divergent evolution.

The adaptive radiation results in the process of speciation. The archipelago species is genetically isolated from the mainland. These species has similar characteristics that might be due to their closeness of the island to the mainland.

Thus, the correct answer is option (C).

Secretin is released in response to A. gastrin B. bolus C. hydrocholoric acid in chyme D. carbohydrates E. proteins

Answers

Answer:

The answer is optio C. hydrocholoric acid in chym

Explanation:

Secretin is a digestive hormone that regulates gastric acid secretion and pH level in the duodenum. It is produced in the upper part of the small intestine and released in response to hydrochloric acid in the stomach and duodenum.

A 1 ml sample of culture liquid contained 1000 viable bacterial cells. You serially diluted it twice, performing 10-fold or 1/10 dilutions into a final volume of 1 ml each time. As a result you have three tubes with 100, 10-1, or 10-2 of diluted culture. How many total cells are in the 1 ml of your 10-2 dilution tube?

Answers

Answer:

there are 10 viable bacterial cells in 1 ml in the 1/100 dilution tube

Explanation:

in 1ml there is 1000 viable bacterial cells → diluted with 9 ml of solvent (10 ml in total)→  1000 viable bacterial cells in 10 ml (fist tube)

now we take 1 ml of the first tube into the second empty tube → has 1000/10 = 100 viable bacterial cells on 1 ml → diluted with 9 ml of solvent (10 ml in total)→  100 viable bacterial cells in 10 ml (second tube)

then we take 1 ml of the second tube into the third empty tube → has 100/10 = 10 viable bacterial cells in 1 ml → diluted with 9 ml of solvent (10 ml in total)→  10 viable bacterial cells in 10 ml (third  tube)

therefore there are 10 viable bacterial cells in 1 ml in the 1/100 dilution tube

In non-regenerating tissues or in extremely severe wounds, what is the main disadvantage of the scar tissue that replaces the lost tissue?

Answers

Answer:

It is unable to perform the functions of the lost tissue.

Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact?

A) a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism
B) a temporal reproductive isolating mechanism
C) a gametic reproductive isolating mechanism
D) a postzygotic isolating mechanism

Answers

Answer:

Answer is A.  a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism.

Explanation:

A behavioral isolation mechanism can be described or explained as a mechanism whereby , mating rituals or signals of  species of an organism are different from one another , in order to prevent interbreeding or interest in courtship among them.

In this case , the organisms in the population may be similar, and have the tendency of interbreeding, but , because of their different mating or courtship signals, the interbreeding won't be possible.

This difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact due to function - A) a behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism

Behavioral reproductive isolating mechanism

Species are reproductively isolated by various mechanisms, one of which is due to the behavior. Singing is a mating call if the song is different mating will not happen and it is termed as a behavioral isolating mechanism for reproduction.

Temporal isolation is with respect to the time when different species mate during a different time. Postzygotic, zygotes become infertile after fusion. Gamete isolation two different gametes don't fuse and hence no formation of zygote.

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