Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
In a game theory, dominant strategy is defined as the best strategy among all the other strategies available. It is the course of action which pays the highest payoff to a player, it doesn't matter what other player chooses. All the players may not having the dominant strategies in all the games they have played but when they have dominant strategy, they blindly follow those strategies.
In game theory, a dominant strategy is a choice that offers the best possible outcome, irrespective of the decisions made by other players. This theory is demonstrated in the Prisoners' Dilemma where each player's dominant strategy is to confess, irrespective of the other's choice.
Explanation:In game theory, a dominant strategy corresponds to option (d): A player's strategy is independent of the choice made by his or her opponent. More specifically, a dominant strategy is an approach that a player will use regardless of the strategy adopted by the other player(s).
Consider the described Prisoners' Dilemma scenario. Prisoner A, for example, will have an incentive to confess whether Prisoner B chooses to confess or not. This decision to confess is identified as the dominant strategy because it is the best option for A regardless of the strategy pursued by B. The corresponding reason applies to Prisoner B's decision, i.e., B also has a dominant strategy to confess irrespective of what A will do.
This scenario exemplifies that a dominant strategy involves a choice that offers the best possible outcome for a player, given any choice made by the other player(s).
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The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) makes it illegal for US citizens to bribe high ranking foreign officials to get new business. A violation can have a criminal penalty that involves up to five years in prison. Suppose that a whistleblower in the company alerts the FBI about Phil and Dales's plan. The FBI, without a warrant, searches the company's offices and finds evidence that Phil and Dale violated the FCPA. Which of the following is true?
a. The evidence would most likely be able to be used in a prosecution against Phil and Dale.
b. The evidence most likely would not be able to be used in a prosecution against Phil and Dale, because of the Fourth Amendment to the Constitution.
c. The evidence most likely would not be able to be used in a prosecution against Phil and Dale, due to the Miranda rule.
d. The evidence would never be able to be used in a prosecution against Phil and Dale, due to the exclusionary rule.
Answer: The evidence most likely would not be able to be used in a prosecution against Phil and Dale, because of the Fourth Amendment to the Constitution.
Explanation:
The FOURTH AMENDMENT of the Constitution of the United States protects citizens from unlawful searches by law enforcement agencies without a warrant.
If this does happen, any evidence found during such an exercise is inadmissible in court.
When Angie went out for dinner with Zack, her boyfriend, she was embarrassed with his behavior. Zack complained when the waiter brought out the wrong order, but the waiter did not respond appropriately to his complaint. As a result, Zack started yelling at him, calling him names, and demanding to see the manager. Zack's behavior at the restaurant is an example of _____.
The correct answer is rancorous revenge
Spiteful people permanently hold a piece of burning coal. They do this with the intention of throwing that coal on those who have offended them at the most unthinkable moment.
However, those who end up getting burned are not the others, but themselves. For they hold such an ember for a long time, burning themselves with this source of anger, hatred and malaise.
Although some resentful person we know comes to mind right now, there is one aspect that we cannot overlook. This dimension, this deep feeling (and, without a doubt, self-destructive) is not experienced exclusively by those who do not know how to practice the healthy exercise of forgiveness.
Polyamorous couples often report that instead of feeling jealous when observing their partner flirt with someone else, they experience a sense of joy and giddiness. What is this emotion that they feel called:____________.
Answer:
Compersion
Explanation:
Compersion describes the warm romantic feeling of joy and giddiness associated with the knowledge that one's romantic partner is having another sexual or romantic relation. It is a complete opposite of jealousy and it its common among people practicing polyamory. Polyamory involves engaging in a sexual relationship with many partner with the knowledge and consent of each partners involved
"The emotion that polyamorous couples often feel when observing their partner fli-rt with someone else, characterized by joy and giddiness, is called ""compersion.""
Compersion is a term used within the polyamorous community to describe the positive feelings one might experience when a partner is enjoying another relationship. It is the opposite of jealousy and is characterized by happiness and excitement for the partner's happiness and fulfillment. This emotion is not limited to polyamorous individuals but can be felt by anyone who is secure and supportive of their partner's joy, even when it comes from outside the primary relationship. Compersion acknowledges the complexity of human emotions and the capacity for love and happiness to be abundant and not solely dependent on a single partner or relationship dynamic."
If you have just heard the word vegetable, you can quickly make judgments about the word carrot; in contrast, your judgments about the word mushroom take much longer. According to the prototype approach, this observation shows that:_______.a. family resemblance is stronger for prototypes than for non-prototypes.
b. prototypes are items that have the smallest number of connection weights.
c. after priming, people respond faster to prototypes than to non-prototypes.
d. basic-level categories are judged more quickly than superordinate-level categories.
Answer: C. after priming, people respond faster to prototypes than to non-prototypes.
Explanation: Memory training technique whereby an association is made with a stimulus in memory is called priming. The associated stimulus affects or determines our interpretation of the stimulus. It also aids an individual's ability to retrieve information from memory.
After priming, responding to closely related samples or associations is faster than non-related samples.
In the context above, faster judgment could be made about carrot which is a root vegetable having just heard the word vegetable. Mushrooms and vegetables aren't prototypes so it might take longer to make a pronouncement.
Answer:
c. after priming, people respond faster to prototypes than to non-prototypes.
Explanation:
If you have just heard the word vegetable, you can quickly make judgments about the word carrot; in contrast, your judgments about the word mushroom take much longer. According to the prototype approach, this observation shows that after priming, people respond faster to prototypes than to non-prototypes. In prototype approach to semantic memory, individuals responds faster to items that are similar or captured in an existing prototype. For example, carrot is captured in the prototype vegetables while mushroom is not, thus individuals will decide slowly when the word mushroom is mentioned.
Troy and Allan are in the mood to have a hamburger for lunch. Troy wants to grill the hamburger outside instead of cooking it on top of the stove because he says he likes the taste of a grilled hamburger more than one cooked on top of the stove. The difference in taste Troy prefers is actually caused by the smell of the charcoal embedded into the hamburger. This is an example of:_______________
Answer: Sensory interaction
Explanation:
Sensory interaction is defined as interaction or link happening between senses which impact each other after interacting.In this phenomena, a single sense can influence functioning of other sense.Example- runny nose can impact as difficultly in smelling things.
According to the question, example of sensory interaction is presented as grilled hamburger's smell is making interaction with the taste of hamburger and influencing it.Thus, it creates difference for Troy between taste of cooked and grilled hamburger.
The main function of the federal Office of War Information was to A. collect money for the war effort through the sale of war bonds. B. boost the morale of troops by sending popular entertainers overseas. C. generate support for the war effort and boost morale through the media. D. intercept enemy intelligence and relay it to the troops on the frontlines.
Answer:
the answer is
Explanation:
generate support for the war effort and boost morale through the media.
<3 hoped it helppppp
The primary function of the federal Office of War Information was to generate support for the war effort and boost morale through the media. It used various propaganda strategies, notwithstanding, the sale of war bonds and financing war wasn't its main task.
Explanation:The main function of the federal Office of War Information was to generate support for the war effort and boost morale through the media. For instance, amid World War I and II, the U.S. government launched a series of aggressive propaganda campaigns to maintain and grow support for the war. These propaganda efforts included suspicions representations of enemy troops and the use of marketing campaigns to create a linkage between patriotism and frugality or personal sacrifice. It is essential to note that although selling war bonds and financing the war were vital parts of the government's strategy, these tasks were not the primary duty of the Office of War Information.
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From 1967 to 1986, every national commission that studied crime and police in America maintained that a _________ would help the police do their job better.
Answer: College degree
Explanation: It was a common notion or believe among all national commission that studied Crime and police in America between 1967 to 1986 that police officers with college degree will do a better job than those without college degree. With the belief that college level officers will show a greater level of creativity, problem solving skill and also exhibit a higher degree of professionalism by avoiding the use of force to gain compliance.
Answer:
College Degree
Explanation:
American maintained that a College Degree would help the police do their job better because an Educated police with College degree will be able to know the rules and regulation that govern the criminal act and as well undergo important training which will help him gain experiences and enable him perform better on his job or leading to better performance
A small number of the contributors to any field typically produce a disproportionately large share of its accomplishments despite the fact that their less productive professional colleagues are fairly comparable in raw ability. This best illustrates the importance of:
Answer:Achievement motivation
Explanation: What are the characteristics of achievement motivation?
High-achievement motivation is that motivation which drives individuals to seek high level of achievements consistently and they are always seeking way to master hight standards skills. These are individuals who are highly driven irrespective of their number they will drive themselves to high level of success because they are very competitive, persistent and hard working . High achievement motivation tend to push against all odds to make sure they obtain the goal they have set.
During __________, managers identify important factors in the environment and then forecast a range of alternative responses to the most likely high-impact contingencies, focusing on the worst case.
Answer: Contingency planning
Explanation: Contingency planning could be described as alternative arrangement or plan which is devised or put in place to take care or handle the outcome of a future event. Contingency plan is usually different from the actual plan or strategy devised to tackle or mange a situation or condition,rather, the Contingency plan is devised to handle the possible failure of the actual plan or handle one of different possible outcome of a future event, placing greater value or energy on the worst possible outcome.
In management, Contingency planning involves deliberation on the important environmental factors and identify range of possible responses to the most likely high impact options or scenario placing greater emphasis on the worst case.
Final answer:
Strategic planning in business management involves identifying important factors in the environment and forecasting alternative responses to potential contingencies.
Explanation:
In the field of business management, the process described in the question is called strategic planning.
During strategic planning, managers identify important factors in the environment and then forecast a range of alternative responses to the most likely high-impact contingencies, focusing on the worst case. This allows them to be prepared for potential risks and uncertainties in the future.
For example, a company may analyze the market trends, competitors, and potential disruptions to develop different scenarios and determine the best course of action for each scenario.
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964: a.requires employers with government contracts to engage in affirmative action. b.forbids discrimination in all areas of employment relationship. c.limits union power and requires organizations to bargain collectively with legally formed unions. d.outlaws discrimination against people older than forty years.
Answer:
b.forbids discrimination in all areas of employment relationship.
Explanation:
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is a civil right and labor law that prohibits all form of discrimination in all areas of employment relations, the act prohibits employers/businesses with more than 15 from discriminating against employees on the basis of sex, race, religion, national origin and color.
_______ is planning done by middle managers to determine what contributions their departments or similar work units can make with their given resources during the next 6 to 24 months.
Answer:
The correct answer is d) Tactical planning.
Explanation:
Companies or institutions often use different strategies to achieve their objectives, they generally use strategic or tactical planning.
For example, tactical planning is the one that the middle-level manager uses to structure the actions that his department will carry out in the short term.
Tactical planning is characterized by being flexible and having a short period of execution, this is useful for strategic planning since, through tactical planning, actions that help achieve the objectives of strategic planning can be addressed.
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It is impossible for a valid argument to have A. true premises and a false conclusion. B. true premises and a true conclusion. C. false premises and a false conclusion. D. none of the above
Answer:
A). True premises and a false conclusion.
Explanation:
As per the question, it is impossible for a valid argument to have 'true premises and false conclusion' because such an argument would be considered 'invalid'. Such a combination makes the argument invalid due to the failure of logic as the premises in an argument primarily functions to support an argument and its conclusion and thus, true premises cannot support a false conclusion. However, the vice versa(false premises and true conclusion) could be possible as premises may or may not justify the truth of the conclusion but if the premises are true, it becomes impossible for the conclusion to be false logically. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
A valid argument cannot have true premises and a false conclusion; this makes answer choice A the correct one. Arguments with false premises or a true conclusion can still be valid, depending on the argument's structure.
Explanation:In the context of arguments and their validity, it's important to understand what makes an argument valid or invalid. The student has asked whether it is impossible for a valid argument to have true premises and a false conclusion, true premises, and a true conclusion, false premises, and a false conclusion, or none of the above.
The answer is A. true premises and a false conclusion. This is because a valid argument, by definition, is one where if the premises are true, the conclusion must also be true. It is not a valid argument if the premises are true, and the conclusion is false.
On the other hand, a valid argument can have false premises and a false conclusion or false premises and a true conclusion. These are not indicators of the argument's validity, only of the truth value of its components. Arguments with true premises and a true conclusion are also possible and would obviously be valid assuming the argument structure logically supports the conclusion from the premises.
When 68-year-old Mrs. Blake had a flat tire on a fairly isolated highway, she received help from a passerby in less than 10 minutes. One year later, when she had a flat tire on a busy freeway, an hour elapsed before someone finally stopped to offer assistance. Mrs. Blake's experience best illustrates
Full question:
When 68-year-old mrs. blake had a flat tire on a fairly isolated highway, she received from a passerby in less than 10 minutes. one year later, when she had a flat tire on a busy freeway, an hour elapsed before someone finally stopped to offer assistance. mrs. blake’s experience best illustrates
a) the fundamental attribution error.
b) the mere exposure effect.
c) group polarization.
d) the bystander effect.
Answer:
Mrs. Blake's experience best illustrates the bystander effect
Explanation:
The title bystander effect relates to the aspect in which the higher the number of people being, the small suitable people are to support a person in trouble. When an impasse transpires, bystanders are more prone to hold action if there are fewer or no other observers.
The cultural and behavioral insensibility explained by the bystander effect can be overcome with apprehension and in some cases specific training. By personalizing and individualizing your inquiry, it grows much more troublesome for people to turn you down.
Mrs. Blake's differing experiences with receiving help on an isolated highway versus a busy freeway illustrate the bystander effect, where the presence of more people actually decreases the likelihood of any one individual offering help due to diffused responsibility.
Explanation:Mrs. Blake's experiences on the isolated highway versus the busy freeway best illustrate the phenomenon known as the bystander effect. This social psychological phenomenon implies that individuals are less likely to offer help to a victim when other people are present. The more witnesses there are, the more responsibility is diffused, leading to a decrease in the likelihood that any one person will step forward to offer assistance.
This effect was studied extensively following the case of Kitty Genovese, where multiple witnesses did not intervene in an emergency situation. In Mrs. Blake's case, the isolated highway scenario might have triggered an immediate sense of responsibility in the passerby who stopped to help, as he was likely the only witness. Conversely, on the busy freeway, the presence of many potential helpers created a diffusion of responsibility, leading to a delayed response to help Mrs. Blake.
According to Noel’s first characteristic of ethnocentrism, it is not essential, in regard to the maintenance of social solidarity and cohesion of a group, to observe the norms and laws and honor the sacred symbols. True or false?
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Ethnocentrism is concerned with the spreading of one's cultural significance to other cultures and also to maintain a scene of social solidarity and cohesion for groups of socially observed norms. The laws that it exists in any degree of the people that tends to sort themselves along with line groups and identify the characters that are different.The Army Corps of Engineers has proposed the construction of a dam that will be of substantial benefit in Tennessee in terms of economic development. The dam will also destroy the natural habitat of an endangered species: the snail darter. The project:___________
a. does not require an EIS since the EPA is not involved in the project.
b. will require an EIS since the Army is involved.
c. cannot be completed under the Environmental Protection Act.
d. none of the above
Answer:
The correct answer is : b. will require an EIS since the Army is involved.
Explanation:
It refers to the document that has to be prepared in order to describe the effects and consequences of proposed activities on the environment. It provides an understanding of the potential consequences of the proposed project. It offers alternative activities and actions and permits us to identify positive and negative effects of it.
When exploring if the poverty line is set at a realistic level, __________.a. conservatives argue that the poverty line is set at too low level, noting that they believe total needs from spending on food is incorrect b. liberals argue that the poverty line is set at too high a level, noting that the USDA itself estimates that only 10% of the persons spending the amount allowed in the economy food budget are able to get a nutritionally adequate diet. c. progressives argue that the poverty line needs to be dismantled, no baseline should be set for defining poverty. d. None of the above
Answer
d) None of the above
Explanation
All the options, but d, are incorrect because they misinterpret different political stances with their opinion on whether the poverty line is set a realistic level. Below, you will find an explanation of why each option is wrong.
a) "Conservatives argue that the poverty line is set at too low level, noting that they believe total needs from spending on food is incorrect."
Conservative are aligned to laissez-faire economics, but not to the extent of liberals. This means that conservatives would be more aligned to option b, believing that it is the individual´s duty to ensure his/her wellbeing and therefore, it would be important to reduce government benefits.
Option "a)" is more aligned with progressive political standpoint.
b) "Liberals argue that the poverty line is set at too high a level, noting that the USDA itself estimates that only 10% of the persons spending the amount allowed in the economy food budget are able to get a nutritionally adequate diet."
Liberals believe in laissez-faire economics. This means that there should not be a poverty line, as this may create distortions on free market. Option "b)" is more aligned with conservative stances.
c) "progressives argue that the poverty line needs to be dismantled, no baseline should be set for defining poverty"
Progressive stances believe the State should intervene the market to correct its inherent tendency to produce inequalities and wealth concentration. In other words, the State should ensure mechanism for wealth re-distribution that the market alone cannot provide. This means that they would never agree with dismantle the poverty line, as it is a mechanism of wealth redistribution. This stance is more aligned with liberals.
Travis is a child with above-average intelligence and is quite advanced in his speech. He engages his parents in long-winded discussions on one rather narrow topic. However, he is not interested in making friends. All these symptoms point to the fact that he is most likely to have:____.
All these symptoms point to the fact that he is most likely to have: Asperger's syndrome.
Explanation:
Asperger syndrome (AS) is a disorder which affects the development of brain in the person. The person with AS disorder may face difficulties in social interaction and nonverbal communication. They may also have repetition in patterns of behavior and interests.
The genetic or environmental factors are likely to be the cause of Asperger syndrome. This person down with this syndrome may face problems in development of brain.
The person affected with Asperger syndrome can be given communication training and behavioral therapy to overcome social difficulties.
The function of a second messenger system is to The function of a second messenger system is to isolate the response to the inside of a cell. keep calcium involved in these responses. amplify the response of the first messenger. facilitate the process of covalent modification of a protein. buffer a cells response to a ligand.
Answer:
The function of a second messenger system is to amplify the response of the first messenger.
Explanation:
Second messengers may serve to amplify or prolong the effects of a first messenger, initiate signaling cascades in the cell, or have other effects.
A second messenger system amplifies the response initiated by a first messenger in a cell, leading to significant cellular responses. This is accomplished through a cascading event inside the cell.
Explanation:The primary function of a second messenger system in a cell is to amplify the response of the first messenger. A first messenger is a hormone or other molecule that reaches a cell and binds to a specific receptor on the cell's surface. This triggers the release or production of a second messenger inside the cell, such as cyclic AMP or calcium ions. Here, the second messenger will initiate a series of events within the cell that lead to the intended response, such as changes in gene expression or activation of certain cellular processes. This cascading system allows for a small amount of first messenger to create a significant response inside the cell.
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Unlike Bowenians, experiential therapists will ________________ then behave in alternately provocative and supportive ways in order to help families learn to express honest emotion
Unlike Bowenians, experiential therapists will raise the level of anxiety in the family then behave in alternately provocative and supportive ways in order to help families learn to express honest emotion.
Explanation:
Bowen family systems theory is a theory which views the family as an emotional unit. The members in the family are intensely connected emotionally in nature.
Experiential therapy is a therapeutic technique which is used to re-enact and re-experience emotional situations from past and recent relationships. Some ways that are followed for the therapy are acting, role-playing, arts and crafts, music and animal care.
The main aim of experiential therapy is to inter-connect the family members and maintain their individuation.
Which of the following is generally considered a best practice while handling documentary evidence? a. Photocopies are always preferable to original documents as evidence, as the original could be tampered with. b. Copies of the document should not be made and only the original document should be used during investigation and trial. c. Generally, a summary of the original document should be made for investigation and trial. d. Copies of the document should be used during the investigation and trial and should be kept in the same file where the original is kept.
Copies of the document should be used during the investigation and trial and should be kept in the same file where the original is kept. This is the best practice while handling documentary evidence.
Option: D
Explanation:
When documentary evidences are being handled by someone copies of the original document should be made and used during the investigation and kept in the same file with the original one. If summary of the original document made there might be lack of main investigation point. So, take care of it.
If copies not prepared then by any chance original document may lost and will ruin the whole investigation process. So, it is very necessary to prepare a copy of original document and use of that for investigation.
Federal courts can hear only the following kinds of cases: 1) Disputes regarding federal laws or constitutional issues and 2) Disputes between residents of different states where the amount of money in controversy is greater than $75,000.a. Trueb. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Federal court jurisdictions only hear cases in which the United States is a party, cases involving violations of the Constitution or federal law, crimes on federal land, and bankruptcy cases. Federal courts also hear cases based on state law that involve parties from different states in which the amount in controversy is more than $75,000.
Adolf Hitler saw political opportunity in Germany because ______. Select all that apply. Germany, along with the world, was in a Depression. World War I had heaped unbearable levels of guilt and debt onto Germany. high inflation and rampant unemployment left people feeling hopeless. Germany's war machine was revving up its production. churches welcomed him into their congregations
Answer:
he was smart but used his power in a bad way
Adolf Hitler saw political opportunity in Germany due to economic despair following WWI, impact of Great Depression, and high inflation and unemployment. These factors led to widespread public dissatisfaction, enhancing the appeal of the Nazi Party, and ultimately Hitler's assumption of power.
Adolf Hitler saw political opportunity in Germany primarily because of three major factors: Germany's economic despair post-World War I, the Great Depression influencing global economics, and the high inflation and unemployment causing widespread hopelessness among the German population. Germany was reeling under the heavy war reparations demanded by the Versailles Treaty, leading to unbearable debt levels, while the Weimar Republic's policies resulted in hyperinflation.
Hitler and the Nazi Party manipulated these dire conditions by promulgating propaganda that blamed various groups, including Jews and communists, for the nation's misfortunes. Hitler's charismatic oratory skills and the Nazi's smart use of propaganda helped them win significant representation in the Reichstag. This political success led to the eventual appointment of Hitler as Chancellor setting Germany on the path to a totalitarian state and paving the way for World War II.
The personal satisfaction people feel when they receive recognition for their efforts is considered to be a(n) __________ reward. intrinsic physiological extrinsic external
Answer: intrinsic reward.
Explanation: Intrinsic motivation is defined as performing an action or behavior because you enjoy the activity itself and the inspiration for acting on intrinsic motivation can be found in the action itself. However, intrinsic qualities of something have to do with its nature. In this scenario given, the personal satisfaction people feel when they receive recognition for their efforts is considered to be an intrinsic reward.
True or false: Businesses are generally not allowed to deduct losses incurred with the sale or disposal of business assets. These losses must be used to offset any gains produced by the sale of other business assets or carried forward to offset future gains.
Answer:
False .Explanation:
Business losses on the sale or disposal of business assets are generally deductible at the end of the financial year. This is usually done because when businesses dispose an asset as it has become useless or has no further use or has no asset value for re-sale, the disposal will be treated as a loss equal to the balance of the expenditure it has incurred at the time when bought. However, long-term capital gains tax rate will be applied if the asset was used for more than a year.Someone who is very good at learning new things but does not have a lot of general knowledge is high in ________ intelligence. However, someone who knows lots of things but is not very good at learning to do new things is higher in ________ intelligence.
Answer: Fluid , Crystallized
Explanation:
Fluid intelligence is defined as ability to solve an issue through logic and skills in new situation where reference of already persisting information is not considered.
Crystallized intelligence is defined as usage of previous stored knowledge and experience for solving any issue or problem.
According to the question, person who has ability to learn new things without much general knowledge has high fluid intelligence. Person who tends to have goof knowledge and experience but low ability in learning new situation has high crystallized intelligence.
Question Options:
A. fluid; crystallized
B. general; crystallized
C. fluid; creative
D. crystallized; fluid
Answer: FLUID; CRYSTALLIZED
Explanation: Raymond Cattell a Psychologist classified general intelligence into fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence.
He explained fluid intelligence as the ability to solve new/original reasoning problems and crystallized intelligence as the ability to deduce secondary relational abstractions.
Example of fluid intelligence include solving puzzles. Example of crystallized intelligence is knowing The temperature a steak reaches well done
The government has no right to spy on its citizens because citizens have a right to privacy. And this is true because such a right is guaranteed by the Constitution-which follows from the fact that our founding fathers recognized the sanctity of individual privacy against the intrusive power of the government. And of course this is true because the government has no right to spy on its citizens. A. No fallacy. B. Red herring. C. Missing the point. D. Begging the question.
Answer:
D). Begging the question.
Explanation:
A fallacy is demonstrated as the error or flaw in reasoning due to a deceptive belief that leads to ruin the soundness and validity of the argument.
'Begging the question' fallacy is elucidated as the logical flaw in an argument in which the premise that should function to support the claim rather assumes the validity or truth of the conclusion.
In the given example, the premise('right is guaranteed by the Constitution') is assuming the legitimacy or authenticity of the conclusion('the government has no right to spy on its citizens') instead of merely supporting it. This creates a lack of logical validity in the argument and thus, the credibility of the argument is spoiled. Thus, option D is the correct answer.
Abdul has volunteered to participate in an experiment evaluating the effectiveness of aspirin. Neither he nor the experimenters know whether the pills he takes during the experiment contain aspirin or are merely placebos. The investigators are apparently making use of ____.
Answer:
B). The double blind procedure.
Explanation:
'The double blind procedure' is demonstrated as the procedure or method of experiment in which both the experimenter as well as the subjects or participants of the experiment are 'blind to' or 'unaware' of the crucial/significant aspects like hypothesis of the experiment
As per the question, the 'double blind procedure' is being employed by the investigators as neither the subject of the experiment nor the experimenter know about the 'experiment containing aspirin or mere placebos' which would help in producing the objective and unbiased deductions. Thus, option B is the correct answer.
The investigators are making use of blind or double-blind experimental design.
Explanation:The investigators are apparently making use of blind or double-blind experimental design. In a blind experiment, either the subject or the experimenter does not know which treatment he is receiving. This helps eliminate bias in the results. In a double-blind experiment, both the subject and the experimenter do not know which treatment is being given, making the experiment even more reliable and reducing the risk of bias.
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With the exception of a few countries that have adopted a free market policy stance, an increasing number of countries are __________________________.
Answer:
Command markets.
Explanation:
In a greater or lesser extent, a command market is system where a centralized body makes decision of goods and services. The most radical form of command market is a planned economy, a model used in the Soviet Union and eastern European country after World War II.
Which is TRUE of only children relative to children with siblings? a. They are more selfish. b. They are smarter and more mature. c. They are more likely to be ""spoiled brats."" d. They are more egotistical.
Answer:
I believe it is c
Insofar as government public policy is concerned, the best way to battle unemployment would be __________________.to minimize recessionsto maximize unemployment paymentsto maximize unemployment insurance durationto minimize labor unions
Recession can be define as the way in the economic activity of a country decline.
Therefore the best way to battle or overcome unemployment is to minimize recession because recessions lead to unemployment.
In a situation where a company or business owner are unable to generate revenue or make money they won't be able to employ workers due to the economic growth which has decreased and it can sometimes lead the company or business owners to layoff already employed workers in order to reduce costs .
Therefore the way out to reduce unemployment during recession is to MINIMIZE RECESSION doing this will help empolyed more workers instead of laying the workers off.