Answer:
You did not provide a figure, but you can refer to the attached picture and match it up with your figure.
The heart has 4 chambers. It has the left and right Atrium (plural is atria) and the left and right ventricle.
The blood FROM the body going towards the heart is deoxygenated. It empties into the RIGHT ATRIUM. From there, it goes through the tricuspid valve then empties into the RIGHT VENTRICLE. The right ventricle then pumps the blood up into the pulomonary artery, and goes towads the lungs to be oxygenated. The oxygenated blood then leaves the lungs via the pumonary vein and it empties the blood into the LEFT ATRIUM. From there the blood goes through the bicuspid valve and pours into the LEFT VENTRICLE. The left ventricle pumps the blood up the aorta and from there, it goes to the different parts of the body.
In summary:
BODY ---> RIGHT ATRIUM ---> RIGHT VENTRICLE ---> LEFT ATRIUM ---> LEFT VENTRICLE
Take note though that this is the pathway with regards to ONLY the chambers.
how can molecular biology be used to trace the process of evolution?
Answer:
Explanation: At the molecular level, the universal genetic code and homologous molecules provide evidence of common descent.
Final answer:
Molecular biology can be used to trace the process of evolution by analyzing the molecules and DNA found in living things. Molecular clocks calculate differences in DNA sequences to determine relatedness and divergence time. Molecular biology provides features that reflect evolutionary lineage and ancestral relationships.
Explanation:
Molecular biology can be used to trace the process of evolution by analyzing the molecules and DNA found in living things. Scientists use molecular clocks, which calculate the number of differences in DNA sequences or amino acid sequences between species, to determine how closely related they are and when they diverged from a common ancestor. The fewer differences, the more recently two species split and began to evolve separately. Molecular biology also provides characteristics that are unlikely to be shaped by natural selection, allowing researchers to trace ancestry based on shared features.
Edgar is stranded on an island surrounded by an ocean of salt water. He is thirsty, but he knows that it is a bad idea to drink salt water.
How could Edgar separate the salt out of the salt-water mixture?
A.
pour the mixture through a screen
B.
use chromatography
C.
evaporate off the water
D.
use a magnet to attract the salt
C) evaporate off the water
Which of the following is NOT a function of the stem of a plant?
a
storage of nutrients
b
absorption of water from soil
c
structural support for the plant
d
transport of water from roots to leaves
Answer:
Absorption of water from soil
Explanation:
That's what the roots do :)
Absorption of water from soil is not a function of the stem of a plant.
What is Stem?In botany, the stem is the axis of the plant that produces leaves, buds, and shoots that terminate in roots. The stem transports nutrients, water, and minerals to other plant parts. It can also store nutrients, and green stems can even manufacture their own food.
The principal vertical stalk in most plants is the stem, though it can vary in appearance and resemblance to other plant parts (e.g., underground stems may look like roots).
The stem's main jobs are to support the leaves, carry nutrients and water to the leaves so that photosynthesis can turn them into useful substances, and then carry those substances from the leaves to other sections of the plant, including the roots.
Therefore, Absorption of water from soil is not a function of the stem of a plant.
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what is the name for a mathematical sentence that shows two terms that are not necessarily equal
Answer:
the answer is: an inequality
Which of the following equations represents the right chemical process that occurs in photosynthesis?
A. Six molecules of carbon dioxide plus sugar plus light energy converts six molecules of carbon and six molecules of oxygen.
B. Six molecules of water plus six molecules of hydrogen plus six molecules of oxygen converts light energy plus sugar.
C. Six molecules of carbon dioxide plus six molecules of water plus light energy converts six molecules of oxygen plus sugar.
D. Six molecules of oxygen plus six molecules of water plus light energy converts six molecules of carbon dioxide plus sugar.
Answer:
C. Six molecules of carbon dioxide plus six molecules of water plus light energy converts to six molecules of oxygen plus sugar.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is the process in which green plants manufacture their food in the presence of carbondioxide and water using light energy. The product of photosynthesis is usually sugar and oxygen gas.
The equation is given below:
6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy ⇒C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂
sugar
This is the equation of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is used by green plants which are autotrophs to manufacture their food.
"The correct option is C. Six molecules of carbon dioxide plus six molecules of water plus light energy converts to six molecules of oxygen plus sugar.
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy, usually from the sun, into chemical energy in the form of glucose (sugar). The overall chemical equation for photosynthesis can be written as follows:
[tex]\[ 6CO_2 + 6H_2O + \text{light energy} \rightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \][/tex]
This equation shows that six molecules of carbon dioxide (COa‚) react with six molecules of water (HaO) in the presence of light energy to produce one molecule of glucose (C₆Hâ‚â‚‚O₆) and six molecules of oxygen (Oâ‚‚).
Let's analyze the options given:
A. This option incorrectly suggests that sugar is a reactant rather than a product.
B. This option incorrectly includes hydrogen (Hâ‚‚) as a reactant and omits carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚).
D. This option incorrectly suggests that oxygen (Oâ‚‚) is a reactant rather than a product and omits carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚).
Option C correctly identifies the reactants as carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚) and water (Hâ‚‚O), and the products as oxygen (Oâ‚‚) and glucose (sugar), with light energy being the driving force for the reaction."
What is the connection between virus prevalence and animal populations?
Rinderpest disease is caused by a virus that affects hoofed animals, including cattle and wildebeest. In the 1950s, a cattle vaccination program was implemented to eradicate the disease in the Serengeti, and this led to dramatic changes in the populations of wildebeest and other species. The figure shows the number of wildebeest in the Serengeti ecosystem (shaded circles, left y-axis) and the prevalence (i.e., percentage) of individuals infected by rinderpest disease (unshaded squares and triangles, right y-axis) from 1958 to 2003.
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Susan Wondered why she heard less crickets in the fall than during the summer.She decided to investigate how temperature affects the chirping of crickets.Susan hypothesized that if the temperature is decreased, then the number of chirps would decrease, then the number of chirps would decrease.She took 10 crickets and 10 containers and place a cricket in each one.She recorded the number of chirps each cricket made in one minute at a room temperature.Susan gave all the crickets the same amount of food, water,and same type of container.
Independed Variable:
dependent variable:
Hypothesis:
constants:
repeated trails:
control:
Answer:
Independent Variable: temperature
dependent variable: chirps
Hypothesis: the lower the temperatures the less chirps
constants: temperature or food and water
repeated trails: success and failure
control:the experiment
what is the next step in muscle contraction after the actin changes shape?
Answer:
The myosin filament or more precisely the myosin head can now bind to the actin forming the cross bridges followed by a power stroke during which actin slides over myosin.
Explanation:
The muscle contraction can be explained by sliding filament theory bu Huxley and Huxley. The two muscle proteins which take part in muscle contraction are myosin and actin.
Myosin: It is a hexameric protein. Each monomer is called meromyosin. Each meromyosin has two important parts, a globular head with a short arm and a tail. The head forms cross bridges with the actin filament. Myosin head acts as ATPase enzyme. When ATP binds, head acts as enzyme hydrolyzing the ATP to produce energy. The head also has the site for binding of actin.
Actin filament: It contains three proteins, filamentous actin, tropomyosin and troponin. Filamentous actin contains active site for myosin binding but at rest, tropmyosin covers the myosin binding site. This prevents the cross bridge formation. Tropomyosin are held in place by troponin molecules.
When calcium is available, the binding of calcium to a TpC sub-unit of troponin causes the shifting of tropomyosin-troponin complex. Now actin can attach to myosin head and slide over myosin.
The actin filaments slide over the myosin filament by the the formation of cross bridges and during this process the I-band gets reduced whereas the A band remain the same. The lengths of actin and myosin filaments remain unchanged.
Answer:
actin changes shape
Explanation:
ap ex
True or false
the closer the gene sequence matches between species, the less related they are and the further back in time you will find a common ancestor?
False. The closer the matching percentage is the earlier you will find a common ancestor.
Messanger RNA (mRNA) carries the instructions to a particular __;to ribosomes. The process of producing mRNA from instructions in the DNA is called __.
Durning transaction, the DNA molecule unwinds and separates, exposing the nitrogenous bases. Free RNA ___ pair with the exposed bases. There is no ___ (t) in RNA. ____ (U) pairs with adenine (a) instead. RNA contains the suger ___ Instead of deoxyribose. The mRNA molecule is completed by the formation of ___ between the RNA ___, and it then separated from DNA. The mRNA molecule is a ___ strand, unlike DNA.
mRNA carries genetic instructions from DNA to ribosomes, a process called transcription. Through this process, free RNA nucleotides pair with exposed DNA bases. Unique characteristics of RNA include the presence of uracil instead of thymine, ribose as its sugar, and its single-stranded nature.
Explanation:
Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic instruction that is transcribed from a specific gene in the DNA to the ribosomes. This process of producing mRNA from the DNA is called transcription. During transcription, the DNA molecule unwinds and separates, thereby exposing the nitrogenous bases. The free RNA nucleotides pair with the exposed bases. Unlike DNA, in RNA there is no thymine (T). Instead, uracil (U) pairs with adenine (A). RNA contains the sugar ribose instead of deoxyribose that is in DNA. The mRNA molecule is completed by the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the RNA nucleotides, and it then separates from the DNA. Unlike DNA, which is double-stranded, the mRNA molecule is a single strand.
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What statement best compares photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
A.
Photosynthesis breaks down sugars to release energy, while cellular respiration stores energy as sugars.
B.
Photosynthesis only takes place in the light, while cellular respiration takes place in the light and dark.
C.
Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration break down sugars to release chemical energy.
D.
Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration take place during the light and during the dark.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Photosynthesis only takes place in the light, while cellular respiration takes place in the light and dark.
https://youtu.be/xmfhKbmQhq0
Photosynthesis vs. Cellular Respiration Comparison
Answer:
Photosynthesis only takes place in the light, while cellular respiration takes place in the light and dark.
Explanation:
I found this really cool table of comparison, and second from the bottom it shows that Photosynthesis requires light while cellular respiration does not. This means it can occur in the light or dark (:
3 things your body does everyday which require energy
Our bodies use energy daily for essential functions such as breathing, maintaining basal metabolic rates (BMR), and cellular activities, which involve both minor muscle movements and major physical exertions. These activities highlight the importance of adequate nutrient intake to support energy production for bodily functions.
Explanation:Every day, our bodies perform numerous tasks that require energy, illustrating the fundamental biological principle that all living things need resources and energy to carry out life processes. Here are three critical activities:
Breathing: The respiratory system works continuously to supply oxygen to the cells for cellular respiration, a process that converts oxygen and glucose into energy (ATP), carbon dioxide, and water. This energy is vital for maintaining bodily functions and activities.Maintaining Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR): A significant portion of the energy derived from food is used to sustain the BMR, which includes essential functions like body heat regulation, heart rate, blood circulation, and functioning of organs like the liver and brain. Notably, the liver consumes 27% of BMR energy, while the brain uses 19%.Cellular Activities and Muscle Movements: Energy is utilized not only for heavy physical activities but also for minor muscle movements associated with sleeping or gesticulations. Moreover, energy is critical for maintaining electrical potentials in nerve cells, crucial for nerve impulses, and supporting chemical processes in organs such as the kidneys and liver.These activities underscore the importance of a balanced diet rich in nutrients that can be converted into ATP, the cellular energy needed for our bodies to function efficiently.
Glacial erosion creates a number of landscape features. A low point along an arête that acts as a pass between glacial valleys is known as a/an A. esker. B. col. C. drumlin. D. horn.
Answer:
A low point along an arete that acts as a pass between glacial valleys is a B. Col
Explanation:
Answer:
B. col.
Explanation:
A col is the lowest point (or dip) along an arête (a narrow ridge between two valleys), which serves as a pass from one side of a mountain range or ridge to another. A col is usually found between mountain peaks in a summit line, typically on a prominent ridge or arête. A col may also be referred to as a notch or a gap. An example of a col is the Indira Col on the Indira Ridge in Siachen Muztagh in the Karakoram Range.
what are some examples of freshwater ecosystems? I need this by 5/22/2019 SO PLEASE ANSWER IT CORRECTLY IT'S URGENT THANKS
Freshwater ecosystem examples are lakes, rivers, ponds, springs, wetlands and streams.
what is the effect on the blood flow in the blood vessel artery when a person is running ?
The arteries (red) carry oxygen and nutrients away from your heart, to your body's tissues. The veins (blue) take oxygen-poor blood back to the heart.
Increases in peripheral resistance, blood volume, and cardiac output result in higher blood pressure. Conversely decreases in any of these factors lead to lower blood pressure. Three main sources of peripheral resistance: Blood vessel diameter, blood viscosity, and total vessel length.
Cardiovascular Response to Exercise. As muscles begin exercising, the arterioles serving the muscle dilate to provide more blood flow. However, arterial pressure does not decrease because other parts of the cardiovascular system are adjusted to support the increased blood flow to the muscles.
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Final answer:
While running, a person's body increases blood flow to support increased oxygen and nutrient demands. The average radii of blood vessels increase, and the viscosity of the blood decreases to facilitate this. These changes enhance the delivery of oxygenated blood to active muscles.
Explanation:
When a person is running, the body's demand for oxygen and nutrients increases sharply. This demand is met by the cardiovascular system, which adjusts by increasing blood flow. During vigorous exercise such as running, the heart rate and blood pressure rise to pump more blood through the body. Additionally, there are changes at the microvascular level, where the arterioles and capillaries dilate—a process known as vasodilation. This increases the radius of the blood vessels, thereby reducing the resistance to blood flow. According to the principles of fluid dynamics, blood flow (Q) is directly proportional to the fourth power of the vessel radius (r) as per the formula Q = πr^4ΔP/8ηl, where ΔP is the pressure difference, η is the viscosity, and l is the length of the vessel. Therefore, during running, the average radii of blood vessels increases to accommodate the increased blood flow, which can be up to 10 times the resting rate, and the blood's viscosity decreases, allowing the blood to flow more easily.
Furthermore, due to the increased metabolic activity, the body also releases certain chemicals like nitric oxide which contribute to vasodilation. The overall effect is that more oxygenated blood reaches the muscles that are working hard during exercise. As a result, blood flow in the artery and other vessels increases, but it's important to note that this hyperemia, or increased blood flow, is tightly regulated and is a normal physiological response to exercise.
In contrast, the presence of plaques in the arteries can greatly reduce blood flow. A decrease in the vessel's radius due to plaque buildup can lead to a significant decrease in blood flow, which the body may attempt to compensate for by increasing blood pressure, but this can be hazardous to cardiovascular health. It's worth noting that during rest, the arterioles and capillaries also allow for an efficient exchange of substances due to their slower blood flow rate.
To Pea plants with yellow peas are crossed. Most of their offspring have yellow peas, but about 25% of the offspring have green peas. For Pea color, yellow is a dominant trait and green is the recessive trait. What does this tell you about the two parent plants?
A. The parent plants have only dominant alleles for pea color.
B. The parent plants are homozygous for pea color.
C. The parent plants are heterozygous for pea color.
D. Pea color follows an incomplete dominance pattern of inheritance.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
The two parent pea plants are likely heterozygous for the pea color trait, meaning they each carry one dominant (yellow) and one recessive (green) allele. This would account for the observed offspring pea color ratios. So, the correct option is C.
Explanation:The information given in the question suggests that the parent pea plants are both heterozygous for the pea color trait. This means that they each carry two different alleles for the pea color gene - one dominant (yellow) and one recessive (green). When they reproduce, each parent plant contributes one of these alleles to their offspring, resulting in an approximately 3:1 ratio of yellow to green peas in the offspring. This is a characteristic outcome of a Punnett square for parents that are heterozygous for a particular trait.
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Nitrogen is changed from a free gas to a usable form by a process called
nitrogen fixation.
nitrogen decomposition.
nitrogen compounding.
nitrogen circulation
Answer:
nitrogen fixation.
Explanation:
Nitrogen fixation is the process by which the combination of molecular nitrogen oxygen or hydrogen is given to give oxides or ammonium that can be incorporated into the biosphere. Molecular nitrogen, which is the majority component of the atmosphere, is inert and not directly usable by most living beings.
Organism A, Organism B, and Organism C are all classified within the Phylum Chordata. Organism A and Organism B can be further classified into Class Mammalia. Organism C, on the other hand, can be further classified into Class Aves.
Which of the following is most likely true about the organisms discussed in the paragraph above?
A.
Organism A, Organism B, and Organism C all have the exact same structural and behavioral characteristics.
B.
Organism A, Organism B, and Organism C do not share any structural characteristics with one another.
C.
Organism B and Organism C share more behavioral characteristics with one another than they do with Organism A.
D.
Organism A and Organism B share more structural characteristics with one another than they do with Organism C.
Answer:
D. Organism A and Organism B share more structural characteristics with one another than they do with Organism C.
Explanation:
Despite all three organisms being chordates, thus animals that have spines and bone structure, further into the phylogenetic tree they have evolved much differently, with A and B being mammals, while C being a type of bird.
Organisms A and B will have much more things in common, especially when it comes to the basic bone structure, and certain traits that define them as mammals, even if we are talking about a whale and a bat. Organism C on the other hand, will have much different structural features, used for different things, or even for the same ones but developed in a different manner.
Answer:D.
Organism A and Organism B share more structural characteristics with one another than they do with Organism C.
Explanation:
An organism with five pairs of chromosomes can have___ genetic possibilities from independent assortment of its single gamete
Answer:
The answer is 32.
Answer:
An organism with five pairs of chromosomes can have 32 genetic possibilities from independent assortment of its single gamete
Explanation:
An organism with five pairs of chromosomes can have 32 genetic possibilities from a variety independent of its single gamete.
To achieve this result, you just have to do a very simple calculation using formula 2ⁿ. In this formula, the number 2 indicates the number of possible gamete combinations, while the letter "n" indicates the number of haploid chromosomes the individual has. Thus, for the individual exposed in the above question, the letter "n" would be replaced by the number 5, indicating that: 2⁵ = 2x2x2x2x2 = 32.
According to the kinetic theory, what is the kinetic energy of a gas molecule proportional to?
A.volume of the gas
B.pressure of the gas
c. temperature of the gas
D. density of the gas
Answer:
c. temperature of the gas
Explanation:
According to Bernoulli, in the kinetic theory the pressure of a gas is the consequence of the impacts of the particles of the gas towards the walls of the container in which it is located.
In the expressions PV = k T and P = m (v2) / 3V. If these two equations refer to the same reality, then kT = m (v2) / 3. From here we can say that the temperature of a gas, T = 2 / (3k) m (v2) / 2 is proportional to the average kinetic energy of its molecules.
For a conclusion to be accepted by the scientific community, the data must be accurate, free from error, and reproducible. varied. unique. surprising.
Answer:
Reproducible
Explanation:
A conclusion of an experiment is accepted by scientific community when the same results can be obtained by repetition of experiment. Reproducible nature of results makes them scientifically acceptable. If the same result of an experiment cannot be obtained by some other scientists, the conclusion is considered to be affected by handling errors and other chance factors.
For a conclusion to be accepted by the scientific community, the data must be accurate, free from error, and reproducible.
Explanation:In order for a conclusion to be accepted by the scientific community, the data must be accurate, free from error, and reproducible. These criteria are essential to ensure the reliability and validity of scientific findings. Accuracy means that the data reflects the true value or state of the phenomenon being studied. Freedom from error ensures that the data is not influenced by any measurement or sampling errors. Reproducibility means that the experiment or study can be repeated by other scientists and they would obtain similar results.
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How are peptide bonds formed between amino acids in the elongation process of the translation of mRNA?
In translation elongation, peptide bonds are formed between amino acids via the catalytic action of peptidyl transferase. This ribozyme facilitates bond formation between the amino group of the amino acid on the A-site tRNA and the carboxyl group of the amino acid on the P-site tRNA, using GTP for energy. The tRNA carrying the growing peptide moves from the A-site to the P-site, while the empty tRNA exits through the E-site.
The elongation process of the translation of mRNA is a critical phase in protein synthesis, during which peptide bonds are formed between amino acids. As tRNAs bring individual amino acids to the ribosome, the ribosome's movement from the A to the P to the E site is facilitated by conformational changes that move the ribosome along the mRNA strand.
The high-energy bond of each charge aminoacyl-tRNA is used when forming the peptide bond catalyzed by an RNA-based enzyme known as peptidyl transferase. This enzyme is a component of the 50S ribosomal subunit.
The process begins with the formation of a bond between the amino group of the amino acid on the A-site tRNA and the carboxyl group of the amino acid on the P-site tRNA. Via GTP hydrolysis, energy is provided to both the binding of the new aminoacyl-tRNA to the A-site and its subsequent translocation to the P-site following peptide bond formation.
After a peptide bond is formed, the tRNA that now carries the growing peptide chain moves from the A-site to the P-site. Concurrently, the P-site tRNA, which is now empty, moves to the E-site where it is then expelled, allowing the cycle to repeat and the polypeptide chain to elongate.
The students in Mrs. Smith's class tested various paper towel brands for strength. The students collected data after they each performed the same experiment with the different brands. When comparing results; Bounty came out on top. How do we know the test results were valid?
Answer:
The Answer Is C
Explanation:
Final answer:
The validity of the paper towel experiment is supported by consistent setup, methodological uniformity, reproducibility, and sufficient sample size. Assuming these criteria were met, the findings suggesting Bounty as the strongest brand is likely valid. Moreover, consistency and controlled conditions are critical for reliable scientific results in various experiments.
Explanation:
To ascertain the validity of the test results from Mrs. Smith's class experiment, one must consider certain criteria. Several factors contribute to the validity of the paper towel brand strength experiment:
Consistency in the experiment setup for testing each brand of paper towel to minimize variables.Utilizing the same method and conditions for each trial to ensure that the measurement of strength is comparable across brands.The reproducibility of the results when the experiment is repeated under the same conditions, meaning other classes or students could perform the same experiment and get similar results.The collection of a large enough sample size to analyze the data and reduce the effect of anomalies.Considering the information provided, we can assume the experiment was valid if these factors were followed. If all students reported Bounty as the strongest, and if the experiment was conducted under standardized and replicable conditions, this indicates a high likelihood of validity in the findings.
Furthermore, the experiments with the populations of beads, DNA amounts from fruits, airflow tests, and the force standards involving rubber bands also emphasize the importance of controlled conditions, replication, and accurate measurement to establish validity in experimental results. The phrase, 'Which experiment had the correct results? They both did. The job of the statistician is to see through the variability and draw appropriate conclusions'', suggests that multiple consistent outcomes lead to valid conclusions in scientific inquiry.
Faults are
A.
cracks that prevent tectonic forces from moving pieces of the Earth's crust.
B.
found only in the center of the Earth's continents.
C.
cracks where pieces of the Earth's crust move past each other due to tectonic forces.
D.
found only in the center of the Earth's oceans.
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Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is true about the electric charges on the objects below?

(1 point)
The ball on the right has a positive charge and the ball on the left has a negative charge.
The ball on the left has a positive charge and the ball on the right has a negative charge.
The balls do not have any electrical charge.
The balls both have the same electrical charge.
2. Which of the following is true about the metal boxes pictured below?

(1 point)
The magnetic force will be strongest on box #2.
The magnetic force will be weakest on box #3.
The magnetic force will be strongest on box #1.
The magnetic force will be weakest on box #1.
3. Anthony is learning about electrical circuits. He has started building the circuit shown below. Which of the following items should he add to his circuit to test whether it has a current flowing through?

(1 point)
Switch
Load or an electrical device
Resistor
Insulator00
4. When a fan is turned on, it changes electrical energy into __________ energy. (1 point)
motion
magnetic
gravitational
electromagnetic
5. Which of the following sentences best compares conductors and insulators. (1 point)
Conductors and insulators allow electrons to flow freely.
Conductors and insulators do not allow for electrons to flow freely.
Insulators obstruct the flow of electrons, whereas conductors allow electron to flow freely.
Conductors obstruct the flow of electrons, whereas insulators allow electron to flow freely.
6. How is a parallel circuit different from a series circuit? (1 point)
A parallel circuit only has one path for the circuit to take.
A parallel circuit has more than one path for the circuit to take.
A parallel circuit has a broken path for the circuit to take.
A parallel circuit has an unbroken path for the circuit to take.
7. Which of the following boxes would have the strongest gravitational pull on a third object positioned at an equal distance from both boxes?

(1 point)
Box A because it is bigger.
Box A because it has less mass.
Box B because it is smaller.
Box B because it has more mass.
8. The ball in the image below is rolling toward the block. The ball will create a disturbance in the stability of the block by knocking it over. Which of the following correctly predicts what will happen to the block?

(1 point)
It will be an unstable system because it will not be able to recover from the disturbance.
It will be a stable system because it will be able to recover from the disturbance.
It will be an unstable system because it will be able to recover from the disturbance.
It will be a stable system because it will not be able to recover from the disturbance.
9. According to Ohm’s law, what is the resistance of a lightbulb if the applied voltage is 21.0 V and the current is 3.0 amps? (1 point)
24 ohms
7.0 ohms
18 ohms
3.0 ohms
10. A student studying a circuit diagram of a lightbulb, battery, and a switch correctly identifies it as a closed circuit. In this diagram, the lightbulb would be (1 point)
an insulator.
on.
disconnected.
off.
11. The force of gravity on an object on the surface of Mars is less than the force of gravity on an identical object on the surface of Earth. Which of the following explains why this is true? (1 point)
Mars has more volume than Earth.
Earth has more volume than Mars.
Mars has less mass than Earth.
Earth has less mass than Mars.
12. Adding a _______________ to an electric circuit would increase the magnetic field around a wire. (1 point)
insulator
solenoid
resistor
conductor
13. Items of clothing rub against each other when they are in a clothes dryer. This can sometimes cause a person to feel a small shock when he or she removes the clothes from the dryer. This is due to (1 point)
the dryer not being grounded.
static electricity.
current caused by the electromagnets in the motor.
insulators on the dryer’s electric circuits not containing the current.
True or False
14. A kitchen ceiling light has five lightbulbs on it. When one of the lights goes out, the other four bulbs stay lit. This is an example of a series circuit. (1 point)
true
false
Answer:
1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. b
6. a
7. a
8. c
9. d
10. c
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. d
Explanation:
16. What's developed as a result of the electron transport chain?
Answer:
Electrochemical proton gradient
Explanation:
As electrons are passed from one protein complex to another in the mitochondria, the tapped energy is used to pump protons to the intermembrane space between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane. This creates a proton motive forces whose potential is harnessed by the ATP synthase to phosphorylate ADP to ATP (the cell energy molecule).
Answer:
The electron transport chain reaction occurs in the cristae of the mitochondria.
An organism takes care of its young and produces few offspring. What type of organism is this?
A. K-strategist B. R-strategist C. L-strategist D. S-strategist
Answer:
K-strategists
Explanation:
Reproductive pattern in organisms can be typically categorised into two:
1. K- Strategy
2. R- Strategy
K-strategists are organisms that lives in very stable environments and gives birth to fewer organisms. Most of these organisms reproduce close the carrying capacity of their habitat. They offer support and protection to their progeny to the points where they become indepedent. The mortality rate is very low in such organisms and so is the birth rate too.
R-strategists are organisms whose main aim is to populate and dominate an environment. They reproduce exponentially and offers no life support to their progeny in their early developmental stage. They often occupy unstable and highly unpredictable environments. Most R organisms have a very low and short life expectancy. Since they produce more offspring and they live under adverse environments, mortality rate is high.
Examples of K-strategists are elephants and man
Examples of R-stategists are grasses and microbes.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
in a population of peppered moths, the allele frequency of d shifts from 0.49 to 0.64 over successive generations. That means this population is NOT an equilibrium and is therefore evolving.
True
or
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Allele frequency as the name says, basically indicates the relative frequency of a particular allele at a particular locus. This is mostly expressed in the form of percentage or fraction.
The formula for calculating it is:
Allele frequency = no. of copies of allele at a particular location / total no. of all alleles for a gene in a population.
According to Hardy Weinberg theorem, if a population has constant allele frequency from one generation to another, it means that the population is evolving. So, as indicated in question that allele frequency is changing, it means that population is evolving.
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True, the shift in the allele frequency of d from 0.49 to 0.64 over successive generations in a population of peppered moths indicates that this population is not at equilibrium. The change in coloration, as a result of industrial soot affecting the environment, led to the rise in frequency of the darker moths as they had a higher survival rate. This change in allele frequency is an indication of evolution, as stated by Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Explanation:True, this population is indeed evolving. The shift in the allele frequency from 0.49 to 0.64 in successive generations of peppered moths indicates that this population is not at equilibrium, hence it is evolving. This evolution occurs in response to changes in the environment that affect the survival and reproduction of the moths, a process referred to as natural selection.
The classic example provided by the peppered moth during the Industrial Revolution in England illustrates this. Prior to the onset of industrial factories, the moth population were predominately light in color, an advantageous trait that allowed them to blend into their surroundings of light-colored trees and lichens. However, the industrial soot emitted from the factories darkened the trees, rendering the light-colored moths more easily spotted by predatory birds. Consequently, the moths with the darker or 'melanic' form had higher survival rates as they were better adapted to the new, darker environmental conditions, hence increasing in frequency.
According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, if the frequencies of alleles or genotypes deviate from the value expected, then this indicates that the population is indeed evolving, as is the case here.
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The Earth completes one revolution every ______
A. day
B. week
C. month
D. year
Answer: D. year
Explanation:
The earth revolves around the sun. The Earth will take 365 days ( a year) to complete a full revolution.
Answer:
The answer is D. Year
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Three portions of a blood sample show clumps in anti-a serum, but not anti-b or anti-rh sera.
Which blood type does the test indicate?
A. A negative (A-)
B. AB positive (AB+)
C. B negative (B-)
D. O negative (O-)
If you add a drop of anti-A serum and it clumps the blood type has blood type B markers that will fight off the A serum making the blood type B....
I got this because...
there is A, B, AB, and O blood
A has anti-B clumping proteins
B has anti-A clumping proteins
AB has no clumping proteins
O has anti-A, anti-B, and anti-AB clumping proteins
so the only on one with anti-A clumping proteins is blood type B
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The blood type that a blood sample showing clumps in anti-a serum, but not anti-b or anti-rh sera is A negative (A-) (Option A).
The membrane of red blood cells contains many different types of antigens. For example, individuals having a blood type AB have red blood cells with both A and B antigens.A O negative (O-) blood test indicates that the blood sample does not have any antigens, whereas an A negative (A-) test indicates that the blood sample contains only A antigens. It is for that reason that O-negative individuals are universal donors because persons having this type of blood are compatible with all blood types. Moreover, AB-positive individuals are universal recipients because persons with this type of blood can receive blood from all blood types.In conclusion, the blood type that a blood sample showing clumps in anti-a serum, but not anti-b or anti-rh sera is A negative (A-) (Option A).
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