Answer:
Descriptive
Explanation:
Descriptive studies are conducted when the there is no reference of the problem or observation. It provides an opportunity to study something new. While an Analytic study references exists and hence inferences can be drawn based on the questioning, surveys, hypothesis testing and comparisons. In this study no hypothesis is conducted to determine a solution, instead in depth study of existing scenarios and facts is done to determine the factors affecting proliferation in frogs.
Hence, the given study is descriptive
Final answer:
The observational study is analytical as it examines the relationship between frog body temperatures and chytrid fungus infection rates.
Explanation:
The observation that frog species with higher average body temperatures tend to have lower infection rates by the chytrid fungus pathogen is part of an observational study. Based on the information given, the study can be classified as analytical because it involves comparing infection rates across different species with varying body temperatures to understand the factors affecting the proliferation and success of the chytrid fungus. Analytical observational studies focus on analyzing relationships between variables, in this case, body temperature and infection rates, rather than merely describing characteristics of a population without looking for existing relationships, which would be descriptive.
In countries where automobile insurance includes compensation for whiplash injuries sustained in automobile accidents, reports of having suffered such injuries are twice as frequent as they are in countries where whiplash is not covered. Some commentators have argued, correctly, that since there is presently no objective test for whiplash, spurious reports of whiplash injuries cannot be readily identified. These commentators are, however, wrong to draw the further conclusion that in the countries with the higher rates of reported whiplash injuries, half of the reported cases are spurious: clearly, in countries where automobile insurance does not include compensation for whiplash, people often have little incentive to report whiplash injuries that they actually have suffered.
Answer:
The options
In the argument given, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles?
(A) The first is a claim that the argument disputes; the second is a conclusion that has been based on that claim.
(B) The first is a claim that has been used to support a conclusion that the argument accepts; the second is that conclusion.
(C) The first is evidence that has been used to support a conclusion for which the argument provides further evidence; the second is the main conclusion of the argument.
(D) The first is a finding whose implications are at issue in the argument; the second is a claim presented in order to argue against deriving certain implications from that finding.
(E) The first is a finding whose accuracy is evaluated in the argument; the second is evidence presented to establish that the finding is accurate.
The CORRECT ANSWER IS (D)
Explanation:
"In countries where automobile insurance includes compensation for whiplash injuries sustained in automobile accidents, reports of having suffered such injuries are twice as frequent as they are in countries where whiplash is not covered." - a fact.
It examine countries where whiplash injuries are taken care of in automobile insurance with countries where whiplash injuries are not taken care of under automobile insurance. The first group of countries have double the reports of whiplash injuries when viewed against the other group of countries.
"Presently; no objective test for whiplash exists," - A fact.
Spurious reports of whiplash injuries is not easy to be identified. - This is an idea of the author. He believes that spurious reports of whiplash injuries pose some difficulties in identification. Let's have a closer look to the words used here. Despite the fact that no indiviual has till now discussed about spurious reports of whiplash injuries, the author has specify this sentence in a form that reflects agreement. Let's hope the coming sentences bring more clarity.
"Nevertheless, these facts do not warrant the conclusion drawn by some commentators that in the countries with the higher rates of reported whiplash injuries, half of the reported cases are spurious." - keyword is 'Nevertheless'.
It shows a different point in direction. Now, go through the statement also with the preceding statement. So, basically, in the preceding statement in view, the author was agreeing to the commentators, who have been pointed to but disagrees on the idea that half of the situations of whiplash injuries are spurious (If you are considering why author sees 'half' the situations, consider the first statement once more, which highlights on double amount of whiplash injuries).
"Clearly, in countries where automobile insurance does not include compensation for whiplash, people often have little incentive to report whiplash injuries that they actually have suffered." - With this statement, the author unites his idea (that it does not reflects on half of the the cases been spurious) with the fact highlighted in the first statement (that there are double the reports of whiplash injuries in countries where it is taken care of under automobile insurance).
How does the author reconciles? He provides another explanation for the fact - he added that the high cases of whiplash injuries in countries where it is taken care of under automobile insurances is due to the reward and compensation they receive on reporting these injuries which is less in other countries without the reward and compensation on reporting these injuries.
So, let's review the option statements:
Option (A).❌
Bold Face (BF)1 it is not the case in the argument.
Option (B).❌
- Note, Bold Face (BF)1 is not a claim but a fact. Secondly, we can pinpoint from our review that BF1 has been employed to backup an explanation (of commentators) which is not the idea in the passage.
Option (C)❌
Just as seen in option B, the role of BF1 is not rightly stated and BF2 cannot serve as the centre conclusion of the argument. Therefore, the Second last statement being the basic conclusion of the argument is wrong.
Option (D).✔✔✔
With the implications being the conclusion stated by the commentators from BF1 as it is the concept of the argument. It is important to note that BF2 provides a another explanation for the finding to oppose the explanation given by commentators as the importance of both BF1 and BF2 are rightly stated.
Option (E).❌
The accuracy of BF1 is not determined in the argument
The Gibbs free energy change of a reaction can be calculated using the equation ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. A biochemical reaction that can provide energy for cellular metabolism would be one in which: Choose one: A. ΔG was negative. B. all terms on the right are negative. C. ΔG was positive. D. all terms on the right are positive.
Answer:
a. ΔG was negative.
Explanation:
The answer is a. ΔG was negative because, for a biochemical reaction to occur and provide energy for cellular metabolism, the Gibbs free energy ΔG = ΔH - TΔS < 0 , for spontaneity. If all terms on the right were to be negative, then ΔG = -ΔH - (-TΔS) = TΔS - ΔH and would only be less than zero if the absolute value of ΔH > absolute value of TΔS. If ΔG was positive as in C, the reaction would not be spontaneous and energy would have to be put into the biochemical reaction for it to occur. If all terms on the right were positive, then, ΔG = ΔH - TΔS < 0 when TΔS > ΔH , else ΔG > 0 and energy would have to be put into the biochemical reaction for it to occur, so its not spontaneous.
Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that _____.
a. makes up the bulk of most vertebrate skeletons
b. provides rigid support and attachment site for muscles
c. supports soft tissues, cushions bone ends at joints, and provides a low-friction surface for joint movements
d. protects internal organs, stores minerals, and produces blood cells
e. consists of plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
Answer:
I believe that the answer is c.
Explanation:
car·ti·lage
/ˈkärdlij/
noun
firm, whitish, flexible connective tissue found in various forms in the larynx and respiratory tract, in structures such as the external ear, and in the articulating surfaces of joints. It is more widespread in the infant skeleton, being replaced by bone during growth.
Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that provides support, cushions joints and allows for a low-friction surface for movement. It is composed of chondrocytes that produce a matrix and different types of fibers, with different forms of cartilage-like hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage offering varying degrees of support and flexibility. So the correct option is c.
Explanation:Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that supports soft tissues, cushions bone ends at joints and provides a low-friction surface for joint movements. This dense connective tissue is made of tough protein fibers and is strong yet flexible, offering smooth areas over which bones at joints can move. It is also an essential component of the skeletal system, which includes not just bones, but also ligaments that hold bones together and cartilage that provides structure and ease of movement where flexibility is needed.
Within cartilage tissue, chondrocytes produce the matrix and fibers that give cartilage its strength and flexibility. Types of cartilage include hyaline cartilage, which provides strong and flexible support, fibrocartilage which can absorb pressure, and elastic cartilage which provides firm but elastic support.
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Biologists recently discovered that black wolves got their coat color from exchanging genes with dogs. This is an example of
a. gene flow
b.an adaptation
c.genetic drift
d. a founder effect
e. gene pools
Using the theories of genes, we find that gene flow is the example of the discovery in which black wolves got their coat color from exchanging genes with dogs.
In biology, actually word gene can have several different meanings. The Mendelian gene is the basic unit of heredity and the molecular gene is a sequence of nucleotides in the DNA that is transcribed to produce a functional RNA. There are basically two types of molecular genes: protein-coding genes and noncoding genes.
During the gene expression, the DNA is first copied into RNA. The RNA can be directly functional or be intermediate template for a protein that performs a function. The transmission of the genes to an organism's offspring is the basis of the inheritance of the phenotypic traits. These genes make up different DNA sequences called the genotypes.
Hence, discovery by biologists that black wolves got their coat color from exchanging genes with dogs is an example of gene flow.
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Note that the bladder is made up of a tissue called transitional epithelium. Research how the structure of this tissue type is perfect for the function of the bladder. PLTW LABORATORY JOURNAL Describe how cell shape differs when the bladder is full and when the bladder is empty.
Answer:
Cell changes shape from cuboid to squamous when the bladder gets full.
Also the transitional epithelium being flexible in terms of contraction and expansion are suitable for urinary bladder
Explanation:
Transitional epithelium is a stratified epithelium which means it consists of multiple layers of epithelial cells. These multiple layer of cells allows the epithelium to contract and expand as per the requirement of the organ. Since Urinary bladder stretch and change its shape continuously (when it becomes full or empty).
The shape of these cells also varies with the bladder state. When the bladder is empty, these cells are cuboid and when the bladder is full these cells gain flat shape just like squamous cells
Transitional epithelium in the bladder changes from a thick, multilayered, cuboidal appearance when empty to a thinner, squamous appearance when full, facilitating the bladder's function of storing variable urine volumes.
Explanation:The transitional epithelium is unique tissue found in the urinary bladder that facilitates its expansion and contraction as it fills and empties. When the bladder is empty, the transitional epithelium is composed of multiple layers that make it appear thicker due to convoluted and cuboidal-shaped apical cells. Conversely, as the bladder fills and stretches, the cells transition to a squamous appearance, and the tissue becomes thinner and less stratified, effectively accommodating larger volumes of urine.
Thus, the structural design of the transitional epithelium aligns perfectly with the function of the bladder, which demands high distensibility to store varying quantities of urine, ranging from nearly zero to 500-600 mL in adults.
ATP and glucose are both molecules that organisms use for energy. They are like the tank of a tanker truck that delivers gas to a gas station and the gas tank that holds the fuel for a car. Which molecule is like the tank of the delivery truck, and which is like the gas tank of the car? Explain your answer.
You have a large, healthy philodendron that you carelessly leave in total darkness while you are away on vacation. You are surprised to find that it is still alive when you return. What has the plant been using for an energy source while in the dark?
A) While it did have access to light, the plant stored energy in the form of sugars or starch, and it was able to derive energy from the stored molecules during your vacation.
B) Even though the plant received no visible light, it was able to use the short-wave part of the electromagnetic spectrum (gamma rays and X-rays) to carry out photosynthesis.
C) Even though it can't carry out the light reactions, the plant can still produce sugars because the Calvin cycle doesn't require light.
D) When light energy is not available, plants can derive energy from inorganic molecules.
E) None of the listed responses
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
Philodendron's are plants with naturally high temperatures and to maintain their temperature, they burn off fat as fuel during their life cycles because it is a better and more efficient source of energy. Because of this trait, the answer given in option A is a suitable explanation to the situation given in the question that the plant can use the sugar and starch that it had accumulated during the time it had access to sunlight and burned those off to provide energy for itself when it was left in the dark.
I hope this answer helps.
"The correct answer is A) While it did have access to light, the plant stored energy in the form of sugars or starch, and it was able to derive energy from the stored molecules during your vacation.
Plants require light to carry out photosynthesis, which is the process by which they convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose. Photosynthesis occurs in two main stages: the light-dependent reactions and the Calvin cycle (light-independent reactions). The light-dependent reactions, as the name suggests, require light and occur in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts. Here, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. The Calvin cycle, on the other hand, does not directly require light; however, it relies on the ATP and NADPH produced in the light-dependent reactions to synthesize glucose.
Given that the philodendron was left in total darkness, it could not have performed the light-dependent reactions to produce new ATP and NADPH. Therefore, options B and C can be ruled out. Option B is incorrect because plants cannot use gamma rays and X-rays for photosynthesis; they require visible light. Option C is incorrect because, while the Calvin cycle does not require light, it cannot occur without the ATP and NADPH produced by the light-dependent reactions.
Option D suggests that plants can derive energy from inorganic molecules in the absence of light. This is not accurate; plants cannot directly use inorganic molecules as an energy source to replace photosynthesis.
Option A is the correct answer because it describes the process of energy storage and utilization in plants. Before being left in the dark, the philodendron would have stored energy in the form of sugars or starch, which are produced during photosynthesis. When the plant was placed in total darkness and could no longer perform photosynthesis, it would have used these stored energy reserves to maintain its metabolic processes and stay alive. This is a common survival strategy for plants, allowing them to endure periods when light is not available.
Therefore, the philodendron survived by using the energy stored in the form of sugars or starch that it had accumulated prior to being placed in darkness. This is consistent with the known biology of plants and explains how the philodendron could remain alive despite the absence of light."
Pharmaceuticals produced from wild species generate up to $150 billion in sales and save many lives each year. This is an example of __________. Question 21 options: A.drug trafficking B. HMO services C.ecosystem services D. conservation genetics
Answer: C.ecosystem services
Explanation:
The ecosystem services are the benefits that are received by human kind from the natural environment. These benefits includes the forest ecosystem, aquatic ecosystem and grassland ecosystem.
The chemicals, medicines, food and water are the services that human kind receives from ecosystems. The natural ecosystems are also responsible for controlling the disease, climate and nutrient cycles, aids in the production of oxygen and also aids in maintaining the recreational benefits.
The pharmaceutical products obtain from the wild life are also the sources of ecosystem services.
What change is observed in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I hypersensitivity) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?
Answer:
Increase in eosinophils.
Explanation:
The leukocytes are the white blood cell that plays an important role in the immune system. The white blood cell include eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil and monocytes.
The allergic reactions that are caused by hay fever or asthma is marked by the excess increase in the number of eosinophils in the body. The eosinophils are the first to reach at the site of parasitic infections and protect the body during the allergic reactions.
Thus, the answer is eosinophils.
In the classical conditioning experiment by Robert Rescorla that involved two groups of rats, one group of rats heard a tone just before each of 20 shocks. The second group of rats experienced the same 20 tone-shock pairings, but also experienced an additional 20 shocks that were not paired with a tone. How did the two groups differ?
Answer:
Rats in the first group will produce a strong stimulus i.e fear of shock towards the tone as compared to the rats in the second group.
Explanation:
Rats in the first group were conditioned to sense the fear with the tone played just before each shock while on the other hand rats in the second group will be exposed to both unconditioned (without tone) and conditioned (with tone) shock treatment.
Therefore, the rats in the first group will produce a strong stimulus i.e fear of shock towards the tone (as they hear it) as compared to the rats in the second group.
In Robert Rescorla's experiment, one group of rats which heard a tone before each shock learned to strongly associate the tone with the shock, while the second group that received additional unpaired shocks did not form as strong an association, highlighting the role of predictability in classical conditioning.
Explanation:In the classical conditioning experiment by Robert Rescorla, there were two groups of rats subjected to different conditioning experiences. The first group of rats heard a tone just before each of 20 shocks (tone-shock pairings). This group learned to associate the tone with the imminent shock. On the other hand, the second group received the same 20 tone-shock pairings but also experienced 20 additional shocks without the tone. The critical difference between the groups was that the first group showed a stronger association between the tone and the shock because the tone was a reliable predictor of the shock.
In contrast, the second group showed a weaker association because the tone was not as reliable—shocks occurred without the tone as well. This difference in the conditioned response between the groups demonstrates the importance of predictability in classical conditioning, a concept established by Rescorla that challenged the simple notion of temporal contiguity endorsed by Pavlov.
Based on the structures discussed about neuronal anatomy, an action potential is more likely to travel _____________________. Group of answer choices from axon hillock to dendrite. from axon terminal to soma. from soma to axon terminal.
Answer:
From soma to axon terminal.
Explanation:
The signal travels in the neurons in the form of an action potential or the ions or the electrical impulse. The electrical impulse is generated in the axon hillock located one end of the cell body of the neuron which contains the nucleus.
The generated electrical impulse travels in the one direction from the soma or the axon hillock to the axon terminal via the axon ans cannot travel in both directions due to the refractory phase.
Thus, From soma to axon terminal is the correct answer.
Ribose has five carbon atoms, of which three are asymmetric. What is the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose?
Answer:
8 is the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose.
Explanation:
Stereoisomers are usually calculated by a formula 2 ^n
n= no. of chiral carbons.
As the ribose is a pentose sugar, it contains 3 chiral carbons.
Hence calculated as :
2^n = 2^3 = 8
Hence, 8 is the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose.
The maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose is 8 is the most range of stereoisomers that could exist for ribose.
Stereoisomers are commonly calculated with the aid of using a system [tex]2^ ^ n[/tex]
[tex]n = no . of chiral carbons.[/tex]
As ribose is a pentose sugar, it incorporates three chiral carbons.
Hence calculated as:
[tex]2^ ^ n=2^ ^ three=eight[/tex]
Hence, eight is the most range of stereoisomers that could exist for ribose.
What are L-ribose and D-ribose?L-ribose and D-ribose are optical isomers that can both shape a pentagonal or hexagonal ring in an aqueous solution. There are eight isomers of ribose, every of them can have both an alpha or beta ring while dissolved in an aqueous solution. Properties of ribose are similar to that of the opposite monosaccharides.
Hence concluded that the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribosomes is 8.
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What is now considered to be a preferred nucleus appearance discriminator between myelocytes and metamyelocytes instead of the degree of indentation of the nucleus?
Answer:
Nuclear chromatin clumping is increased in the metamyelocytes, nuclei disappears and granules are mostly secondary
Explanation:
Metamyelocyte is the cell that is undergoing granulopoiesis and is derivative of a myelocyte. It is characterized by the bent nucleus type of appearance, cytoplasm consists of the cytoplasmic granules and visible type of nucleoli are absent. Myelocytes are the cells occurring in a bone marrow; cells with cytoplasmic granules which that produces granulocytes of the blood. It doesnot occur normally in the blood as in leukaemia.
A generalist is a species that a. Occupies a large habitat range b. Occupies a variety of ecological niches c. Can't reproduce under highly variable conditions d. Can reproduce only under specific conditions
Answer: A generalist is a species that occupies a variety of ecology niches.
Explanation:
A researcher is studying a S. cerevisiae strain with the genotype: MATa ura3-delta2 leu2 his3::URA3 The researcher plates cells from this strain on the nutrient plates containing the synthetic medium YC or on plates containing various dropout formulations. The dropout plates are missing one of the ingredients found in complete YC media. Which plates should the researcher expect to not support growth of the strain? (Check all the apply.)a) YC
b) YC lacking histidine
c) YC lacking uracil
d) YC lacking leucine
Answer:
hhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
Explanation:
Final answer:
The researcher should expect the strain to not grow on the plates that are missing the his3, ura3, and leu2 genes.
Explanation:
The researcher should expect the strain to not grow on the plates that are missing the ingredients necessary for its growth. In this case, the strain is missing the his3, ura3, and leu2 genes. Therefore, the plates that the researcher should expect to not support growth of the strain are:
YC lacking histidine
YC lacking uracil
YC lacking leucine
Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You determine that tumor formation requires a large amount of the plant's energy for tissue formation. How might this change the number of offspring a plant produces, and what is the most likely explanation for this change?
The infection of a plant by Agrobacterium can decrease the plant's offspring because energy that would have gone to reproduction is used for tumor formation. This is a result of the energy allocation principle in biology.
Explanation:When Agrobacterium infects a plant and causes it to form tumors, it could lead to a decrease in the number of offspring the plant produces. This decrease could be caused by the fact that substantial energy—which is typically channeled towards activities such as reproduction, growth, and survival—is redirected towards tumor formation.
Plants only have a fixed amount of energy they can expend. Tumor formation is energy-intensive and as a result, fewer resources are available for processes like producing seeds or flowers (plant offspring). This phenomenon can be explained through the principle of energy allocation in biology, which states that organisms have to balance energy distribution amongst various biological functions.
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The word systems in dynamic systems refers to: a. each child is a well-integrated system with many subsystems. b. each child's subsystems operate discretely. c. each child is just one system. d. children's systems are disorganized and sometimes work against each other.
Answer:
The correct option is A) Each child is a well-integrated system with many subsystems.
Explanation:
Dynamic System Theory can be described as a motor development theory which doctors can use to treat patients with Cerebral Palsy.
The main idea of this theory is that multiple sub-systems are involved for the movement of a person. All of these sub-systems interact is specific ways to cause specific kinds of movements. It described that each child comprises of specific sub systems which make up the child.
In the human brain the basal ganglia, limbic system, and olfactory bulbs are considered part of the: A. metencephalon. B. diencephalon. C. telencephalon. D. mesencephalon.
Answer:
C. Telencephalon.
Explanation:
Telencephalon which is also called the cerebrum is the uppermost part of the central nervous system, it is also the largest part of the human brain containing the cerebral cortex and subcortical structures which includes the basal ganglia, limbic system and the olfactory bulbs.
The basal ganglia is a group of subcortical nuclei that is responsible for motor learning, motor control and behaviors. The limbic system is a system that controls our physical and emotional responses to environmental stimuli and it includes thalamus, amygdala, hypothalamus and hippocampus. The olfactory bulbs is a neural structure located in the forebrain that is responsible for the detection of smell by cells in the nasal cavity.
The basal ganglia, limbic system, and olfactory bulbs are components of the telencephalon in the human brain. C. telencephalon Therefore , C. telencephalon is correct .
Basal Ganglia:
The basal ganglia are a set of nuclei in the brain involved primarily in motor control, regulation of voluntary motor movements, emotional control, procedural learning, and cognition. Disorders related to the basal ganglia can result in movement disorders like Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease.
Limbic System:
The limbic system is a complex network of interconnected brain structures involved in emotions, motivation, memory, learning, and various other cognitive functions. It includes the amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, and parts of the thalamus. It plays a crucial role in regulating emotions and behaviors.
Olfactory Bulbs:
The olfactory bulbs are specialized structures in the forebrain related to the sense of smell (olfaction). They receive sensory input from olfactory receptors in the nasal cavity and transmit this information to other brain regions for processing and interpretation.
Classification of Brain Regions:
In terms of brain development and classification:
Telencephalon: The basal ganglia and olfactory bulbs are part of the telencephalon, which is the anterior division of the forebrain. It contributes to the cerebral hemispheres and is involved in various complex functions, including sensory perception, motor control, and cognition.
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"The drug naloxone can be used to counter the effects" of a heroin overdose by binding to opioid receptors and preventing heroin from binding to them. In this example, naloxone is an ___________________ at opioid receptors and heroin is an _______________________ at opioid receptors.
Answer:
Naloxone is an antagonist at opioid receptors and heroin is an agonist at opioid receptors
Explanation:
An agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor and causes a biological reaction. In this case, heroine binds to opioid receptors. An antagonist blocks the reaction from the agonist, impeding the receptor's activation. Agonists and antagonists work for specific receptors, and for an antagonist to block an agonist they must bind to the same receptor, like naloxone does with heroin. Giving an antagonist that binds to one receptor and and agonist that binds to a different one means that the antagonist will have no effect.
The process of angiogenesis is where: a. Two of these are correct. b. Is a critical component or requirement for wound healing to take place. c. All of these are correct. d. Existing blood vessels give rise or sprout to form new blood vessels. e. Blood vessels regress or are removed from a tissue.
Answer:
a. Two of these are correct.
Explanation:
The two correct options are
b. Is a critical component or requirement for wound healing to take place
d. Existing blood vessels give rise or sprout to form new blood vessels
Angiogenesis is the physiological means in which new blood vessels form pre-existing vessels, developed in the starting phases of vasculogenesis. Angiogenesis is a usual and important process in growth and development, wound healing and in the development of granulation tissue.
The growth and maturation of blood vessels is a largely regulated multistep mechanism called angiogenesis.
What is the lac operon in E. coli a classic example of?
Question 11 options:
gene expression occurring at transcription
antibiotics blocking protein synthesis.
gene expression leading to DNA mutations
gene expression occurring by changing protein shape
Lac operon in E. coli is a classic example of Gene expression occurring at transcription
Explanation:
A lac operon is a type of bacterial operon which is a cluster of co-regulated genes. In order to adapt to environmental changes, the related genes are grouped in an operon.
When lactose is absent, the E. coli bacteria group related genes and produce enzymes (lacZ, lacY, lacA) which help in lactose metabolism to encode the unexpressed lactose.
Structural genes that specifically code for amino acids are called gene expressions. This takes place at two levels – transcription and translation.
Lac operon operation involves promoter, operator, CAP-binding site sequences. The gene group binds with the promoter and is transcribed as a single mRNA.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Curare, a poison from a South American shrub, blocks the binding of ACh by muscle cells. What would happen to muscle function if a toxic dose of curare entered the bloodstream?
Paralysis: Action potentials would be impeded at the neuromuscular junction, and the nerve would be unable to trigger the muscle to act
Spasm: The muscle cell will run out of ATP and fluid, becoming hyperexcitable and developing uncontrolled forceful contractions
Seizure: A sudden surge of electrical activity in the brain would cause muscles to stiffen and tremble
No effect: Muscle function is not dependent on the binding of acetylcholine
Answer:
The correct answer is paralysis.
Explanation:
Curare refers to a poison originating from a plant, which is commonly found in South and Central America. It is a poison that works competitively by reversibly preventing the activity of an acetylcholine receptor present at the neuromuscular junction. This further blocks the activity of muscles as the signal between the nerves and the muscles get restricted.
When this poison is used in adequate concentrations it results in paralysis and can even result in death due to the non-functioning of diaphragm muscles. The poison is obtained from the plant extract, also termed as alkaloid arrow poisons.
Curare would cause muscle paralysis as it blocks the binding of acetylcholine, preventing muscle contraction.
Explanation:If a toxic dose of curare entered the bloodstream, it would cause paralysis in the muscles. The reason for this is curare's ability to block the binding of acetylcholine (ACh) by muscle cells. ACh is a key neurotransmitter involved in muscle contraction. In the presence of curare, the ACh cannot bind to its receptors on the muscle cells, thereby preventing the generation of action potentials at the neuromuscular junction. This essentially means that the nerve impulse cannot trigger muscle contraction, resulting in paralysis.
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What area of water serves as nursery grounds for many species of marine fishes and invertebrates?
a. Limnetic areas
b. Pelagic zones
c. Estuaries
d. Benthic zones
e. Photic zones
Answer:
c
Explanation:
b/c Estuaries and their wetland. it depends on the fish species, spawing occurs in the river etc...
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What is the disorder that results from the presence of an extra X chromosome that produces underdeveloped genitals, extreme height, and enlarged breasts?
Answer:
autism
Explanation:
autism is caused by extra chromosomes or more than 46
In a macrotube (macrobroth) dilution susceptibility test, 1.0 ml of Mueller Hinton (MH) broth is pipetted into tubes 2 through 10, tube 11, and tube 13. Two milliliters of MH broth is pipetted into tube 12; 1.0 ml of 200 micrograms/ml of ampicillin is added to tubes 1, 2, and 13. A twofold serial dilution is performed in 1.0 ml amounts in tubes 2 through 10. The standardized inoculum is diluted 1:200 and 1.0 ml is added to tubes 1 though 11. The tubes are incubated for 20 hours at 350 C. After this time, the tubes are examined for visual growth. Tubes 6 through 7 are visibly turbid. while tubes 1 through 5 show no signs of growth. Tubes 1 through 5 are plated on blood agar, incubated overnight at 350C, and read for growth. Plates 1 through 4 show no growth while several colonies are observed on plate 5. The MIC is:
Final answer:
The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) for ampicillin against the tested organism, based on the provided macrotube dilution susceptibility test setup and observations, is 12.5 micrograms/ml.
Explanation:
The student has inquired about determining the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) using a macrotube dilution susceptibility test. In this test, ampicillin was added to multiple tubes to observe the lowest concentration where bacterial growth is inhibited. Because tubes 1 through 5 showed no visible growth, with plates 1 through 4 indicating no growth upon further inspection, and growth only observed on plate 5, we conclude the MIC as follows: Since tubes 6 to 11 (including tube 5, where the sample was taken for Plate 5 showing bacterial growth) represent increasing concentrations of ampicillin and tube 5 was the last without visible growth before this series, the concentration in tube 5 represents the MIC. Considering the twofold serial dilution starting from 200 micrograms/ml in tube 1, by tube 5, the concentration would have been diluted four times (i.e., halved four times), indicating an MIC of 12.5 micrograms/ml for ampicillin against the tested organism.
The nurse administers an oral preparation of liquid Tylenol 650 mg is ordered. Afterward, the patient indicates he had been receiving Tylenol 650 mg in pill form. Which statement is accurate in regards to the five rights?
A) The nurse failed to deliver the correct dose.
B) The nurse failed to administer the light medication.
C) The nurse did not violate the five rights.
Answer:
Answer is C. the nurse did not violate the five rights.
Explanation:
The 'five rights' is a system which must be adopted, especially by the nurse in the administration of the drugs to the patient. This system is very important because, it will prevent causing harm to the patient and reduce medication error.
The 'five rights' are
* Right patient
* Right drug
* Right dose
* Right route
* Right time.
In this case, the nurse followed all the five rights in the administration of the liquid Tylenol 650 mg.
In this scenario, the nurse provided the right medication (Tylenol), the right dose (650 mg), and presumably at the right time. While the route of administration changed from pill to liquid, assuming the patient had no difficulties with liquid medication, the nurse would not have violated the five rights of medication administration.
Explanation:The five rights of medication administration include the right patient, the right drug, the right dose, the right route, and the right time. In this scenario, even though the route of administration changed (from pill to liquid), the patient still received the correct drug (Tylenol), and the correct dose (650 mg). The potential concern could be whether the patient had any restrictions or difficulties with liquid medication. Provided there were no such issues, and the administration time was correct, the nurse would not have violated the five rights. So, option C) 'The nurse did not violate the five rights' is accurate.
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Scientists recently discovered that rocks collected from the Franklin mountains in West Texas and rocks collected from the mountains in eastern Antarctica were exactly the same age. Further research showed that the rocks were chemically and geologically the same and came from the same magma source. This discovery provide evidence of
The discovery of rocks from West Texas and Antarctica being the same age and having similar characteristics supports the theory of continental drift and plate tectonics, indicating that these regions were once connected and have since moved apart.
Explanation:The discovery that rocks collected from the Franklin mountains in West Texas and rocks collected from the mountains in eastern Antarctica were exactly the same age and had the same chemical and geological characteristics provides evidence of continental drift and plate tectonics. This indicates that the two regions were once part of the same landmass and have since moved apart.
This finding supports the theory that the continents were once connected in a supercontinent called Pangaea and have since drifted apart to their current positions on the Earth's surface.
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A graduate student finds an organism in a pond and thinks it is a freshwater sponge. A postdoctoral student thinks it looks more like an aquatic fungus. How can they decide whether it is an animal or a fungus?
A) See if it reproduces sexually.
B) Determine whether it is unicellular or multicellular.
C) Look for cell walls under a microscope.
D) See if it is a eukaryote or prokaryote.
Answer:
C) Look for cell walls under a microscope.
Explanation:
It can be decided wheter it is an animal or a fungus by looking for cell walls under microscope.
As the animal cells lack cell wall ( outer membrane is just the cell membrane ) while the fungal cells contain a proper cell wall (surrounding their cell membrane )containing chitin.
Hence C) Look for cell walls under a microscope is the right option.
As both the cells reproduce sexually , option A is excluded.
Both the animal and the fungal cells are multicellular , option B is also excluded.
Both of these organisms are eukaryotes , hence option D is also excluded.
______ can form in the body during respiration, and are chemically reactive, which means that they can chemically modify (and thus render useless) other biological molecules.
Answer:
Peroxides
Explanation:
Peroxides are group of compounds that have the structure R-O-O-R. Peroxides have two oxygen atoms linked together by single covalent bond.
Hydrogen peroxide is most common peroxide and toxic byproduct of respiration. Hydrogen peroxide is involved in producing oxidative stress and thus producing damage to cellular components.
Peroxidases are enzymes that are found in wide range of organisms from bacteria to plants and animals. Most of these enzymes breakdown invloved in breakdown of hydrogen peroxide. Peroxidases act as antioxidant to reduce oxidative stress by cleavenging hydrogen peroxide radicles.
Why are these organisms not classified as bacteria?
Why are amoeba, paramecium, and euglena not classified as bacteria?
Answer:They are eukaryotic cells.
Explanation:The bacteria is classified under the kingdom Monera of the 5 kingdom classification where the prokaryotic organisms like bacteria and blue green algae lives. These cells lack mitochondria or any membrane bound organelles inside their cells, lack nucleus, 80s ribosomes and golgi bodies etc. They have diferent cellular structure than the eukaryotic ones.
Whereas the amoeba, paramecium, and euglena, although unicellular are under the kingdom Protista where eukaryotic organisms live. They contains well defined nucleus, membrane bound organelles, mitochondria etc. Amoeba are protozoa, and euglena is autotroph in nature.
So they aren't called as bacteria.
Answer:
Unlike bacteria, the organisms shown are eukaryotic cells and contain a nucleus, mitochondria, and membrane bound organelles.