Answer:
The correct answer is D) domain
Explanation:
The father of taxonomy is Linnaeus. Taxonomy helps in classify and naming organisms. The modern taxonomy has eight levels of classification. Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species.
Domain is the highest level of classification so it is the largest category that would include closely related species. When we go from domain towards species the number of similarities increase and number of organism decrease and vice versa is true when we move from species to domain. So the right answer is domain.
In addition to naming species, Linnaeus also grouped species into a hierarchy of increasingly inclusive categories. The largest category that would include closely related species is A) genus. Therefore A) genus is correct .
In Linnaeus' original system, the broadest and most inclusive category was the "kingdom." He classified organisms into kingdoms based on major differences in form and function.
For example, plants and animals were placed in separate kingdoms.
Over time, as our understanding of evolutionary relationships deepened, the classification system evolved. Domains were introduced to reflect the fundamental differences in the cellular organization of life.
The three domains are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.
Domain: The highest taxonomic rank, grouping organisms based on fundamental differences in cellular structure and biochemistry.
Bacteria and Archaea are composed of prokaryotic cells, while Eukarya includes organisms with eukaryotic cells.
Kingdom: Each domain is further subdivided into kingdoms, reflecting major evolutionary lines.
For example, within the domain Eukarya, you have kingdoms like Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, and more.
Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species: These are subsequent hierarchical levels, each getting more specific in its classification. Species is the most specific level, representing individual organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring.
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In October of 2003, a raging wildfire swept through the mountain ecosystems in Southern California, burning everything in its path to the ground and driving away all of the animals. In order for the mountain ecosystem to establish itself, which member of the food web has to return first?DeerCoyotesSnakeGrasses
Oxygen is attached to _______.
A) a calcium atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
B) a calcium atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin
C) an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin
D) an iron atom located on the globin portion of hemoglobin
Answer: The answer is C. An iron atom located on the heme portion hemoglobin
Explanation: Hemoglobin is responsible for the transportation of oxygen in the red blood cells to tissues of vertebrates. It is the protein molecule found in the red blood cells.
Hemoglobin is made up of 4 heme molecules surrounding the globin group, forming a tetrahedral structure. The heme molecules contain one atom of iron each and this is the binding spot for each molecule of oxygen through a covalent bond. Therefore, each hemoglobin molecule can have up to four molecules of oxygen attached to them.
Oxygen is attached to an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin. The correct answer is C) an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin.
Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for transporting oxygen throughout the body. It consists of four subunits, each containing a heme group. Each heme group contains an iron atom that can bind to oxygen molecules.
When oxygen enters the lungs, it binds to the iron atoms in the heme groups of hemoglobin, forming a reversible complex called oxyhemoglobin. This oxygenated form of hemoglobin then carries oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues, where it releases oxygen for use in cellular respiration. In the tissues, the oxygen dissociates from the iron atoms, and the hemoglobin returns to its deoxygenated state.
Therefore, the correct answer is C) an iron atom located on the heme portion of hemoglobin.
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How would you explain the development of motor skills as well as sensory and perceptual development?
Answer:
Motor skill develop through the interaction of body system specifically sensory, perception and biochemical systems
Several experiments were required to demonstrate how traits are inherited. Which scientist or team of scientists first demonstrated that cells contain some components that can be transferred to a new population of cells and permanently cause changes in the new cells?
a. Griffith
b. Watson and Crick
c. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
d.Hershey and Chase
Answer:
a. Griffith
Explanation:
Frederick Griffith used two strains of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. The S strains were pathogenic while the R strains were nonpathogenic. He added the heat-killed virulent bacteria to the live nonvirulent strain and infected mice with it. He showed that the mice developed the disease and were killed. He concluded that a substance from the heat-killed S strains transformed the live R strains into the virulent form that killed mice. However, he could not identify the substance responsible for the process of transformation.
Ribose has five carbon atoms, of which three are asymmetric. What is the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose?
Answer:
8 is the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose.
Explanation:
Stereoisomers are usually calculated by a formula 2 ^n
n= no. of chiral carbons.
As the ribose is a pentose sugar, it contains 3 chiral carbons.
Hence calculated as :
2^n = 2^3 = 8
Hence, 8 is the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose.
The maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribose is 8 is the most range of stereoisomers that could exist for ribose.
Stereoisomers are commonly calculated with the aid of using a system [tex]2^ ^ n[/tex]
[tex]n = no . of chiral carbons.[/tex]
As ribose is a pentose sugar, it incorporates three chiral carbons.
Hence calculated as:
[tex]2^ ^ n=2^ ^ three=eight[/tex]
Hence, eight is the most range of stereoisomers that could exist for ribose.
What are L-ribose and D-ribose?L-ribose and D-ribose are optical isomers that can both shape a pentagonal or hexagonal ring in an aqueous solution. There are eight isomers of ribose, every of them can have both an alpha or beta ring while dissolved in an aqueous solution. Properties of ribose are similar to that of the opposite monosaccharides.
Hence concluded that the maximum number of stereoisomers that may exist for ribosomes is 8.
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Professor Petrov studies the pituitary gland in her laboratory. She works closely with a colleague whose focus is on the _____, because it is the structure that controls the pituitary gland.
Answer: Hypothalamus
Explanation:
The hypothalamus, located in the fore brain is the important part of the brain that controls the secretion of the pituitary gland. It does this by stimulating the anterior pituitary gland to secrete its hormone, ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone) which in turns stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteriods that helps in fluid and salt balance in the body.
Thus, professor petrol's colleague is focusing on the hypothalamus.
Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers but mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it?
A. Allopatric speciation, ecological isolation.
B. Sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation.
C. Allopatric speciation, behavioral isolation.
D. Sympatric speciation, sexual selection.
E. Sympatric speciation, allopolyploidy.
Answer:
B. Sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation.
Explanation:
The right answer to our question is B, Sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation.
Edward Bagnall Poulton derived the term sympatric speciation in 1904. It is a mode of speciation, which entails new species emerging from an ancestral species that is still alive and extant. Both the emerging and ancestral species will exist in the same zone.
This speciation is found more in plants. There are different types of these speciations. Habitat differentiation is seen within sympatric speciation. It is found when mutations that exist in the same zone can make use of varying conditions. Allopatric speciation and parapatric speciation are the other types of speciation.
In the given scenario, Sympatric speciation driven by habitat differentiation has occurred. The different 'habitats' are represented by the flower color preferences of the beetle variants, leading them to diverge to the point of becoming distinct species.
Explanation:The type of speciation that has occurred in the provided scenario is Sympatric speciation, driven by habitat differentiation. In this context, sympatric speciation refers to the process where new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the same geographic region. In this case, the 'geographic region' is the color of the flowers. The red and orange flowers represent different 'habitats' for the beetles.
In terms of what has driven this speciation, it is habitat differentiation. This is because even though the beetles are occupying the same general physical area, their 'habitat' in terms of the color of the flowers they prefer has caused a divergence in their mating and, hence, their gene pools. Over time, this leads to the two beetle variants becoming so different that interbreeding is no longer possible, effectively rendering them distinct species.
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Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has the exactly same genetic composition. Each daughter cell resulting from mitotic cell division has the exactly same genetic composition. True False
Which degrees of tilt produced light similar to wjat North American experiences in summer? Explain your answer!! Please explain your answer and how u got it
Answer:
In Earth’s Northern Hemisphere summers are hot with plenty hours of strong sunlight and the winters are cold due to reduced daylight hours and weak sunlight.
This is because the Earth is tilted on its axis.
To picture this axis, envision an imaginary stick going through Earth from its North to South poles.
This axis isn't upright up and down as Earth orbits roundabout the sun. It is TILTED at an ANGLE just ABOUT 23 DEFREES and also in a fixed position and direction in space.
This tilt affects how the sunlight affects Earth at a certain location in its all year orbit. During summer in the Northern Hemisphere, the North Pole is in the direction of the sun, receiving more sun's rays while the Southern Hemisphere at winter is pointed away from the sun, with its rays at mid way of Earth on a slant.
Take for example, When a book is tilted back 45 degrees, from a source of light - flashlight, it gives an oval shape that is dimmer and larger. The more it is tilted at a distance from the flashlight, it gives a more slanted light rays(it's weaker since it overlay a wider area and heat the air and surface less as in direct rays) that strikes the paper's surface.
The same phenomenon is seen with Earth and the sun. When Earth's North Pole is tilted in the direction of the sun, the direct rays produces stronger sunlight and warmth in North America-summertime—in relation to when the North Pole is tilted away from the sun. This will cause North America to have less direct rays and more slanted rays, producing much cold— wintertime.
The volume of blood remaining in the ventricle as ventricular diastole begins is called the __________.
Answer:End - diastolic volume
Explanation:
End-diastolic volume is the amount of blood that is in the ventricles before the heart contracts. Doctors use end-diastolic volume to estimate the heart’s preload volume and to calculate stroke volume and ejection fraction. These different measurements indicate the health of a person’s heart.
While conducting research with a small population in South America you note that an overwhelming majority of individuals exhibit signs of a specific genetic abnormality. This is most likely the result of:__________.
Answer:
Founder effect
Explanation:
Foundation effect occurs when a small group of people from large population establishes a new colony causing the reduction of genetic variation. In the consquences, they may emphasize certain genes and phenotype or deemphasized them.
Example; There are higher cases of fumarase defeciency in population of member of fundamentalist church because of the practice of marying within the relegion.
The widespread genetic abnormality in a small population could be attributed to genetic drift or the founder effect. Both cause changes in allele frequency, but the founder effect specifically involves isolation and differing gene frequencies.
Explanation:The presence of a specific genetic abnormality in a high proportion of a small population could most likely be the result of genetic drift or the founder effect. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution that can cause random changes in the frequency of alleles in a population. On the other hand, the founder effect occurs when a small number of individuals become geographically isolated from the main population and they possess different gene frequencies than the main population. If one of these individuals carry a specific genetic abnormality, it may become prevalent in this sub-population.
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A population of Drosophila mauritiana reproduces in synchrony at discrete time periods every generation, and generations occur at two-week intervals. The current population size is 1,000, and its geometric population growth rate is 3.0 per generation. What will the expected size of the population be after six weeks?
Answer:
3000
Explanation:
1000 in every two weeks for 6 weeks is 3000
A population of Drosophila mauritiana reproduces in synchrony at discrete time periods every generation. The expected size of the population after six weeks is 27,000.
What is the population?The term “population” refers to all citizens who are either permanently residing in a country or who are just passing through. This indicator reveals how many people typically reside in a certain area.
Growth rates are the population changes that occur each year as a result of births, deaths, and net migration. Any whole group that shares at least one trait is referred to be a population.
People do not make up all populations. Populations can include but are not limited to, individuals, animals, organizations, structures, buildings, cars, farms, objects, or occasions.
No = 1000 Growth rate r = 3.0 per generation
1000 every two weeks for 6 weeks is 27,000
Therefore, the expected size of the population after six weeks is 27,000.
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Griffin performed experiments demonstrating that when live, nonpathogentic, S. pneumoniae (which produce rough-surfaced colonies) are mixed with killed smooth-surfaced S. pneumoniae (which are pathogenic when alive) and are then injected into mice, the mice become ill. Bacteria isolated from these sick mice form smooth colonies characteristic of the pathogenic strain. What happened to the bacteria to make them pathogenic to the mice?
Answer:
Transformation
Explanation:
The experiment of Griffith on S. pneumoniae leads to the conclusion that the bacteria can take the DNA from the surrounding environment by the process of "Transformation".
He selected the two strains of bacteria, the smooth pathogenic strains (S strains) and the rough non-pathogenic strain (R strains). When he injected the dead S bacteria and live R bacteria, he obtained the live S bacteria from the mice.
He was amazed at how the dead S strain bacteria became alive and concluded that the dead S strain bacteria were transformed into the live S strain bacteria and named the process transformation. The transformation process refers to the uptake of the DNA material from the surrounding environment.
Thus, transformation is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Frederick Griffith's experiments demonstrated that a heat-killed pathogenic S strain transferred a "transforming principle" to a live nonpathogenic R strain, making it pathogenic. This was a key discovery, leading to the understanding that DNA is the material responsible for inheritance and transformation.
Explanation:
In Frederick Griffith's transformation experiments, something remarkable was observed. When Griffith injected a mouse with both the live nonpathogenic R strain and heat-killed pathogenic S strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae, the mouse died, and only the S strain was recovered.
This outcome was unexpected because separately, the live R strain did not kill the mice, and the heat-killed S strain could not cause illness either. Griffith's findings indicated that the nonpathogenic R strain had acquired the ability to form smooth colonies and become pathogenic from the heat-killed S strain.
Griffith concluded that the R strain must have taken up some transforming principle from the heat-killed S strain, which allowed it to become pathogenic. This transformative agent, initially hypothesized to be external DNA, was responsible for changing the morphology and physiology of the R strain, leading to the production of the protective polysaccharide capsule that is a characteristic of the pathogenic S strain. The capsule makes colonies appear smooth and enables the bacteria to evade the immune system, resulting in virulence.
These pivotal experiments played a crucial role in the discovery of DNA as the material of inheritance, paving the way for modern molecular genetics. The phenomenon observed by Griffith is now known as transformation, where genetic material from one cell can be taken up by another, incorporating new genetic information into its own genetic makeup.
Mendel wanted to find out if the pattern of inheritance for one trait affected
the pattern of inheritance for another. What experiment did he perform to test
this idea?
O
A. He tested non-dominant traits.
O
B. He performed dihybrid crosses.
O
C. He made an F3 generation.
O
D. He tested one trait at a time.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Mendel performed dihybrid crosses to investigate whether the pattern of inheritance for one trait influenced another. Therefore option B is correct.
In a dihybrid cross, he simultaneously studied the inheritance of two different traits by crossing individuals that were heterozygous for both traits.
This allowed him to observe the inheritance patterns of multiple traits in a single experiment, enabling him to analyze whether these patterns were linked or independent.
By studying the inheritance of traits that were located on separate chromosomes, Mendel provided crucial insights into the principles of independent assortment, demonstrating that the inheritance of one trait does not significantly affect the inheritance of another.
Thereby contributing to the foundation of modern genetics.
Therefore option B is correct.
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Based on the structures discussed about neuronal anatomy, an action potential is more likely to travel _____________________. Group of answer choices from axon hillock to dendrite. from axon terminal to soma. from soma to axon terminal.
Answer:
From soma to axon terminal.
Explanation:
The signal travels in the neurons in the form of an action potential or the ions or the electrical impulse. The electrical impulse is generated in the axon hillock located one end of the cell body of the neuron which contains the nucleus.
The generated electrical impulse travels in the one direction from the soma or the axon hillock to the axon terminal via the axon ans cannot travel in both directions due to the refractory phase.
Thus, From soma to axon terminal is the correct answer.
At the molecular level, gene duplication often produces novelty in a lineage. This process provides another evolutionary pathway by which a protein can switch functions, without loss of the original function. What analytical approach helped the most to answer the question of evolution in the aldosterone–M receptor pair in the study of Jamie Bridgham and her colleagues?
1. analysis of fossil records
2. analysis of receptors in human
3. phylogenetic study
4. forward mutation
Answer:
3- phylogenetic study
Explanation:
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Dreams occurring during REM sleep are ________; dreams occurring during non-REM sleep are ________.\
Answer:
Dreams occurring during REM sleep are _intense_; dreams occurring during non-REM sleep are _less vivid, disconnected, and less memorable_.
Explanation:
REM (rapid eye movement) sleep is
"a kind of sleep that occurs at intervals during the night and is characterized by rapid eye movements, more dreaming and bodily movement, and faster pulse and breathing."
Non-REM sleep (non-rapid eye movement) sleep is dreamless sleep.
Answer:
Dreams occurring during REM sleep are intense;
dreams occurring during non-REM sleep less vivid, and less memorable.
REM –Rapid Eye Movement sleep is one of the stages of sleep the brain goes through during sleeping. It begins about an hour to one hour thirty minutes when an individual goes to sleep, The brain is active at this period as if the subject fully awake. This explains why the dreams memories is retained when fully awake and the dream is vivid and could be recollected.
Other physiological features associated with this stage are increase in blood pressure, variation in body temperature, and rise in brain oxygen consumption among others.
The full active brain also stimulates the spinal cord for the seizure of motor control to the limbs, These immobilized these body parts with the subject in tentative state of paralysis, hence the REM is is sometimes refers to as paradoxical sleep.
The Non Rapid Eye Movement (NREM) is made up of 3 stages. This sleep stage mark the transition from being awake to deep sleep. It is marked with reduction in brain waves , body temperature,no paralysis of the limbs.
Dreams are rear during NREM stage, and if they occur it is usually early in the morning. This dream is due to activation of the subcortical area of the brain at this period of the day; this includes the olfactory bulb, the hypothalus.amygdala .
Explanation:
The tone of the passage is best described as (A) scornful and unsympathetic (B) reverent and respectful (C) acerbic and cynical (D) serious but faintly condescending (E) irate but carefully judicious
Answer:
Option D , serious but faintly condescending
Explanation:
The passage for this question is
Throughout her history China had believed herself the center of civilization,
surrounded by barbarians. She was the Middle Kingdom, the center of the
universe, whose Emperor was the Son of Heaven, ruling by the Mandate of
Heaven. Convinced of their superior values, the Chinese considered that
China’s greatness was owed to principles of social order over a harmonious
whole. All outsiders whose misfortune was to live beyond her borders were
“barbarians’’ and necessarily inferiors who were expected, and indeed required,
to make their approach, if they insisted on coming, bearing tribute and
performing the kowtow in token of humble submission.
From the time of Marco Polo to the eighteenth century, visiting Westerners,
amazed and admiring, were inclined to take China at her own valuation. Her
recorded history began in the third millennium B.C., her bronzes were as old as
the pyramids, her classical age was contemporary with that of Greece, her
Confucian canon of ethics predated the New Testament if not the Old. She was
the inventor of paper, porcelain, silk, gunpowder, the clock and movable type,
the builder of the Great Wall, one of the wonders of the world, the creator of
fabrics and ceramics of exquisite beauty and of an art of painting that was
sophisticated and expressive when Europe’s was still primitive and flat . . . .
When at the end of the eighteenth century Western ships and merchants
surged against China’s shores, eager for tea and silk and cotton, they found no
reciprocal enthusiasm. Enclosed in the isolation of superiority, Imperial China
wanted no influx of strangers from primitive islands called Britain or France or Holland who came to live off the riches of the Middle Kingdom bearing only
worthless articles for exchange. They had ugly noses and coarse manners and wore ridiculous clothes with constricting sleeves and trousers, tight collars and coats that had tails down the back but failed to close in front. These were not the garments of reasonable men. A past-oriented society, safe only in seclusion, sensed a threat from the
importunate West. The Imperial Government raised every barrier possible by refusals, evasions, postponements, and prohibitions to foreign entry or
settlement or the opening of formal relations. Splendidly remote in the “Great Within’’ of the Forbidden City of Peking, the court refused to concern itself with the knocking on its doors. It would admit foreign embassies who came to plead for trade treaties only if they performed the ritual of three genuflections and
nine prostrations in approaching the Son of Heaven. British envoys, after
surmounting innumerable obstacles to reach Peking, balked at the kowtow and turned back empty-handed.
Solution -
In this passage , China is represented as a nation considering itself superior to all other nations on the basis of its civilization, values, social order etc. Earlier the western world admired the nation for its ancient civilization, tradition, merchandise, art and culture and ethics and inventor of some of the popular materials such as gun powder, clock, etc. However, with expectation of trading when the ships of western world reached the Chinese sea shore, they did not received any enthusiastic approach from them. This left China isolated. However after centuries later this nation itself made rule and regulation for trading across the border.
Thus, option D is correct.
Gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins, is due to the action of ________. a. insulin b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. secretin
Cortisol is responsible for gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins. Insulin reduces blood glucose levels, while aldosterone and glucagon work to increase blood glucose levels when they are low.
Explanation:Gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins, primarily due to the action of the hormone cortisol. This hormone is a glucocorticoid and is secreted in response to ACTH. One of the main roles of cortisol is to stimulate the synthesis of glucose and gluconeogenesis (converting a non-carbohydrate to glucose) by liver cells and promote the release of fatty acids from adipose tissue.
Insulin, on the other hand, is responsible for reducing blood glucose levels by stimulating glycolysis, the metabolism of glucose for ATP generation, and inhibiting enzymes involved in glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Thus, insulin helps in decreasing glucose in the blood, not forming it.
It's also worth noting that aldosterone, another hormone, regulates blood glucose levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen to glucose when glucose levels decrease in the blood. And glucagon, produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas, increases blood glucose levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.
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The lac operon is a collection of genes that work together to break down lactose by producing the enzyme ___.
Question 12 options:
maltase
lactase
glucose
galactase
lac Operon of E.coil consist of three structural genes - lacZ,lac Y and lac A which are involved in lactose metabolism.These genes are regulated by a single promoter.
Explanation:
lac operon is also called a inducible operon that is activated in the presence of lactose.The lac operon is responsible for the production of lactose-utilizing enzymes.
Why can't we measure genetic variation in a population using observable traits (phenotypes)?
a. All traits are encoded by a single gene.
b. The environment can also affect phenotype.
c. Many traits are encoded by multiple genes.
d. Phenotypes are not determined by genes.
Answer:
b. The environment can also affect phenotype.
c. Many traits are encoded by multiple genes.
Explanation:
The types of alleles of various genes present in the members of a population can not be identified by observing phenotypes. This is because some genetic traits are regulated by more than one gene. Combinations of the dominant alleles of each of these genes regulate the final phenotype of the organisms. Skin color in humans is an example of such a genetic trait.
Likewise, some genetic traits are also affected by their surroundings. The extent of exposure to sun and pollution in the surroundings are two nongenetic factors that regulate the human skin tone in addition to multiple genes.
Final answer:
The reason we cannot measure genetic variation using phenotypes is that b. The environment can also affect phenotype, making them an unreliable indicator of genetic variation due to their resulting from both genotypic factors and environmental influences.
Explanation:
The correct option for why we can't measure genetic variation in a population using observable traits (phenotypes) is b. The environment can also affect phenotype. This is because an organism's phenotype is the result of the interaction between its genotype and the environment. While genetic diversity and variation are critical for the survival of a species, phenotypes may not provide a complete picture of genetic variation as they are the result of both genetic factors and environmental influences.
Most traits are not Mendelian; they are polygenic, meaning several genes contribute to a trait's expression. Furthermore, environmental factors can have a significant impact on the expression of these traits, adding another layer of complexity. Therefore, simply observing traits cannot accurately measure the genetic variation in a population.
In a macrotube (macrobroth) dilution susceptibility test, 1.0 ml of Mueller Hinton (MH) broth is pipetted into tubes 2 through 10, tube 11, and tube 13. Two milliliters of MH broth is pipetted into tube 12; 1.0 ml of 200 micrograms/ml of ampicillin is added to tubes 1, 2, and 13. A twofold serial dilution is performed in 1.0 ml amounts in tubes 2 through 10. The standardized inoculum is diluted 1:200 and 1.0 ml is added to tubes 1 though 11. The tubes are incubated for 20 hours at 350 C. After this time, the tubes are examined for visual growth. Tubes 6 through 7 are visibly turbid. while tubes 1 through 5 show no signs of growth. Tubes 1 through 5 are plated on blood agar, incubated overnight at 350C, and read for growth. Plates 1 through 4 show no growth while several colonies are observed on plate 5. The MIC is:
Final answer:
The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) for ampicillin against the tested organism, based on the provided macrotube dilution susceptibility test setup and observations, is 12.5 micrograms/ml.
Explanation:
The student has inquired about determining the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) using a macrotube dilution susceptibility test. In this test, ampicillin was added to multiple tubes to observe the lowest concentration where bacterial growth is inhibited. Because tubes 1 through 5 showed no visible growth, with plates 1 through 4 indicating no growth upon further inspection, and growth only observed on plate 5, we conclude the MIC as follows: Since tubes 6 to 11 (including tube 5, where the sample was taken for Plate 5 showing bacterial growth) represent increasing concentrations of ampicillin and tube 5 was the last without visible growth before this series, the concentration in tube 5 represents the MIC. Considering the twofold serial dilution starting from 200 micrograms/ml in tube 1, by tube 5, the concentration would have been diluted four times (i.e., halved four times), indicating an MIC of 12.5 micrograms/ml for ampicillin against the tested organism.
What are the most likely percentages for offspring of two red/white-feathers parents?
Answer:
The question lacks options, the options are:
parents?
A.100% red/white-feather chickens.
B.50% white-feather chickens and 50% red/white-feather chickens.
C.33% white-feather chickens, 33% red-feather chickens, and 33% red/white-feather chickens.
D.25% white-feather chickens, 25% red-feather chickens, and 50% red/white-feather chickens
The Correct answer is D
Explanation:
According to the question, the hybrid chicken has a mixture of red and white feather phenotypes expressed at the same time. This tells us that the red and white alleles are CODOMINANT in the chicken i.e. none is dominant or recessive over the other.
Let's assume that (R) allele is the red feather colour while (r) allele is for white feather colour. Therefore, the red/white feathered chicken will have a Rr genotype. In a cross between two red/white feathered chicken (Rr), the following offsprings will be produced RR, Rr, Rr and rr
RR- Homozygous red feather d chicken (1/4 × 100=25%)
Rr- Hybrid Red/White feathered chicken (2/4 × 100=50%)
rr- Homozygous white feathered chicken (1/4 × 100=25%)
A gene is composed of two alleles. An allele can be either dominant or recessive. Suppose that a husband and wife, who are both carriers of the sickle-cell anemia allele but do not have the disease, decide to have a child. Because both parents are carriers of the dise ase, each has one dominant normal-cell allele (S) and one recessive sickle-cell allele (s). Therefore, the genotype of each es one allele to his or her offspring with each allele being equally likely Complete parts a) through c) below a) Genes are always written with the dominant gene first. Therefore, there are two instances the offspring could have genotype (one if the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father contributes the non-dominant allele, and one if the father contributes the dominant allele and the mother contributes the non-dominant allele) List the other two possible genotypes of the offspring b) What is the probability that the offspring will have sickle-cell anemia? In other words, what is the probability that the offspring will have genotype ss? Interpret this probability The probability is 1/4. This means that there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will have sickle-cell anemia c) What is the probability that the offspring will not have sickle-cell anemia but will be a carrier (one normal-cell allele and one sickle-cell allele)? Interpret this probability The probability is _____. This means there is a _____ % chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a carrier, but will not have sickle-cell anemia.
Answer: If a husband and wife who are both carriers of the sickle-cell anemia allele (Ss) but do not have the disease decide to have a child, the offspring can be Normal (SS), carrier (Ss) or sick (ss) with the probability ¼, 2/4 (½) and ¼ respectively.
Explanation: If the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father also contributes the dominant allele, the genotype of the child will be SS. The probability is ¼. This means there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a normal child and will not have sickle-cell anemia.
If the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father contributes the recessive allele, the genotype of the child will be Ss. The probability is 2/4 or ½. This means there is a 50% chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a carrier of sickle cell anemia, but will not have sickle-cell anemia.
If the mother contributes the recessive allele and the father also contributes the recessive allele, the genotype of the child will be ss. The probability is ¼. This means there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will have sickle cell anemia.
Check attached image for illustrations.
Note that the bladder is made up of a tissue called transitional epithelium. Research how the structure of this tissue type is perfect for the function of the bladder. PLTW LABORATORY JOURNAL Describe how cell shape differs when the bladder is full and when the bladder is empty.
Answer:
Cell changes shape from cuboid to squamous when the bladder gets full.
Also the transitional epithelium being flexible in terms of contraction and expansion are suitable for urinary bladder
Explanation:
Transitional epithelium is a stratified epithelium which means it consists of multiple layers of epithelial cells. These multiple layer of cells allows the epithelium to contract and expand as per the requirement of the organ. Since Urinary bladder stretch and change its shape continuously (when it becomes full or empty).
The shape of these cells also varies with the bladder state. When the bladder is empty, these cells are cuboid and when the bladder is full these cells gain flat shape just like squamous cells
Transitional epithelium in the bladder changes from a thick, multilayered, cuboidal appearance when empty to a thinner, squamous appearance when full, facilitating the bladder's function of storing variable urine volumes.
Explanation:The transitional epithelium is unique tissue found in the urinary bladder that facilitates its expansion and contraction as it fills and empties. When the bladder is empty, the transitional epithelium is composed of multiple layers that make it appear thicker due to convoluted and cuboidal-shaped apical cells. Conversely, as the bladder fills and stretches, the cells transition to a squamous appearance, and the tissue becomes thinner and less stratified, effectively accommodating larger volumes of urine.
Thus, the structural design of the transitional epithelium aligns perfectly with the function of the bladder, which demands high distensibility to store varying quantities of urine, ranging from nearly zero to 500-600 mL in adults.
A student has placed rabbit cells in a solution containing dissolved oxygen, glucose, calcium ions, water, and sodium ions. Which of these molecules do you expect will easily enter into the student's rabbit cells (via simple diffusion)?
A. calcium ions
B. glucose
C. sodium ions
D. oxygen
E. water
Answer:
The correct answer is D. oxygen
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is selectively permeable which means it allows the selective molecule to pass through it. The charged molecule is passed mainly through active transport.
Water molecules pass through a type of passive diffusion called osmosis. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide move through simple diffusion. When oxygen moves in the cell carbon dioxide moves out of the cell. In diffusion, the molecule moves down their concentration gradient so no energy is needed in it. So the correct answer is D.
Secondary succession occurs more quickly than primary succession mainly because ____.
a. disturbances in the community exposes more soil
b. rocky areas contain more minerals
c. nitrogen-fixing bacteria are present
d. sunlight is more available
e. improved soil is present from the start
Answer:
rocky areas contain more minerals
According to the __________ theoretical perspective on human sexuality, women and men are seen as being influenced by cultural messages about how we are to be sexual.
Answer:
The right answer to this question that fits the blank space is: interactionist
Explanation:
This interactionist theoretical perspective is mainly focused on the association that humans have with society, and how they can change that society, aswell as the society can change them, and when it comes to sexuality, these perspective studies how women and men are seen with their genres by society and how society can shape them.
True/False: If an action is involuntary, then it can still be irratinoal according to Sutherland's definition of irrational.
Answer:
True, an involuntary action is one which occurs without the conscious choice of an individual or organism.
Explanation:
Irrationality is described as an action or opinion given through inadequate use of reason, or though emotional distress or cognitive deficiency. Sutherland's physiological research on irrationality argued that irrational behavior is far more widespread and normal than is generally supposed. Sutherland explained that people were driven by irrational impulse rather than guided by reason.
Meredith’s baby is 2 weeks overdue. What is a potential hazard that the baby can experience because it is postmature?
Answer: Brain damage because of the inadequate blood supply from placenta.
Explanation:
The phase of post mature can be dangerous for the child. In this case there are chances that the baby might not get the adequate amount of blood from the placenta to the fetus.
The child might feel hypoxia inside the womb because the main source of oxygen is the placental blood. There can be lack of nutrients as well due to this reason.