Final answer:
A preliminary comparison of cure rates indicates a slight advantage for the medicated group over the non-medicated group, but statistical analysis is required to determine significance. The medicine's goal is to manage symptoms, as complete prevention is not typically achievable with current antivirals like oseltamivir.
Explanation:
To assess the effectiveness of the pharmaceutical company's new flu medicine, we can compare the cure rates between the group that received the medicine and the group that did not. In the medicated group, 29 out of 120 babies were cured within two days, giving us a cure rate of approximately 24.2%. In contrast, the non-medicated group saw 56 out of 280 babies cured, which translates to a cure rate of around 20%.
While there is a numerical difference between the cure rates of the two groups, to determine if this difference is statistically significant, a hypothesis test such as Chi-square or Fisher's exact test would usually be conducted. These tests would provide a p-value that, when compared against a chosen significance level (commonly 0.05), would indicate whether the observed difference in cure rates could be due to chance or if it is statistically significant. However, without further statistical analysis, we cannot make a definitive conclusion on the effectiveness of the medicine.
It is also important to note that antivirals like oseltamivir and other medications prescribed for flu symptoms work to reduce symptom duration and inhibit the spread of virus but are not curative. They are part of the recommended treatment protocols for managing flu symptoms along with prophylactic antimicrobials and over-the-counter drugs to alleviate fever and headache.
During the conversion of glucose into a free form of energy only a small percentage is converted into useable ATP. What is the rest of the energy converted into?
Explanation:
ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, is synthetic vitality the cell can utilize. The particle gives vitality to your cells to perform work, for example, moving your muscles as you stroll down the street.When ATP is separated into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate, vitality is discharged. ATP is converted into ADP which can be recycled back into ATP Is Converted into A waste product that The cell excretes ATP Is broken down into its individual parts and would need to be re-made Through metabolism to be used again. At the point when one phosphate bunch is expelled by breaking a phosphoanhydride bond in a procedure called hydrolysis, vitality is discharged, and ATP is changed over to adenosine diphosphate (ADP). ATP works as the vitality cash for cells. It permits the cell to store vitality quickly and transport it inside the cell to help endergonic concoction reactions.As ATP is utilized for vitality, a phosphate gathering or two are withdrawn, and either ADP or AMP is created.During the conversion of glucose into useable energy through cellular respiration, only a portion of the energy is converted into ATP, while the majority (approximately 60%) is converted into heat, which maintains our body temperature.
Explanation:During the conversion of glucose into a form of usable energy, which is the process of cellular respiration in our bodies, only a portion of this energy (about 40%) is converted into ATP (adenosine triphosphate). The rest of this energy (approximately 60%) is converted into heat.
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describe why Darwin's finches were different on each of the galapagos island
Answer: discovered several species of finches that varied from island to island, which helped him to develop his theory of natural selection. ... They also helped investigate evolutionary changes in Darwin's finches.
Explanation: native birds––14 of which make up the group known as Darwin’s finches. These finches are considered to be the world’s fastest-evolving vertebrates because their appearance and behavior quickly adapted to this closed and rapidly changing environment.
An experiment was conducted by Diane Dodd in which a single population of fruit flies was divided into two, with one of the populations fed with starch-based food and the other with maltose-based food. After the populations has diverged over many generations, the groups were again mixed; it was observed that the flies continued to prefer mating with others from the same original population. This process could eventually result in:___________.
Final answer:
An experiment was conducted by Diane Dodd in which a single population of fruit flies was divided into two, with one of the populations fed with starch-based food and the other with maltose-based food. After the populations has diverged over many generations, the groups were again mixed; it was observed that the flies continued to prefer mating with others from the same original population. This process could eventually result in:.speciation.
Explanation:
The experiment conducted by Diane Dodd involving fruit flies fed with starch-based food and maltose-based food showed that after many generations, the flies continued to prefer mating with others from the same original population. This process is known as assortative mating. Assortative mating can result in the formation of distinct populations within a species over time. These populations can eventually lead to speciation, where two different species emerge from a common ancestor.
The process described in Diane Dodd's experiment could eventually result in sympatric speciation.
Sympatric speciation is a mode of speciation that occurs when two populations of the same species share the same geographic range but become reproductively isolated from each other as a result of adapting to different ecological niches or behaviours within that range. In the case of Dodd's fruit fly experiment, the populations diverged due to differences in their diet, with one group adapted to starch-based food and the other to maltose-based food. Over many generations, these dietary preferences led to assortative mating, where flies preferentially chose mates that consumed the same type of food as they did.
Assortative mating can lead to reproductive isolation because it reduces gene flow between the two groups. If this process continues, the genetic differences between the two populations may accumulate to the point where they are considered separate species. This is because reproductive isolation is a key component of the biological species concept, which defines a species as a group of organisms that can reproduce with one another but not with members of other species.
In summary, the continued preference for mating with individuals from the same original population, as observed in Dodd's experiment, can lead to reproductive isolation and, ultimately, sympatric speciation, where two new species arise from a single ancestral species without any geographic barriers to gene flow.
the process which causes potholes in roads is called ______ when it occurs under glacial ice
Answer:
Expansion and Contraction of underneath or base water
Explanation:
When ice lands on a road, it weakens the soil beneath the pavement, cement by expansion. The slight varying temperatures that leads to the combination of contraction and expansion affects road this leading to potholes on road.
Answer:EXPLANATYION
Explanation:
ITS EASY
The genes for miniature wings (m) and garnet eyes (g) are approximately 8 map units apart on chromosome 1 in Drosophila. Phenotypically wild-type females (m + g / mg +) were mated to miniature-winged males with garnet eyes.
Which of the following phenotypic classes reflect offspring that were generated as a result of a crossover event?
1. garnet eyes
2. wild type
3 .miniature wings
4 .miniature wings, garnet eyes
Explanation:
Two types of posterity can be created subsequent to mating: parental and recombinant. Recombinants are created because of the traverse of non-sister chromatids at the hour of gamete arrangement. Here, mating happens between m+g/mg+ female and mg/mg male so the posterity would be separated as follows: m+g/mg : Parental mg+/mg : Parental m+g+/mg : Recombinant mg/mg : Recombinant m+g+/mg (wild sort) and mg/mg (smaller than usual wings, garnet eyes) are the recombinants thus they were created because of the hybrid occasion.Hence,the right answer is option 2 & 4 "wild type and miniature wings,garnet eyes"The "diving response" of the human body refers to the typical reaction of a person who submerges his/her face in cold water and is most characterized by...
Explanation:
The plunging reaction in human beings is described by breath-holding, easing back of the pulse (jumping bradycardia), decrease of appendage blood stream and a continuous ascent in the mean blood vessel circulatory strain. The bradycardia results from expanded parasympathetic upgrade to the cardiovascular pacemaker. Hydrostatic weight on the outside of the body because of head out drenching in water causes negative weight breathing which movements blood into the intrathoracic circulation. Animal hair is made of
a. amino acids.
b. rayon.
c. acetate.
d. polyvinyl chloride.
Answer: Option A) Amino acids
Explanation:
The animal hair has rich deposits of keratin, a protein that helps the hair stand erect, tough and rigid in its shaft.
And since protein are macromolecules made up of several units of amino acids, we can safely say animal hair is made of amino acids
Final answer:
Animal hair is made of proteins called keratins, which are formed by amino acids linked through peptide bonds; thus, the correct answer is a. amino acids.
Explanation:
Animal hair is primarily composed of proteins, which are naturally occurring polymers. These proteins, in the case of hair, are specifically known as keratins. Keratins are formed by amino acids that link together through peptide bonds in a process called a condensation reaction, where molecules of water (H₂O) are eliminated. Among the options provided, amino acids are the building blocks that, when bonded together, create the proteins that constitute animal hair. Thus, the correct answer to the question, 'Animal hair is made of,' is a. amino acids.
The threshold on a dose-response curve is the:_______.
a. point at which the dose of the drug causes maximal response.
b. lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of the drug.
c. safe effective dose of the drug.
d. therapeutic index of the drug.
Answer:
B. lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of the drug
Answer:
b. lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of the drug.
Explanation:
If an organism is exposed to a particular dose(concentration) of drug or chemical for a period of time, and one needs to measure the extent or degree of exposure from level of response of the organism to the dose,( to determine the potency, or adverse effect of the drug) the term used to describe this procedure is called dose-response relationship.
If it is possible to graph the the( log )dosage of the drug on( the x-axis) against the percentage response of the organism involved(on the y-axis), then it is possible to obtain a graphical representation of the magnitude of the response to the drug dosage in a Sigmoid curve shape. This representation is called dose-response curve.
Generally in most cases small doses of drugs do not produce toxic effects; however as dose increases, toxicity increases.However the minimum dose(drug concentration) at which toxicity first appears, that is where observable effects of the drug first noticed based on the response is called Threshold.
In an important experiment, radioactively labeled bacteriophages were allowed to infect bacteria. In the first trial, the phages contained radioactive DNA, and radioactivity was detected in the bacteria. Next, other phages containing radioactive protein were allowed to infect bacteria, and radioactivity was not detected in the bacteria. These experiments led to the conclusion that __________.
Answer:
In an important experiment, radioactively labeled bacteriophages were allowed to infect bacteria. In the first trial, the phages contained radioactive DNA, and radioactivity was detected in the bacteria. Next, other phages containing radioactive protein were allowed to infect bacteria, and radioactivity was not detected in the bacteria. These experiments led to the conclusion that genes of phage are made of DNA.
Explanation:
Bacteriophages are the viruses which infect the bacteria. They bind to the surface of bacteria and inject the inner core and genetic material in the bacteria.
As in the first trial, the phages contained radioactive DNA, and radioactivity was detected in bacteria, it clearly shows that genes of phage are made of DNA. While, on the other hand,other phages containing radioactive protein were allowed to infect bacteria, and radioactivity was not detected in the bacteria clearly indicating that protiens are not entering the bacteria.
Answer:
The correct answer is: the genetic material of the phage is DNA.
Explanation:
In the experiments performed, the phages from the first trial contained radioactive DNA, while the phages from the second trial contained radioactive protein. If radioactivity was only detected in the bacteria that was infected by the phages from the first trial, but not in the bacteria from the second trial, the only possible explanation is that the genes in the bacteriophages were made of DNA much like the genes in bacteria.
Question 6
Darwin realized that Malthus’ ideas about human population growth applied even more to other organisms, such as ____.
a. tigers are overpopulating the earth.
b. mammals carefully raise one or two young per year.
c. insect populations grow unchecked each year.
d. cockroaches produce millions of eggs but only a few survive.
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
Charles Darwin applied Thomas Malthus' theories to organisms, with the best example being 'cockroaches produce millions of eggs but only a few survive'. This concept forms the basis of Darwin's belief in natural selection.
Explanation:Charles Darwin recognized that Thomas Malthus' theories related to human population growth were even more applicable to other types of organisms. The option that best aligns with this concept is 'd. cockroaches produce millions of eggs but only a few survive'. This is essentially the crux of Malthus' idea that resources such as food and habitat are limited, while populations have the potential to grow exponentially if unchecked. In nature, this leads to struggle for survival, and only a few organisms manage to survive and reproduce, illustrating Darwin's natural selection belief.
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What is true regarding cultivation and isolation of animal viruses?
Explanation:
The true is isolation of Animal virusesInfections are usually developed in embryonated eggs Viruses can be effortlessly developed on a strong medlum, for example, supplement agar with no different creatures present Viruses that cause human illnesses can't be developed in research center creatures Viruses can be effectively developed in fluid culture with no different life forms. Infection Isolation. Infection disengagement normally is completed by tissue culture or culture in embryonated chicken eggs (ECEs).Virus recognizable proof from cell societies would then be able to be directed by techniques, for example, immuno fluorescence and immuno peroxidase examines utilizing BTV-explicit monoclonal antibodies.Why is your respiratory system necessary for your body to live
Answer:
The respiratory system is necessary for an organism's body to live because it introduces oxygen-rich air, which is needed to perform vital functions, while at the same time promoting the elimination of carbon dioxide.
Explanation:
Oxygen (O₂) is necessary for life because it participates in the process of cellular respiration, a mechanism that allows the oxidation of glucose to form energy in the form of ATP.
The respiratory system is made up of a set of organs that carry air into the body and facilitate gas exchange, i.e. the entry of O₂ into the blood and the elimination of potentially harmful carbon dioxide (CO₂).
This exchange of gases occurs in structures called pulmonary alveoli, whose surface is located in relation to the pulmonary capillary vessels.
The entry of air into the lungs brings O₂ to the alveoli, which will diffuse into the pulmonary capillary for the process of hematosis or oxygenation of the blood. CO₂, a product of metabolism, leaves the capillary to the alveoli, to join the air that will be expelled during expiration.Both O₂ and CO₂ require a transport molecule in the blood, red blood cell hemoglobin, which binds the gases and allows them to be transported to and from the tissues.
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Because the Respiratory System is VERY necessary for you to live because your Respiratory System is what makes your Able to BREATH... Without The Respiratory System you Will DIE! ...
In many organisms, one set of chromosomes comes from the maternal parent, while the other set comes from the paternal parent. Similar chromosomes in these sets are said to be ________.
Answer: Homologous
Explanation:
Homologous pair of chromosomes are the pair of chromosome pair which are of same height, same length, same staining pattern, same centromere position for the genes with same corresponding loci.
In this pair of chromosome, one is inherited from the mother's body and the other is inherited from the father's body.
These pair of chromosomes are transferred from the parents to the children.
Final answer:
In sexually reproducing organisms, the similar chromosomes in a set that come from each parent are known as homologous chromosomes. They contain the same genes, although they may have different alleles. In humans, one set of chromosomes is inherited from each parent, including the sex chromosomes which determine the offspring's sex.
Explanation:
In sexually reproducing organisms, homologous chromosomes are similar chromosomes in a pair where one is inherited from the maternal parent and the other from the paternal parent. These chromosomes contain the same genes in the same order but may have different alleles. In humans, DNA is organized into 46 chromosomes, with one set of 23 coming from the mother (maternal chromosomes) and the other set from the father (paternal chromosomes). The 22 pairs of autosomal chromosomes have genes present at the same locations. The last pair, the sex chromosomes, determine the phenotypic sex of an individual with XX individuals typically developing into females and XY into males.
In industry, microorganisms are often cultured in an environment where ideal conditions are maintained through continual nutrient provision and waste renewal. Such a system is called a _______.
Answer: Continuous Culture
Explanation:
In industry, a continuous culture is maintained by providing the nutrient on time and removing the waste materials on time so that the optimum conditions inside the medium is maintained.
It is done to minimize the efforts which is required when the preparation is done to prepare the nutrient and inoculate the bacterial species.
Then by the time the bacterial species starts growing and then the useful product is extracted. In order to save the time and efforts the nutrient is supplied and waste materials is removed along with the useful products.
While cleaning the leaves from a sheltered flowerbed, I observed a small patch of brightly colored, yellow/orange stuff apparently growing on some rotting wood. Taking a sample to my lab, I discover that the stuff is alive and coenocytic (is comprised of a single mass of cytoplasm undivided by membranes and contains many nuclei). The organism that I have found is most likely ___.
Answer:
plasmodial slime mold
Explanation:
The organism that best fits this description is a plasmodial slime mold. They are a group of eukaryotic organisms that can either live singly or in colonies.
They are basically single celled organisms with several nuclei aggregating in a mass. When several flagellated cells fuse together, they yield a single cytoplasm with several nuclei. They feed on micro-organisms and are ubiquitous in nature.What are the products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the calvin cycle?
Answer:
The correct answer is ATP and NADPH
Explanation:
During the light reaction, the light energy is absorbed by the chlorophyll pigment present in the thylakoid membrane which moves through different electron acceptors and allows the formation of NADPH and ATP.
This ATP and NADPH get utilized into the Calvin cycle during carbon fixation, reduction and regeneration steps. This utilization converts ATP and NADPH into ADP and NADP+. The energy released by them is used to fix carbon to produce organic compounds. Therefore the correct answer is ATP and NADPH.
Due to physical constraints, maximizing one life history trait (e.g. height) often comes at the expense of another (e.g. longevity); the allocation between such desirable but incompatible traits is known as:__________a) life history
b) growth and development
c) trade offs
d) all of the above
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C.
Explanation:
Trade off is the allocation in which one trait or character is only achieve by the expense of the other character and traits of life history due to some type of natural phenomenon.
The example of such trade off is given in the question where one of the life history trait such as height come at stake of longevity, due to physical constraints.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
Imagine a poison was ingested that destroyed the hypothalamic cells that produce TRH (thyroid-releasing hormone). The effects on the anterior pituitary and thyroid glands would result in
The release of thyroid stimulating hormone i.e. TSH from the anterior pituitary will be decreased and in turn thyroid glands will not release thyroxine in adequate amounts.
Explanation:
Hypothalamus secretes certain hormones that triggers the release of certain hormones from the pituitary glands. Among these hypothalamic hormones , Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) is responsible for stimulating the release of TSH and prolactin from anterior pituitary. If hypothalamic cells are damaged ,TRH will not be released and thus TSH and thyroid hormone secretion will also decrease.
Which of the following is the correct description of a myocardial infarction and what it is caused by? View Available Hint(s) Which of the following is the correct description of a myocardial infarction and what it is caused by? A region of heart muscle dies due to a lack of glucose supply. A region of heart muscle becomes overly active. A region of heart muscle dies due to a lack of blood supply. A region of muscle becomes inactive due to a lack of neuronal stimulation.
Explanation:
Heart is one of the most essential organ in the human body as it is responsible for supplying nutrients and oxygen to all the parts of the body and collecting waste materials and carbon dioxide from all the parts of the body through the blood.The cells (fibroblasts, cardiomyocytes, etc.) of the heart itself are provided with the nutrients and oxygen by a specialized blood vessel called the Coronary Artery.Waste materials and carbon dioxide are removed from the cells of the heart by another specialized blood vessel called the Coronary Vein.Due to aging or consumption of excess fat and cholesterol rich food, the concentration of lipid molecules in blood get increased beyond normal. These lipid molecules get deposited in the walls of the arteries, including the coronary artery, forming plaques, resulting in the development of atherosclerosis.This reduces the diameter of the arteries, including the coronary artery, thereby reducing the blood flow through them.Due to plaque deposition, the coronary artery is incapable for carrying sufficient oxygen and nutrients to the heart cells, causing their death.This results in the development of a sharp pain in the chest that is diagnosed as Heart Attack or Myocardial Infarction.The semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the _____.
Answer:
The semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles.
Explanation:
The semilunar valves are valves found at the junction between the left ventricle and the aorta and also between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery. They are cup-like in shape and prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles which are the pumping chambers.
There are two types of semilunar valves. The aortic semilunar valves and the pulmonary semilunar valves. They are made up of the endocardial and connective tissue.
The closure of the semilunar valves causes the second heart sound detected on the stethoscope.
Diseases that arise from the semilunar valves are caused by its stenosis which is the narrowing of the valves and regurgitation where the heart valves can no longer hold firm enough to prevent the backflow of blood.
Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the aorta and the pulmonary artery.
Explanation:The semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the aorta and the pulmonary artery. These valves are located between the ventricles and the major arteries leaving the heart. When the ventricles contract, the semilunar valves open to allow blood to be ejected into the arteries. However, when the ventricles relax, the semilunar valves close to prevent blood from flowing back into the heart.
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The enzyme acetylcholinesterase, located in the synaptic cleft and on the postsynaptic membrane, breaks ACh down into acetate and choline, thereby stopping the stimulation of a postsynaptic cell.True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The action of aceetylcholine in the synaptic cleft is normally terminated by metabolism to acetate and choline by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase and the stimulation of the post-synaptic cell is stopped.
This esterase is anchored to the postsynaptic cell but acts extracellularly.
The products of acetylcholinesterase are not released , infact they are reabsorbed to make more ACh.
Hence, the statement the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, located in the synaptic cleft and on the postsynaptic membrane, breaks ACh down into acetate and choline, thereby stopping the stimulation of a postsynaptic cell is true.
The statement about the role of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase breaking down Acetylcholine (ACh) in the synaptic cleft to halt stimulation of postsynaptic cells is accurate. (True)
Explanation:The enzyme acetylcholinesterase, located in the synaptic cleft and on the postsynaptic membrane, does indeed break Acetylcholine (ACh) down into acetyl and choline.
This action stops the stimulation of a postsynaptic cell which prevents unwanted extended muscle contraction. This is due to the ACh no longer being bound to the ACh receptors as seen in neurotransmission.
Acetylcholinesterase plays a crucial role in ensuring that ACh does not rebind to a receptor and reopen its channel, which might result in unwanted extended muscle excitations and contractions.
Once neurotransmission has occurred, neurotransmitters need to be removed from the synaptic cleft to ensure that the postsynaptic membrane can be 'reset' and ready to receive another signal. This can be achieved through the neurotransmitter degrading by enzymes in the synaptic cleft.
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Which of the following vaccines should NOT be stored frozen? Group of answer choices Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine Varicella vaccine Zoster vaccine live Measles, mumps, rubella vaccine
Answer:
Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
Explanation:
This is a liquid vaccine, and these types of vaccines should not be frozen, because if they do they lose their potency and no longer protect the individual from infections. In fact when these types off vaccines are frozen they can cause local reactions such as sterile abscesses.
oldest fossils usually: _____.1. are found in the deepest strata 2. have the longest half-lives 3. are found in sediments formed during the Cenozoic era 4. contain more radioactive isotopes than younger fossils 5. are found above younger fossils
Answer:
Option (1)
Explanation:
According to the law of superposition, the rocks that are found at the bottom of an undisturbed sedimentary sequence are the oldest rocks as these layers are initially formed due to the process of deposition, sedimentation and lithification, and with progressive sedimentation, the rock layers that are formed at the the apex portion are the youngest rocks.
So, the fossils found in bottom rocks are the oldest fossils, and those fossils that are found in the top layer are considered to be the youngest fossils.
Thus, the oldest fossils are the ones that are found in the deepest strata.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (1).
The oldest fossils usually are found in the deepest strata. Therefore, option A is correct.
The principle of superposition, a fundamental concept in geology and paleontology, states that in undisturbed rock layers, the oldest rocks and fossils are located at the bottom, while younger ones are found towards the top. This is due to the sequential deposition of sedimentary layers over time.
As new sediment accumulates, older layers are buried deeper, resulting in older fossils being found in deeper strata. Therefore, the oldest fossils are typically discovered in the deepest layers of rock or sediment. Thus, option A is correct.
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Two species of tree frogs occupy different elevations in the canopy of a rain forest. If these frogs with strikingly different patterns of coloration but similar patterns of activity are brought together, they can produce offspring that survive to adulthood and can then mate successfully with individuals of either species. What keeps these frogs recognizably distinct?
1. Lack of hybrid fertility
2. Temporal isolation
3. Mechanical isolation
4. Habitat Isolation
5. Lack of hybrid viability
Answer:
4. Habitat Isolation
Explanation:
Habitat isolation is a type of prezygotic reproductive barrier or isolation that occurs when two similar populations that can interbreed successfully are prevented from mating with each other as a result of being isolated by habitat. That is, they occupy different habitats. This is what keeps these frogs recognizably distinct.
Thyroid hormone is essential for the synthesis of β adrenergic receptors; therefore, in the absence of thyroid hormone, epinephrine cannot trigger bronchodilation. This concept is known as __________.
Explanation:
In endocrinology, tolerance is a biochemical wonder wherein the nearness of one hormone is required all together for another hormone to apply its full consequences for an objective cell. Hormones can communicate in lenient, synergistic, or hostile ways. glycoproteins,steroids, polypeptides and amines are the chemical classes of hormone.Permissive hormones are precursor to active hormones and are called as prohormones or prehormones.why is the modification or change in an organ or tissue during the lifetime of an individual is not inherited?
Answer: It is because the organ change is acquired and not inherited
Explanation:
Genetics explains that only traits inherited from parents can also be passed down to offspring since they are carried in the genes. Hence, other traits acquired as a result of organisms trying to survive in an environment are acquired traits, and cannot be passed down to offspring.
Changes within an individual's lifetime such as those associated with lifestyle or environment are not usually inherited because they do not alter the DNA code that's passed onto offspring. The concept of inheriting such changes known as Lamarckian inheritance, has largely been invalidated. Mutations that occur naturally during DNA replication can add to genetic variance but they are unrelated to an individual's experiences.
Explanation:The reason that a modification or change in an organ or tissue during an individual's lifetime is not inherited is largely due to the nature of genetic inheritance and evolution. Traits and genetic characteristics are passed down from generation to generation through DNA which exists in every cell in an organism's body and is locked in at conception. Change during an individual's lifetime can occur in the form of epigenetic modifications which are changes in how genes are expressed or activated, not changes in the genetic code itself. Although these epigenetic changes can be influenced by the environment and can even have long-lasting effects on an individual, they are not transferred to offspring via sexual reproduction.
Lamarckian inheritance, which proposed the inheritance of acquired traits, such as strength gained from physical labor or knowledge from learning, has been largely disproven. DNA replication and mutation, which are responsible for transferring genetic traits from parents to offspring, can't be influenced by the experiences or lifestyle of an organism, aside from certain cases like DNA damage through exposure to toxins or radiation. Mutations can arise naturally during DNA replication and can add variations to a population's gene pool, but these changes don't reflect the experiences or changes an organism goes through in its lifetime. Instead, they are the result of random genetic changes.
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A new microorganism has been isolated from hot springs in Yellowstone National Park. It consists of single cells, which appear to lack a nucleus. Chemical analysis shows the presence of both DNA and RNA in the cytoplasm and peptidoglycan in the cell wall. In which of the following groups will this organism be classified?a. Fungi
b. Bacteria
c. Archaea
d. Protists
e. Plants
Answer: B- Bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria are infinitesimal organisms that have single cells that grow in different atmospheres. They have an easily understood inside arrangement. Their cells are normally surrounded by two shielding coverings which are an external cell continuous vertical structure and a cell pliable sheet-like structure acting as a boundary inside. However, some bacteria do have a third shielding sheet furthest from the center named the capsule.
Answer:
b. Bacteria
Explanation:
Bacterias have following characteristics :
Simplest organisms with a very small size.Lack membrane bound organellesUnicellularLack nucleus and contain genetic information in a circular loop called plasmid.Cell wall contains peptidoglycanContains both DNA and RNA.Hence option b) Bacteria is the right option,
It cannot be fungi because their cell wals contain chitin. It cannot be arcahe, protists or plants because all of them have a nucleus.
An acute non-contagious respiratory tract infection that produces severe pneumonia-like symptoms caused by bacteria that thrive in warm aquatic environments and are inhaled through contaminated aerosolized water droplets is known as:_______.
Streptococcus infection carries all the symptoms mentioned.
Explanation:Streptococcus pneumoniae and Diplococcus pneumoniae are the organisms that gram positive bacteria. These bacteria enters the respiratory system from droplet method propagation which is through aerosol or water droplet inhalation which are infected with these bacteria. These bacteria leads to the severe antigen antibody reaction inside lungs which leads to high rate of mucous secretion. This leads to formation of pneumonia.
These bacteria are mainly seen in tropical countries with warm climate and humid environment. These bacteria doesn't spread through contagious methods like touching. But the protection must be taken as these patients cough can contain lakhs of these bacteria which are enough to infect a healthy individual.
Legionella infection
Explanation:
Legionella genus of bacteria are pathogenic gram-negative bacteria. The species Legionella pneumphila causes legionella infection which leads to legionellosis.
Legionellosis includes both the flu-like Pontiac disease as well as the acute highly severe pneumonia called the Legionnaires.
Legionellosis occurs when water droplets or aerosolized water contaminated with Legionella species is inhaled. These bacteria mostly are present in aquatic environment and can thrive and survive in water with warm temperatures.
Legionella infections are non-contagious and does not spread from person to person but only spreads through inhalation of contaminated water droplets.
Legionnaires causes lung inflammation and severe pneumonia and if untreated can also be fatal
.
Compare asexual and sexual reproduction. Place each sentence into the correct box. Amoeba reproduce by dividing into two cells. Cherry trees can be grown from cherry seeds. Pineapple plants can be grown from stem cuttings. Hydras reproduce by budding. Chickens reproduce by laying eggs. Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
Answer:
Sexual and asexual reproduction are the defined methods of progeny production.
Explanation:
The process that accounts for the production of the progeny from a single parent is called asexual reproduction. The process of gamete fusion and change in the chromosome number is absent in this process. Some of the well known approach of this process includes binary fission, vegetative propagation and budding.
It includes the following sentences.
Amoeba reproduce by dividing into two cells(via binary fission). Pineapple plants can be grown from stem cuttings.(Vegetative propagation) Hydras reproduce by budding.
The process is sexual reproduction is characterized by the presence of gamete fusion step. The phenotype differentiation illustrates the presence of sexual diamorphism in such organism. In the plant system the formation of seeds is a characteristic of sexual reproduction mainly via pollination.
It includes the following process
Chickens reproduce by laying eggs. Cherry trees can be grown from cherry seeds.Asexual reproduction involves new individuals produced from a single parent organism without gametes, while sexual reproduction involves fusion of gametes from two parent organisms. Amoeba dividing and hydras budding are examples of asexual reproduction, while chicken laying eggs, cherry trees growing from seeds, and pineapple plants growing from stem cuttings are examples of sexual reproduction.
Explanation:In asexual reproduction, new individuals are produced from a single parent organism without the involvement of gametes. An example of asexual reproduction is when an amoeba divides into two cells.
Sexual reproduction, on the other hand, involves the fusion of gametes from two parent organisms to produce offspring. Examples of sexual reproduction include cherry trees growing from seeds and chickens reproducing by laying eggs.
So, the correct comparison would be:
Asexual reproduction: Amoeba reproduces by dividing into two cells and hydras reproduce by budding.Sexual reproduction: Cherry trees can be grown from cherry seeds, pineapple plants can be grown from stem cuttings, and chickens reproduce by laying eggs.Learn more about reproduction here:https://brainly.com/question/2899858
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In a population with two alleles, B and b, the allele frequency of b is 0.4. B is dominant to b. What is the frequency of individuals with the dominant phenotype if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Answer:
The frequency of the number of individuals with the dominant phenotype is 0.84
Explanation:
in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation, p & q are used to represent the frequency of alleles in a population.
Frequency = Total No of 1 allele / total alleles
if frequency of p allele = 0.6
therefore p + q = 1 ==> q = 0.4
To get these frequencies, square (p + q)
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
The proportion of individuals that are homozygous dominant for B allele is p²
P² = 0.6 x 0.6 = 0.36
The proportion of individuals that are heterozygous for B and b alleles is 2pq
2pq = 2 x 0.6 x 0.4 = 0.48
The frequency of number of individuals with dominant female type
= 0.36 + 0.48 = 0.84
Using the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if the frequency of the b allele is 0.4 hence the frequency of the B allele is 0.6. The dominant phenotype (BB or Bb) frequency would be 0.84 or 84% of the population.
Explanation:The student's question is related to the topic of population genetics, specifically the use of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to calculate allele and phenotype frequencies. The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium predicts that the frequency of alleles in a population will remain constant over generations unless influence by certain factors such as mutation, selection, or genetic drift.
In this case, the frequency of the b allele is provided (0.4), meaning the frequency of the dominant B allele can be determined by subtracting the b allele frequency from 1 (as total frequency is always 1 in this model). Therefore, the frequency of the B allele is 0.6.
The frequency of individuals with the dominant phenotype (BB or Bb) can be calculated as p^2 +2pq where p refers to the frequency of the dominant allele B and q refers to the frequency of the recessive allele b, which gives 0.6^2 + 2*0.6*0.4 = 0.36 + 0.48 = 0.84. Therefore, 84% of individuals in the population would express the dominant phenotype if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Learn more about Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium here:https://brainly.com/question/33720451
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