Answer:
Parental generation
F1 offsprings
Hybrid/heterozygous
Explanation:
A true breeding plant will always produce the same trait of a given gene when self-crossed. A truebreeding plant is also referred to as Homozygous because it contains identical alleles of a gene. Hence, they undergo meiosis or gamete formation to produce gametes containing the same allelic content.
When two truebreeding plants with two different traits for the same gene i.e. homozygous for different alleles of a gene, are crossed. They are referred to as the Parent or P generation. Their first offsprings called F1 (first filial) offsprings will possess a mixture or combination of the two parental alleles, hence, the F1 offsprings are called hybrids or are said to be heterozygous.
In Mendel's pea experiment, the true-breeding parent plants are called the P₁ generation, and the offspring are the F₁ generation, which are always heterozygous for the contrasting trait.
Explanation:In a typical pea experiment like those conducted by Gregor Mendel, two true-breeding plants with distinct traits of a single character are called the P₁ or the parental generation. These plants were homozygous, meaning they had two identical alleles for the trait he was studying. The offspring produced from the cross of these P₁ plants are referred to as the F₁, or the first filial generation. These F₁ plants, as a result of the P₁ cross, will always be heterozygous for the contrasting trait, which means that genetically, they carry different alleles for the gene under consideration.
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7.
What are the 3 checkpoints normal cells go through to prevent unregulated cell division?
Answer:
The three cell cycle checkpoints are:
G1 CheckpointG2 CheckpointSpindle CheckpointExplanation:
Cell Cycle Checkpoints:
Cell cycle checkpoints are regulatory points at which the current state of the cell is assessed to determine whether the cell cycle can continue or not.
The G1 checkpoint confirms the cells entry into the mitotic phase; it commits the cells for division. If a cell passes G1 checkpoint, it will continue in the cell cycle until it divides into two daughter cells. This checkpoint checks DNA damage, the presence of adequate nutrients and suitable cell size. The G2 checkpoint operates at the G2/M transition. It checks DNA damage and assesses whether DNA has completely and successfully replicated during the S-phase. If DNA damage is detected, DNA repair mechanisms are activated.The spindle checkpoint assesses whether all chromatids have successfully attached to the spindle fibers. This is a crucial checkpoint as the integrity of cell division depends on the correct number of chromosomes received by each daughter cell.What type of stress is most likely to occur at this
boundary?
O shearing
syncline
tension
compression
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
'The San Andreas Fault is the boundary between two of Earth's tectonic plates: the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate. This boundary is a transform boundary. The Pacific Plate is moving to the north and west, while the North American Plate is moving to the south and east."
What type of stress is most likely to occur at this boundary?
(1) shearing
(2) syncline
(3) tension
(4) compression
Answer:
Option (1)
Explanation:
Shear stress is usually defined as stress that occurs due to the force acting on the rocks that allow the material to get deformed. This takes place because of the slippage taking place along the planes or the planes that are parallel to the applied stress. This results in the downward movement of fault blocks and leads to the occurrence of earthquakes.
This shear stress occurs in the transform type of plate boundary where the two plates slide past one another. For example, the San Andreas fault.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
The answer is A. Good luck!
~ V.
What happens to contraction of a muscle cell if some of the Ca2+ that was released during a contraction is still in the cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) when the next stimulus arrives? Group of answer choices The muscle contracts with the same tension generated as during the first contraction, because muscles contract in an all-or-none fashion. The muscle contracts with the same tension generated as during the first contraction, because the number of cross-bridges formed is always the same during a contraction. The muscle contracts with greater tension generated because there will be more Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm after the second stimulation, which will bind to more troponin molecules. The muscle contracts with greater tension generated because more troponin molecules bound means greater myosin-binding sites (active sites) are revealed on the actin, leading to a larger number of cross-bridges formed.
Explanation:
Calcium stays in the sarcoplasmic reticulum until discharged by an improvement. Calcium at that point ties to troponin, causing the troponin to change shape and expel the tropomyosin from the coupling destinations. Cross-connect stick proceeds until the calcium particles and ATP are never again accessible. ATP is basic to get ready myosin for official and to "revive" the myosin. When the actin-restricting destinations are revealed, the high-vitality myosin head overcomes any issues, framing a cross-connect. When myosin ties to the actin, the Pi is discharged, and the myosin experiences a conformational change to a lower vitality state. As myosin consumes the vitality, it travels through the "power stroke," pulling the actin fiber toward the M-line.Given equal probabilities of a boy or girl at birth, what is the probability that a group of three siblings includes: Exactly two boys? Exactly three boys? Two or more boys?a. 1/2, 1/8, 5/8b. 3/8, 1/8, 1/2c. 1/8, 1/8, 1/4d. 1/4, 1/4, 1/2
Answer:
3/8, 1/8, 1/2.
Explanation:
Probability may be defined as the chance of the occurring of a particular event.
The probability of a girl and a boy is 1/2.
The group of three siblings means there sample size could be
BBB, BGB, BBG, GBB, GGG, GBG, GGB, BGG. ( B = boy and G = girl).
Probability = No. of possible outcome / total outcome.
The probability of exactly two boys = BGB, BBG, GBB = 3/8.
The probability of exactly three boys = BBB = 1/8.
The probability of two boys = BBB, BGB, BBG, GBB = 4/8 = 1/2.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The probability of having exactly two boys is 3/8, exactly three boys is 1/8, and having two or more boys is 1/2. Option B is correct.
To calculate the probability of different combinations of boys and girls within a group of three siblings, given that the probability of having either a boy or a girl is equal (1/2), we can use the binomial distribution.
For exactly two boys, there are three different combinations (BBG, BGB, GBB), each with a probability of (1/2) x (1/2) x (1/2) = 1/8. So the probability for exactly two boys is 3 x (1/8) = 3/8.
For exactly three boys, there is only one combination: BBB, with a probability of (1/2) x (1/2) x (1/2) = 1/8.
For two or more boys, we can add the probabilities for exactly two boys and exactly three boys, which is 3/8 + 1/8 = 4/8 = 1/2.
The correct set of probabilities is B. 3/8, 1/8, 1/2.
Polypeptide and monoamine hormones typicallya. bind with receptors in the cell nucleus. b. bind with receptors in the cell membrane. c. produce their effects within seconds following secretion. d. bind with low affinity to receptors.
When an enzyme is involved in a catabolic reaction A. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, lowering the activation energy, and breaking the bond. B. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together, lowering the activation energy, and creating a bond. C. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, stressing the bond, increasing the activation energy, and breaking the bond. D. its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, creating a bond by increasing the activation energy. E. None of the above.
Answer:
Option-A
Explanation:
Enzymes are the protein molecules which speed up the chemical reaction in the organism and thus are known as the biocatalyst.
The enzymes are the tertiary structure of the proteins that is they are the globular form of the proteins. The globular structure contains an active site which is a pore-like structure to which the substrate molecules bind by forming a weak bond. This state is known as the transition stage which is higher in energy.
The formation of this transition state or enzyme-substrate complex lowers the threshold energy of reaction called activation energy and thus speed the reaction.
In the given question since the catabolic reaction involves the breaking of the bonds of the large molecules therefore the enzymes facilitate the breaking of the bond.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.
In catabolic reactions, enzymes bind substrates and change shape, bringing them close together.
Explanation:When an enzyme is involved in a catabolic reaction, its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together. This proximity of the substrates lowers the activation energy required for the reaction, facilitating the formation of a bond. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Its active site binds the substrates and changes shape, bringing them close together, lowering the activation energy, and creating a bond.
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Two parts of the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle affect the human host in the follow ways. The ...................is responsible for the clinical symptoms of malaria in one human host, and the.................... releases spores into the human's blood that make it possible for the malaria to be passed on to a......................and then to another human
Answer:
Asexual portion, sexual portion and mosquito.
Explanation:
Plasmodium species is known to cause malaria in humans. The anopheles is the primary host for the plasmodium and humans acts as the secondary host for the plasmodium.
The secondary host is important for the asexual reproduction that occurs in the humans and causes clinical symptoms. The sexual reproduction occurs with the help of spores that occurs in the human blood. The disease can pass from one human to the other human by the mosquito biting.
Thus, the answer is asexual portion, sexual portion and mosquito.
Answer:
As exual portion, s exual portion and mosquito.
Explanation:
According to the __________, a species is a group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce viable, fertile offspring—but do not produce viable, fertile offspring with members of other such groups.
Answer:
biological species concept
Explanation:
The biological species concept is the most commonly used and acceptable definition of species, which explains that a group of organisms can be referred to a species if members of the group can interbreed successfully to produce viable offspring that are also fertile. It explains that there tend to be reproduction barriers that would prevent different species of organism from successfully interbreeding. Also, that two organisms have the same appearance, do not necessarily mean they belong to the same species. For example, a horse and a donkey were interbreed to produce an offspring called the mule, but, the mule was found to be infertile. A horse and a donkey are different species, even though they have close appearance.
According to the biological species concept in Biology, a species is a group of populations that can interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring with members of the same species.
Explanation:In Biology, according to the biological species concept, a species is a group of populations whose members have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce viable, fertile offspring, but do not produce viable, fertile offspring with members of other such groups. This concept focuses on reproductive compatibility as the defining characteristic of a species.
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Which disease is distinguished by the presence of reed-sternberg cells?
Answer:
Hodgkin lymphoma is a disease which is distinguished in the presence of reed-sternberg cells.
Explanation: Hodgkin lymphoma is a kind of cancer disease in which cancer disease grows from a special type of white blood cells known as lymphocytes. Sweat at night, high fever and reduction of weight are symptoms of this disease. Reed-sternberg cells are a type of abnormal lymphocytes having more than one nucleus.
Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and is diagnosed by a biopsy and microscopic examination.
Explanation:The disease distinguished by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is Hodgkin lymphoma. These are distinctive, large cancer cells that may contain more than one nucleus. To diagnose this condition, a biopsy of lymphatic tissue is typically performed, and the sample is examined under a microscope for the presence of these cells.
Hodgkin lymphoma is one of two main types of lymphoma, the other being non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL), which has various subtypes. Hodgkin lymphoma can occur in both older individuals and younger adults, and timely diagnosis and treatment are important for the most effective outcomes.
Which of the following ancillary or supportive criteria is addressed in this statement: Infants who are put to bed prone less than half the time have an increased incidence of SIDS compared to those who are never put to bed prone. Those who are always put to bed prone have an increased incidence of SIDS compared to those who are put to bed prone less than half the time.
A. Consistency.
B. Biological plausibility.
C. Strength of the association.
D. Dose-response relationship.
Answer:
The answer is D- Dose-response relationship
Explanation:
A dose-response relationship is an association between dose and incidence in which an increasing level of exposure will either lead to an increase or decrease of an incident or outcome. For instance, in the scenario given the dose or exposure will be the time the infants are put to bed prone while the response is the level of incidence of SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome).
Final answer:
The statement refers to the dose-response relationship in the context of SIDS incidence related to infants being put to bed prone.
Explanation:
The statement you’ve provided addresses the dose-response relationship, which is option (D). This criterion refers to the association between the frequency or intensity of exposure to a certain factor and the likelihood of a particular outcome. In this case, the factor is infants being put to bed prone (on their stomachs), and the outcome is the incidence of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). The statement suggests that there is a dose-response effect, where the more frequently infants are put to bed prone, the greater their risk of SIDS. Those put to bed prone less than half the time have an increased incidence compared to those who are never put to bed prone, and those who are always put to bed prone have an even higher incidence of SIDS.
Sandy has a huge crush on Casey. When he is nearby, Sandy doesn't pay attention to anything or anyone else. Psychologist Donald Broadbent explained that we selectively attend to the most important information in _________ model he developed.
Answer:
The most important information in this model he developed is the "filter theory."
Explanation:
Filter theory is a description of desirability planned by Kerchoff and Davies (1962). This concept proposes that individuals advance associations by smearing a sequence of filters, such as resemblance of communal demographic issues and arrogance and complementary of wants to slender down the pool of obtainable candidates. Filter theory is a sociological theory concerning dating and mate selection. It proposes that social structure limits the number of eligible candidates for a mate. Most often, this takes place due to homogamy, as people seek to date and marry only those similar to them.
"Sometimes during DNA replication a change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, which is called a mutation, can occur. There are various reasons why mutations occur. In certain instances, a chemical called _______ can increase the mutation rate."
Answer: Mutagen
There are various reasons why mutations occur. In certain instances, a chemical called mutagen can increase the mutation rate."
Explanation:
A mutagen is a chemical agent that changes the genetic material, usually DNA, of an organism and this increases the frequency of mutations above the natural background level.
Other causes of mutation include:
- error in DNA replication, repair and recombination
A chemical that can increase the mutation rate during DNA replication is called a mutagen. Mutagens include various environmental factors, such as chemicals and radiation, and can lead to induced mutations in the DNA sequence.
Explanation:During DNA replication, a change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, known as a mutation, can occur. While DNA polymerases proofread the nucleotide sequence, errors can still happen approximately once every 10⁷ nucleotides. Mutations can range from single nucleotide changes to large insertions or deletions. These changes can be benign or deleterious, possibly leading to diseases such as cancer if they occur in specific regulatory regions.
Mutations can arise spontaneously or be induced by environmental factors. Induced mutations are the result of exposure to mutagens such as chemicals, ultraviolet (UV) rays, x-rays, or other agents. Spontaneous mutations, however, occur without any exposure to these agents and are a result of natural reactions within the body. Chemicals that increase mutation rates are referred to as mutagens and can lead to a significantly higher rate of changes in the DNA sequence.
true or false? Stratified squamous epithelium forms the surface of the skin, the lining of the mouth, and the lining of the esophagus.
Answer: True
Explanation:
The type of epithelium well suits the areas where there is a constant abrasion, and due to this fact the toughest and the thickest layer can be sequentially sloughed off and will be replaced before the layers in the basement will be exposed.
It is the outermost layer of the skin, lining of the mouth, vagina and esophagus.
The given statement is true, that the area like esophagus, vagina and mouth are covered with stratified squamous epithelium.
Some people who score below average on intelligence tests have an island of brilliance, which refers to some incredible ability, such as heightened musical memory. This condition is known as _____.
When Elaine accidentally touched the hot stove, she immediately pulled her hand away without even having to think about it. This seemingly automatic movement of her hand could not have been possible without the effective operation of the ______________ nervous system.
Answer:
somatic
Explanation:
The somatic nervous system is one of the components of the peripheral nervous system. The somatic nervous system consists of nerves (sensory and motor nerves) which function in carrying motor and sensory information to and fro the central nervous system. The somatic nervous system is responsible for voluntary movements as well as reflex movements.
The automatic movement of Elaine’s hand could only be possible with the effective function of the somatic nervous system.
Dr. Haxton says the O-O bond is polar and the C-C bond is nonpolar. A good student would say ... a. No, both bonds are highly polar. b. Right! O is electronegative, so O2 is polar. c. Yes. O attracts electrons more strongly than C. d. No way. C is more electronegative than O. d. Wrong again, Ralph. Both bonds are nonpolar.
Answer:
d. Wrong again, Ralph. Both bonds are nonpolar
Explanation:
The bonds in "O-O" and "C-C" are covalent bonds. If one atom has a more tendency to attract the electrons, the bond becomes polar in nature. Here, the bonded electrons are more attracted to the more electronegative atom which in turn imparts it a partial negative charge. The other atom becomes partially positive. In the case of O-O and C-C, the same atoms are bonded together. When a covalent bond is formed between the same atoms, it is always non-polar as the bonded atoms have the same electronegativity.
Keeping in mind that the mouth is the first site of chemical digestion in a human. Your saliva starts the process of breaking down the food you eat. Keeping in mind, what organelle do you think would be numerous inside the cells of your mouth?
Lysosomes are found in the cell of our mouth.
Explanation:
As we already know that the first step in the chemical reaction of the digestion process starts from our mouth. The saliva is one of the gastric juices found in the mouth gets mixed with the food through the chewing process. Lysosomes in the cells of our mouth contain digestive enzymes and they are surrounded by the phospholipids membrane. Lysosomes are also used as the garbage bag of the cell. It allows the damaged molecules inside without leaking the digestive enzymes.The organelle that would be numerous inside the cell of the mouth would be the lysosome.
The process of food digestion starts in the mouth through the activities of digestive enzymes. These digestive enzymes are located in a small spherical and membraneous organelle known as the lysosome.
Lysosome represents the site of digestive enzymes such as nucleases, proteases, amylases, lipases, and so on.
Thus, lysosome should be numerous in the cells of the mouth going by the fact that digestion of foods starts in the mouth.
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) During the germinal period, the fertilized ovum duplicates and forms a blastocyst. This hollow ball of cells ________.
a. fills the amnion with fluid
b. develops a tail for movement
c. contains the embryonic disk
d. shrinks in size and is absorbed by the blood
Answer:
C - Contains the embryonic disk
Explanation:
After an egg is fertilized, it begins to divide into smaller cells, from the 1 cell stage, to 2, to 4 and so on. Then, on the third day, the cells fall within 16-200 cells and it is then called a morula.
On the fifth day, the morula becomes a ball of calls which is now differentiated into an inner cell mass and a trophectoderm. The inner cell mass becomes the embryo as development goes on and the trophectoderm, becomes the placenta.
As development goes on further, the floor of the amniotic cavity is formed by the embryonic disk, a layer of prismatic cells derived from the inner cell mass.
The embryonic disc develops into 3 layers:
EndodermMesodermEctodermThere is a major differentiation of cells which gives a template for the origin of development of specific organs of the embryo.
You have a U-shaped tube with a selectively permeable membrane that allows water to pass but not solutes. On the left side of the tube you have a 40% NaCl solution and on the right a 15% NaCl solution.
The NaCl in this example is considered the __________.
Answer:
Soulte
Explanation:
The compund which is in smaller amount in solution is considered as solute.NaCL is soulte and water is the solvent in the solution. The water moves from an area of higher potential to lower potential.The greater the solute in the solvent the lower the potential will be.40% NaCL have greater solute than 15% NaCL, So the water will move from left side towards the right side of tube.What category of drugs in the five-category system is reported to have fetal risks but can be used in a pregnant woman if the potential benefit outweighs the risk?
Answer:
Category D drugs
Explanation:
There are five categories of drugs, they include: categories A, B, C, D and X. Research shows that category D drugs have possible fetal risks, however, the potential benefits on the mothers still outweighs the risk. An example of a category D drug is Losartan.
Category A drugs have no evidence of risk on fetus, an example is folic acid.
Category B drugs also show no adequate evidence of risk on the fetus. An example is metformin.
Evidences shows Category X drugs have an adverse effect on the fetus, hence the risk outweighs the potential effect. An example is Methotrexate.
Why is it helpful for scientists to compate substrate samples in the arson case discussed in the video
Answer:
because they need to check if the burnt substrate had a gasoline or other flammable material.
Explanation:
Scientists need to compile substrate samples in the case of arson, because by analyzing the burnt substrate and analyzing the deepest substrate (which may not be burned), scientists can see if the fire started naturally or if it had human influence . This is because, if in the burned substrate they find substances of flammable material, such as gasoline, they will be able to prove that the fire was initiated by the action of human beings on purpose.
Darwin and Wallace developed similar theories of evolution independently; Newton and Leibnitz developed the calculus independently; Twitmyer discovered "Pavlovian" conditioning before Pavlov did. Such independent discoveries are attributed to which theory?a. syncopated
b. personalistic
c. naturalistic
d. Ortgeist
e. evolution
Final answer:
Independent scientific discoveries, such as those by Darwin and Wallace or Newton and Leibnitz, are attributed to the naturalistic theory, suggesting that the environment guides multiple individuals to the same conclusions. The correct option is c.
Explanation:
The phenomena of similar theories or discoveries being made independently by different people at around the same time can be attributed to the naturalistic theory. This theory suggests that scientific discoveries and advancements are largely influenced by the natural and social environment, leading multiple people to the same conclusions independently. Examples of this include Darwin and Wallace's development of theories of evolution, Newton and Leibnitz's development of calculus, and Twitmyer's discovery of "Pavlovian" conditioning before Pavlov.
Two alleles of a given gene exist in a population: CTGT and TGTC. (Note: The codes given are only for the transcribed strand of the DNA in the two alleles.) Three possible single crossover events are possible between these two alleles. As a result of the three different crossover events, how many total new alleles (new sequences of DNA) could be produced?
A. 3.
B. 4.
C. 5.
D. 6.
E. 12.
Explanation:
D. 6
There are two forms of the gene, CTGT and TGTC, called alleles. These have undergone 3 crossover events, which may create two separate copies.
Thus 2 × 3 (# of events)= 6 new alleles
The interchange of chromosome segments, including homologous non-sister or identical chromatids. Crossing over happens at chiasmata, where non-sister chromosomes are fused together.
Further Explanation:
DNA variants on chromosomes,may have different forms called alleles. DNA, which is a genotype, is transcribed into mRNA and then converted into amino acids that are linked together by rRNA to form proteins that make up the morphology of the individual.
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Final answer:
The total number of new alleles that could be produced from three possible single crossover events between CTGT and TGTC alleles is 6.
Explanation:
The total number of new alleles that could be produced from three possible single crossover events between CTGT and TGTC alleles is 6.
To calculate this, we need to consider all possible combinations resulting from each crossover event:
New allele 1: CTGT - TGTC
New allele 2: CCGT - TTTC
New allele 3: TCGT - CGTC
New allele 4: CTTC - TGCC
New allele 5: TTGT - CGTC
New allele 6: CCGT - TGTC
Therefore, a total of 6 new alleles can be produced from these crossover events.
Every person begins life as a single cell, which is called a _____. A. chromosome B. deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) C. zygote D. genotype
Answer:
The correct answer is C. zygote
Explanation:
Every person begins life as a single cell, which is called a zygote
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Thermal motion promotes lateral position exchanges between lipid moleculaes within a monolayer. In an artificial bilayer of lipids, this movement has been estimated to be ~ 2 um/second. On average, do you expect the lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane to be equally fast?
No, the lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane will not be equally fast as the movement of lipid molecule in a artificial lipid bilayer.
Explanation:
The artificial bilayers are taken as a model to study the biological bilayer in laboratories.The artificial bilayers differ greatly in composition from the true bilayers.The artificial bilayers are mostly made up of phospholipids and very less amount of sphingolipids. It lacks the integral protein and other molecules.The Biological membranes have integrated proteins and other molecules within the layer.These molecules offer resistance to the movement of lipids in the membranes. So, the speed of lipids in biological membrane cannot equally fast as their speed in artificial bilayer.Final answer:
The average lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane may be slower than 2 um/second due to constraints by proteins and structures within the membrane, despite rapid lateral diffusion observed in artificial bilayers.
Explanation:
The question asks about the lateral diffusion of lipid molecules in biological membranes compared to artificial bilayers. In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure, lipids and proteins have lateral freedom of movement within the lipid bilayer. The rate of lateral diffusion can be measured using techniques like FRAP (fluorescence recovery after photobleaching), where lipids are monitored as they return to a photobleached area. Biological membranes contain various proteins and structures that may restrict movement, such as lipid rafts, caveolae, and the cytoskeleton. Thus, the actual lateral diffusion rate in biological membranes might be affected by these constraints.
While lipids move rapidly laterally, the movement from one layer to another, or transverse diffusion, is significantly slower and usually requires enzymes like flippases for assistance. Considering these factors, we might expect that the lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane to be somewhat slower than the estimated 2 um/second in an artificial bilayer due to these biological constraints.
Another thermophile, Thermus aquaticus, was isolated from a hot spring in Yellowstone National Park. It is the source of the enzyme Taq polymerase, which is used in the molecular technique called polymerase chain reaction (PCR). PCR is used to amplify sequences of DNA. What extremophile characteristic of this enzyme makes it an essential component in a PCR reaction?a. Taq polymerase is stable under acidic or alkaline conditions.
b. Taq polymerase is stable under extremely cold temperatures.
c. Taq polymerase is heat-stable and can withstand high temperatures.
d. Taq polymerase is stable in solutions that are extremely high in salt.
Answer:
c. Taq polymerase is heat-stable and can withstand high temperatures.
Explanation:
The process of PCR amplifies a small amount of DNA into multiple copies. For the purpose, the sample DNA fragments are denatured at higher temperature conditions (around 95 degrees Celsius). This separates the two strands of the sample DNA which in turn serve as a template. Taq polymerase from a thermophile can withstand the extremes of the temperature conditions required for denaturation of sample DNA. Unlike the DNA polymerases from other organisms such as humans, Taq polymerase is not denatured at higher temperatures.
Therefore, Taq polymerase can be used as an enzyme of primer elongation to amplify the DNA by PCR.
Osteoblasts are cells that are involved in creating new extracellular matrix in bone.
a. The extracellular matrix of cartilage contains only one type of cell, which are the Chondroblasts.
b. The perichondrium is a structure that surrounds cartilage and contains the Chondrocytes.
c. Bones are continually remodeled, a process that requires that old bone matrix be broken down by Osteoclasts.
d. Lacunae of compact bone are occupied by mature Osteocytes.
Answer:
(C). Bones are continually remodeled, a process that requires that old bone matrix be broken down by Osteoclasts.
Explanation:
Osteoblasts synthesize and secrete the organic part and inorganic part of the extracellular matrix of collagen fibers and bone tissues. Osteoclasts remove bone structure by releasing lysosomal enzymes and acids that dissolve the bone matrix. These minerals released from the bones into the blood and help regulate calcium concentrations in the body fluids.
Chondroblasts and chondrocytes are involved in cartilage; perichondrium surrounds cartilage and contains chondrocytes; bones are remodeled by osteoclasts; lacunae of compact bone are occupied by osteocytes.
Explanation:a. The statement is incorrect. Cartilage contains both chondroblasts and chondrocytes. Chondroblasts are responsible for producing and maintaining the extracellular matrix, while chondrocytes are found within the matrix and are responsible for maintaining the health of the cartilage.
b. The statement is correct. The perichondrium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds cartilage and contains chondrocytes, which play a role in the growth and repair of cartilage.
c. The statement is correct. Bones undergo a process called remodeling, which involves the removal of old bone matrix by cells called osteoclasts. Osteoclasts break down the mineralized matrix, allowing for the subsequent formation of new bone.
d. The statement is incorrect. Lacunae of compact bone are occupied by osteocytes, which are mature bone cells. Osteocytes are responsible for maintaining the bone tissue.
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What concept, inspired by the work of Charles Darwin, proposes that the diversity of human cultures represent different stages of development, from simple to complex?
Answer:
cultural evolutionism
Explanation:
The evolutionary theory of cultural change can be described as cultural evolutionism. English anthropologists Tylor and Frazer and American anthropologist Morgan suggested that the vast diversity of cultures represented different stages in the evolution of human culture and were influenced by Charles Darwin.
These theories were of the idea that just as the theory of natural selection proposed by Darwin, the cultures also originated from a single one and divided into many forms with the passage of time.
In 1944 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed transformation experiments using live, harmless bacteria and extracts from virulent bacteria treated with various enzymes. Which of the following enzymes were used and why? (A) Proteases and RNases to rule out protein and RNA as the transforming factors (B) Lipase (an enzyme that facilitates the breakdown of lipids) to rule out lipoproteins as the transforming factor (C) Kinase (an enzyme that facilitates transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate molecule) to show that transformation is phosphorylation dependent (D) ATPase to show that transformation is not dependent on ATP
Answer:
Option-A
Explanation:
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed the experiment on the strains of S. pneumoniae used by the Griffith in the reformation experiment.
To know the chemical nature of the transforming principle which was expected to be a protein at that time, the solution was treated with a variety of biomolecule degrading enzyme-like RNases, DNases and proteases.
They found that the treatments with proteases and RNases has no effect on the process of transformation but the treatment with DNAses has stopped the process of transformation as it degraded the transforming principle and confirmed that DNA is the transforming material and is the heredity material.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty used enzymes including (option A) proteases and RNases to degrade proteins and RNA, showing that neither were the transforming principle. When DNA was degraded with DNAase, the transformation did not occur, identifying DNA as the carrier of genetic information.
Explanation:
In 1944 Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed transformation experiments to determine the nature of the "transforming principle" that allowed non-virulent bacteria to become virulent. They used specific enzymes to degrade different molecular components of the virulent bacteria. Proteases and RNases were used to rule out protein and RNA as the transforming factors, as treatments with these enzymes did not prevent the transformation. However, when the extracts were treated with DNAase, which degrades DNA, the transformation did not occur. This indicated that DNA was the necessary component for transformation and thus the carrier of genetic information.
Use caution and arrange to reduce the dose if a monoclonal antibody is combined with any other ________________ drug because severe immune suppression with increased infections and neoplasms can occur.
Answer: Immunosupressant
Explanation:
The use of monoclonal antibody along with the immunosupressant is used in such a way so that that the disease is cured without having more side effects.
The immunosupressant if given on a regular basis can cause many side effects on the body.
There are increased chances of infections in the body so monoclonal antibodies is used along with the immunosupressants.