Question is incomplete (options are not given) The complete question is as follows :
Question :If they had instead performed this assay on muscle cells, which have high energy demands and primarily consist of actin and myosin filaments, where would you expect the labeled proteins to go during the chase?
-from the Golgi apparatus and the rough ER to the cytoplasm and the nucleus
-from the rough ER to the Golgi apparatus
-from the Golgi apparatus and the rough ER to the cytoplasm and the mitochondria
-from the cytoplasm to the Golgi apparatus
Answer:
-from the Golgi apparatus and the rough ER to the cytoplasm and the mitochondria
Explanation:
Proteins which have to be secreted , pass through the secretory pathway in the following order:
From the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (where they are synthesized ) moves to Golgi transport vesicles to the Golgi cisternae and secretory or transport vesicles are formed which then move to the cell surface by passing through the cytoplasm and by exocytosis move outwards. Small transport vesicles bud off from the endoplasmic reticulum and join to form the Golgi reticulum.
Hence the correct answer is that the labeled proteins to go from the Golgi apparatus and the rough ER to the cytoplasm and the mitochondria during the chase.
A student from one of the research labs is having trouble preparing a slide for examination and photographing. The bacterial slide that he has brought to you was prepared using a commercially purchased stain. He has asked for your help in determining what he is doing wrong so that he can change the lab protocols and continue on with his project. After examining the slide under oil immersion, you determine that no bacteria are present even though the student is able to show you the culture he used to make that slide that has visible growth in the liquid medium. Which of the following statements does NOT explain the fact that there are no bacteria present on the student’s slide?
Answer: Rinsing with alcohol during the washing step stripped the bacteria off the glass slide.
Explanation:
The step that is being wrong in the whole experiment is that the student is washing the bacteria on the slide with alcohol.
Alcohol might have washed off all the bacteria as it is corrosive in nature. The bacteria that is going to be observed in the experiment is being killed when it is washed off.
This was the wrong step opted by the student if he finds any alternative solution to this then the bacteria can be observed in the microscope.
The resting membrane potential depends on two factors that influence the magnitude and direction of Na+ and K+ diffusion across the plasma membrane. Identify these two factors.
A. The presence of a resting membrane potential and leak channels.
B. The presence of concentration gradients and Na+-K+ pumps.
C. The presence of concentration gradients and voltage-gated channels.
D. The presence of concentration gradients and leak channels.
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. "The presence of concentration gradients and leak channels".
Explanation:
Resting Membrane Potential (RMP) is defined as the differential of charge (measured in voltage) that is present across the cell's membrane when the cell is at rest. The two factors that affect the RMP is the presence of concentration gradients and leak channels. The steeper the concentration gradients, the higher the voltage of the RMP will be. On the other hand the presence of leak channels reduces the RMP, as leak channels allow Na+ and K+ to cross down to its gradient.
Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue) must rhythmically contract for a lifetime. This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells. You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells?
a.smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b.mitochondria
c.lysosomes
d.cytoskeleton
Answer:
Mitochondria
Explanation:
In a cell, the mitochondria is the energy or the powerhouse in a cell responsible of producing energy through respiration.
The mitochondria is has double double membrane.
Myocardium(Cardiac muscle tissue) requires large amount of energy produced by the cell in order to rhythmically contract.
Therefore, it is expected for their cells to have a relatively high amount of mitochondria for the purpose of providing the tissues with energy.
A molecule is applied to a cell and the intracellular Ca2+ concentration is found to transiently rise. You are curious to understand the mechanism of this molecule so you remove all of the Ca2+ from outside the cell but find that the same effect is observed. You conclude that the molecule is probably having this effect because it sets into motion a chain of events that includes…
A.activation of adenylyl cyclase.
B.increasing the intracellular concentration of cAMP.
C.activation of phospholipase C.
D.blocking the Na+/K+ pump.
E.activation of a phosphodiesterase.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
Phospholipase C comes in the category of membrane-associated enzymes, which plays an essential role in the cell physiology of eukaryotes, mainly in the process of signal transduction. One of the general features of the phospholipase C pathway is that it enhances the concentration of calcium within the cell's cytoplasm.
With the stimulation of phospholipase C within a cell, calcium generally gets discharged from the intracellular compartments, which eventually results in the upsurge of calcium levels within the cell's cytoplasm.
Two parts of the Plasmodium erythrocytic cycle affect the human host in the follow ways. The ...................is responsible for the clinical symptoms of malaria in one human host, and the.................... releases spores into the human's blood that make it possible for the malaria to be passed on to a......................and then to another human
Answer:
Asexual portion, sexual portion and mosquito.
Explanation:
Plasmodium species is known to cause malaria in humans. The anopheles is the primary host for the plasmodium and humans acts as the secondary host for the plasmodium.
The secondary host is important for the asexual reproduction that occurs in the humans and causes clinical symptoms. The sexual reproduction occurs with the help of spores that occurs in the human blood. The disease can pass from one human to the other human by the mosquito biting.
Thus, the answer is asexual portion, sexual portion and mosquito.
Answer:
As exual portion, s exual portion and mosquito.
Explanation:
What are the advantages of a partnership?
Answer:
Advantages :
Money is shared by both partners.Profit and loss is also divided.Responsibility is also shared.Ideas are exchange.Explanation:
Use the following information to answer the following question.
In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the ? hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool.
Again, if this population were in equilibrium and if the sickle-cell allele is recessive, what proportion of the population should be susceptible to sickle-cell anemia under typical conditions?
Use the following information to answer the following question.
In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the ? hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool.
Again, if this population were in equilibrium and if the sickle-cell allele is recessive, what proportion of the population should be susceptible to sickle-cell anemia under typical conditions?
0.32
0.16
0.80
0.20
0.04
Using the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the proportion of the population in equatorial Africa susceptible to sickle-cell anemia is calculated as q², where 'q' is the frequency of the recessive sickle-cell allele (20%). Thus, q² = 0.20²= 0.04 or 4% of the population is susceptible under typical conditions.
To determine what proportion of the population should be susceptible to sickle-cell anemia under typical conditions in equatorial Africa where the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of the hemoglobin alleles, we use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. Assuming the population is in equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele 's' (sickle-cell allele) is 0.20 (or 20%). The frequency of the normal allele 'A' will be 1 - 0.20 = 0.80 (or 80%).
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, the proportion of homozygous recessive individuals is calculated as p² for homozygous dominant, 2pq for heterozygous, and q² for homozygous recessive, where 'p' is the dominant allele frequency and 'q' is the recessive allele frequency. Therefore, the proportion of the population with sickle-cell anemia (homozygous recessive) is q² = 0.20²= 0.04 (or 4%). This means that 4% of the population should be susceptible to sickle-cell anemia if the sickle-cell allele is recessive.
Why do the levels of GH-RH and CRH rise during the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome?
Answer:
During the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome, the human body undergoes a process of adaptation or tolerance to stress, which requires an increase in levels of growth hormone (GH) and cortisol, so it is observed rise the levels of GHRH and CRH.
Explanation:
General adaptive syndrome is a product of the stress to which an individual is subjected, causing a number of symptoms reflecting the loss of normal body balance, symptoms that can be both physical and psychological. This syndrome has three phases:
Alarm phase. Resistance phase. Exhaustion phase.The second phase, resistance, is due to an adaptation or tolerance when the stressful stimulus is maintained. At this stage, an increase in blood levels of growth hormone and cortisol -which contribute to the stress tolerance process- is usually observed, increasing the bioavailability of blood glucose and endogenous steroids.
Both GHRH (somatocrin) and CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) are produced by the hypothalamus and activate the release of GH and adrenocorticopotrotrope hormone (CRH) by the pituitary gland, producing:
Increased levels of circulating growth hormone, necessary to regulate metabolism, and increase the amount of blood glucose. Increased levels of cortisol, from the adrenal glands, in response to stress.In the resistance phase of general adaptative syndrome, GHRH and CRH levels increase to regulate adaptive changes that occur in the body of the individual who has it.
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Professor Kingston is interested in understanding the origins of gambling addictions. To study the brain activity of gambling addicts, Professor Kingston tracks oxygen flow in their brains while they engage in online gambling. What method is he most likely using?a. single cell recording b. transcranial magnetic stimulation c. functional magnetic resonance imaging d. magnetoencephalography
Answer:
B) Functional magnetic resonance imaging
Explanation:
fMRI or Functional magnetic resonance imaging is the technique which is used to measure the neural activity in the brain of humans and other animals.
The technique is based on the concept that the activity in the neurons is coupled to the flow of the blood in the neurons. The change in the rate of blood flow to the region of neurons shows that that part of the neuron is activated at that time.
Therefore by measuring the changes in the blood flow, the technique scans the neural activities of the brain.
Thus, Optio-B is the correct answer.
Which of the following types of data is illustrated by this example?
1. Death certificates are used as the basis for measuring the number of deaths and the probability of death among infants.
2. Mad cow disease is diagnosed in a cow and the entire herd is subsequently slaughtered.
3. A sample of adolescents are questioned about their cigarette smoking behavior.
A. Statistics – vital statistics and reportable diseases.
B. Single case or small number of cases.
C. Sentinel surveillance.
D. Survey data.
E. Syndromic surveillance.
Answer:
1 - A , 2 - E , 3 - D
Explanation:
The correct pairing between the example situations and the types of data given in the question are;
Deaths certificated are statistical data for measuring and keeping track of different aspects of the population so 1 can be paired with the option A.
One cow being diagnosed with mad cow disease and the slaughter of the entire herd as a precaution can be an example of syndromic surveillance and paired with the option E.
Questioning a certain number of adolescents about their smoking behavior is an example of survey data which is given in option D.
I hope this answer helps.
The examples represent statistics, single case or small number of cases, and survey data.
Explanation:The type of data illustrated by each example is as follows:
Death certificates as the basis for measuring the number of deaths and the probability of death among infants represent statistics – vital statistics and reportable diseases.Diagnosing mad cow disease in a cow and subsequently slaughtering the entire herd exemplifies the data type of single case or small number of cases.Questioning a sample of adolescents about their cigarette smoking behavior demonstrates survey data.Learn more about Types of data here:https://brainly.com/question/34233948
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When conducting an experiment on how stimuli are represented by the firing of neurons, you notice that neurons respond differently to different faces. For example, Arthur's face causes three neurons to fire, with neuron one responding the most and neuron three responding the least. Roger's face causes the same three neurons to fire, with neuron one responding the least and neuron three responding the most. Your results support coding. Group of answer choices
1. specificity
2. population
3. convergence
4. divergence
Answer: Divergence
Explanation:
One postsynaptic cell has the ability to receive the input from large number of different presynpatic cells and the divergent neurons can have connections with different postsynaptic cells.
The divergence in the neurons allows one neurons to have communication with the other neurons within a network.
The divergence neurons can communicate with any of the neurons (output) in the network.
Consider a population of 1099 apple fly maggots. In this population, you observe that the allele frequency of the dominant allele at the ADH locus, where are are two alleles, is 0.554. What is the expected number of heterozygotes if this population is at HWE (please give your answer as an integer)?
Answer:
543
Explanation:
Given is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population (p)= 0.554
Since the locus has two alleles and the population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele (q) of the same locus would be= 1-0.554= 0.446
Frequency of heterozygous genotype in the given population = 2pq= 2 x 0.554 x 0.446= 0.4941
Now, the number of heterozygous genotype in the given population= 0.4941 x 1099= 543.0159 = 543
To calculate the expected number of heterozygotes in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, apply the formula 2pq multiplied by the population size. The dominant allele frequency is given as 0.554 for the apple fly maggots, with the frequency of heterozygotes 2 × 0.554 × 0.446 × 1099, rounded to the nearest integer.
Explanation:The student is asking about the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (HWE), which is a principle in population genetics that provides a mathematical model to study allele frequencies in a population under certain conditions. The given information includes the population size (1099 apple fly maggots) and the allele frequency of the dominant allele (0.554) at the ADH locus. To find the expected number of heterozygotes in a population at HWE, the Hardy-Weinberg equation is used, which states that the frequency of two alleles (p and q, where p + q = 1) within a population can be used to calculate the frequencies of genotypes. The frequency of heterozygotes is 2pq.
Using this information, the expected number of heterozygotes is calculated as follows:
p (frequency of dominant allele A) = 0.554.q (frequency of recessive allele a) = 1 - p = 1 - 0.554 = 0.446.The frequency of heterozygotes (Aa) is 2pq = 2 × 0.554 × 0.446.To find the expected number of heterozygotes, multiply the frequency of heterozygotes by the population size: 2pq × 1099.After performing these calculations, remember to round off the final answer to the nearest whole number, as you cannot have a fraction of an organism.
Mendel studied dominant & recessive traits. Explain how dominant traits behave.
Answer:
dominant traits cancel out a recessive trait, two dominant traits, such as blue eyes from both parents would equal an 100% dominant trait for blue eyes in the offspring
Answer:
A dominant trait is an inherited trait or characteristic that appears in an offspring and covers the effects of another allele and/or prevails or exhibit its trait above another.
When performing neurological reflexes on the infant, which primitive reflex will be present longest?
Answer:
Babinski sign.
Explanation :
Except for the Babinski, which disappears around 1 year of age, these primitive reflexes diminish over the first few months of life, giving way to protective reflexes.
Primitive reflexes are subcortical and involve a whole-body response. Selected primitive reflexes present at birth include Moro, root, suck, asymmetric tonic neck, plantar and palmar grasp, step, and Babinski.
Polypeptide and monoamine hormones typicallya. bind with receptors in the cell nucleus. b. bind with receptors in the cell membrane. c. produce their effects within seconds following secretion. d. bind with low affinity to receptors.
What is the Kinsey Scale?A. A six-point rating system that ranges from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual orientation.B. An in-depth guide to measure whether a loved one is homosexual or heterosexual.C. An instructional manual explaining acceptable homosexual, heterosexual, and bisexual behavior.D. A religious test which classifies a person's ability to live as a heterosexual.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. "A six-point rating system that ranges from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual orientation".
Explanation:
Alfred Charles Kinsey was a scientific who revolutionized the way sexology was seen and founded the Institute for Sex Research at Indiana University. Kinsey developed what is known as the Kinsey Scale, a six-point rating system that ranges from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual orientation. The first results of applying the Kinsey Scale were published by Kinsey in 1948 on the book "Sexual Behavior in the Human Male".
Final answer:
The Kinsey Scale is a six-point scale created by Alfred Kinsey to categorize human sexual orientation from exclusive homosexuality (0) to exclusive heterosexuality (6), representing sexuality as a continuum rather than a binary choice.
Explanation:
The Kinsey Scale is a six-point rating system developed by sex researcher Alfred Kinsey. It is used to describe a person's sexual orientation, with 0 indicating exclusive homosexuality and 6 indicating exclusive heterosexuality. According to Kinsey's research, most individuals fall somewhere in the middle, around a 3, suggesting a bisexual orientation. The scale represents the idea that human sexuality is a continuum and challenges the notion of a strict dichotomy between being exclusively homosexual or heterosexual.
Kinsey's findings, presented in his 1948 work Sexual Behavior in the Human Male, were groundbreaking because they documented the variability of human sexual behavior and challenged societal norms of his time. The Kinsey Scale remains an influential framework for understanding the complexity and fluidity of human sexual orientation.
Sexual orientation itself can encompass various dimensions of attraction, such as physical, mental, emotional, and sexual attraction to others. It includes categories like heterosexuality, homosexuality, bisexuality, and asexuality, among others. The concept behind the Kinsey Scale and the research of Kinsey acknowledge that sexuality is not binary but exists on a spectrum.
Explain how breast-cancer genes are still present in the population, despite cancer-related surgeries and deaths.
Answer:
What are so called breast-cancer genes, are mutations in two genes: BRCA1 (BReast CAncer gene one) and BRCA2 (BReast CAncer gene two), and are also associated with ovaric cancer. According to the question, these genes are present in the popolation despite surgeries and deaths, and asks why. Surgeries does not eliminate the genes, they eliminate the tumors, and people can still reproduce after that. And also, most people already had offspring before they know they have cancer, so they are inheriting the mutations on the genes anyway.
Explanation:
Answer:
Cancer related surgeries have absolutely no way to remove genes.
For example, BRC1 is a gene, inherited from a parent, which has been linked to breast cancer. You start out as one cell which divides again and again making copies of itself and eventually become a baby etc. Whatever genes were present at conception are in all of your cells. A surgery doesn't remove these genes, just the tumor.
As for death, in order for natural selection to take place and thus remove a deleterious gene from the population, those who have the gene have to be affected by it BEFORE they have kids.
Say for example a baby gets a mutation that causes a new disease no one has ever heard of. They die when they're 5 years old. After they die, there are no more copies of this bad gene in the population.
With breast cancer most women are in their 50's when diagnosed. This means they have already had kids and passed on their genes. To top it off all if their kids inherit a gene such as BRC1 from their mom, they they pass it on to their kids before they develop cancer and die (if they even get cancer).
What category of drugs in the five-category system is reported to have fetal risks but can be used in a pregnant woman if the potential benefit outweighs the risk?
Answer:
Category D drugs
Explanation:
There are five categories of drugs, they include: categories A, B, C, D and X. Research shows that category D drugs have possible fetal risks, however, the potential benefits on the mothers still outweighs the risk. An example of a category D drug is Losartan.
Category A drugs have no evidence of risk on fetus, an example is folic acid.
Category B drugs also show no adequate evidence of risk on the fetus. An example is metformin.
Evidences shows Category X drugs have an adverse effect on the fetus, hence the risk outweighs the potential effect. An example is Methotrexate.
You attend a lecture by a psychologist who uses terms such as free will and self-actualization. Which psychological perspective is most consistent with the points the psychologist presented?a. behaviorism
b. humanism
c. functionalism
d. psychodynamic
Answer:
Humanism
Explanation:
Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of needs has a crucial step which is Self-actualization. He and his theory fall under humanistic approach which is why answer should be humanism.
Explain how is segmentation related to the development of a brain in earthworm?
Segmentation affects the development of an earthworm because this developmental process involves the formation of nerve tissues in annelids.
What is segmentation?Segmentation is a process of development by which certain animals such as annelids developed different body parts in small segments.
The brain in earthworms is an enlarged ganglion found in the anterior end of the body.In conclusion, segmentation affects the development of an earthworm because it involves the formation of nerve tissues in annelids.
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Diploid somatic cells of elephants have 56 chromosomes. If nondisjunction of one of an elephant's chromosomes occurs in meiosis I, the resulting sperm are expected to have the chromosome complement:
a. 29, 29, 27, 27.
b. 56, 56, 57, 55.
c. 28, 28, 29, 27.
d. 29, 29, 28, 28.
Answer:
a. 29, 29, 27, 27.
Explanation:
Separation of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles during anaphase-I would have produced the haploid chromosome number of the daughter cells. This means that the parent cell with 56 chromosomes would produce four daughter cells each of which would have 56/2= 28 chromosomes. If one of the chromosome pairs did not segregate during anaphase-I, one daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I would have "n+1" chromosomes while the other would have "n-1" chromosomes. This chromosome number is maintained by meiosis-II.
Therefore, nondisjunction at anaphase-I in the parent cell with 56 chromosomes would produce a total of four daughter cells. The two daughter cells would have "n+1= 29" chromosomes and rest two would have "n-1=27" chromosomes.
Final answer:
The correct answer is option a. 29, 29, 27, 27. Nondisjunction in meiosis I results in two gametes with an extra chromosome (29) and two gametes missing one chromosome (27).
Explanation:
A student has asked: "Diploid somatic cells of elephants have 56 chromosomes. If nondisjunction of one of an elephant's chromosomes occurs in meiosis I, the resulting sperm are expected to have the chromosome complement: a. 29, 29, 27, 27. b. 56, 56, 57, 55. c. 28, 28, 29, 27. d. 29, 29, 28, 28."
Diploid cells always contain an even number of chromosomes because there are two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent. For elephants, these somatic cells are diploid (2n), meaning they have 56 chromosomes. When meiosis occurs, which produces haploid (n) gametes, each gamete should have 28 chromosomes under normal conditions.
Nondisjunction in meiosis I means that homologous chromosomes don't separate properly, resulting in gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes. This leads to two cells with an extra chromosome (29 each) and two cells missing one chromosome (27 each).
Correct answer: a. 29, 29, 27, 27
Incorrect options:
b. 56, 56, 57, 55 - These numbers reflect diploid counts with errors, not gametes.
c. 28, 28, 29, 27 - This doesn't reflect meiosis I nondisjunction.
d. 29, 29, 28, 28 - This reflects a normal division outcome, not nondisjunction in meiosis I.
Therefore, if nondisjunction happens in meiosis I, the gametes will have the chromosome counts 29, 29, 27, 27.
Tardigrades, also called water bears, are microscopic segmented animals with eight legs. They are normally about 70 percent body water, but they can survive extreme dehydration (to just a few percent body water) for up to 10 years! After a decade you can add water and the tardigrades will start swimming around. You enter a lab and your new boss gives you five dehydrated tardigrades and asks you to demonstrate that the tardigrades are alive in their dehydrated state. How would you demonstrate this?
a. Record their movement, because movement is characteristic of all life.
b. Record their temperature, because all living organisms maintain body temperatures different from their environment.
c. Record their energy use, because all living organisms acquire and use energy.
d. None of the options listed demonstrate that the dehydrated tardigrades are alive
Answer:
c. Record their energy use, because all living organisms acquire and use energy.
Explanation:
The only way to demonstrate in a dehydrated state that the tardigrades are alive is to record their energy use, because all living organisms acquire and use energy.
There can only be movement among the tardigrades only when water is added.
What effect would hypotension have on the capillary hydrostatic pressure gradient and net filtration pressure?
Hypotension will cause the interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure to increase and capillary hydrostatic pressure to decrease. The net filtration pressure will be reduced favoring the absorption .
Explanation:
Hypotension refers to reduced blood pressure. Decrease in blood pressure results in reduced filtration pressure on capillary walls. This reduces the filtration of water and solutes into the tissue fluid but will favor the movement of water from tissue to blood. So we can say that net filtration pressure will be reduced.
Hypotension leads to a reduction in capillary hydrostatic pressure and net filtration pressure due to a decrease in the pushing force that drives fluid out of capillaries and into tissues or the Bowman's capsule in kidneys.
Explanation:Hypotension would have a significant effect on the capillary hydrostatic pressure gradient and net filtration pressure. In a patient with a normal blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) but dangerously low blood pressure, the capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP) would be lower than normal. Recalling that net filtration pressure (NFP) is the difference between the blood hydrostatic pressure and the sum of the capillary hydrostatic pressure and the blood colloid osmotic pressure, it follows that with lower CHP (due to hypotension), there would be a decrease in the CHP compared to the constant BCOP.
Consequently, this would lead to a reduced NFP, thus affecting the filtration and movement of fluid from the capillaries into the interstitial tissue spaces or Bowman's capsule in the kidneys. The lower the blood pressure, the more it can impair renal function and increase the risk of conditions such as shock.
Knowledge of measurement techniques and statistics is needed only for exercise physiologists who are going to carry on independent research in the field, not for the average exercise science practitioner.
Answer:statistics is a science that teaches how to effectively generate data ,input our data collected and analyze it. Almost every human collect data at every point in time depending on your field. For an exercise practioner he could collect data on the number of people his practicing with,analyze and make meaningful interpretation of the result,data can be collected on plants etc.
Explanation:The knowledge of statistics is for everyone and not limited for certain discipline the rate of use is what differs.
Thermal motion promotes lateral position exchanges between lipid moleculaes within a monolayer. In an artificial bilayer of lipids, this movement has been estimated to be ~ 2 um/second. On average, do you expect the lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane to be equally fast?
No, the lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane will not be equally fast as the movement of lipid molecule in a artificial lipid bilayer.
Explanation:
The artificial bilayers are taken as a model to study the biological bilayer in laboratories.The artificial bilayers differ greatly in composition from the true bilayers.The artificial bilayers are mostly made up of phospholipids and very less amount of sphingolipids. It lacks the integral protein and other molecules.The Biological membranes have integrated proteins and other molecules within the layer.These molecules offer resistance to the movement of lipids in the membranes. So, the speed of lipids in biological membrane cannot equally fast as their speed in artificial bilayer.Final answer:
The average lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane may be slower than 2 um/second due to constraints by proteins and structures within the membrane, despite rapid lateral diffusion observed in artificial bilayers.
Explanation:
The question asks about the lateral diffusion of lipid molecules in biological membranes compared to artificial bilayers. In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure, lipids and proteins have lateral freedom of movement within the lipid bilayer. The rate of lateral diffusion can be measured using techniques like FRAP (fluorescence recovery after photobleaching), where lipids are monitored as they return to a photobleached area. Biological membranes contain various proteins and structures that may restrict movement, such as lipid rafts, caveolae, and the cytoskeleton. Thus, the actual lateral diffusion rate in biological membranes might be affected by these constraints.
While lipids move rapidly laterally, the movement from one layer to another, or transverse diffusion, is significantly slower and usually requires enzymes like flippases for assistance. Considering these factors, we might expect that the lateral movement of a lipid molecule within a biological membrane to be somewhat slower than the estimated 2 um/second in an artificial bilayer due to these biological constraints.
The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for handscrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming & prepping surgical skin sites is chlorhexide lyophilization hydrogen peroxide all choice sare correct
Answer:
Chlorhexidine
Explanation:
Chlorhexidine is a guanide compound containing the two chlorine molecules attached to the two phenolic rings (two 4-chlorophenyl rings) and two biguanide group.
The chlorhexidine is used as an antiseptic (antibacterial) as the positive charge of molecule interacts with the negatively charged batteries membrane and disrupts the structure of bacteria.
This molecule then enters the cell and cause intracellular leakage and leads to the death of the cell.
Thus, Chlorhexidine is the correct answer.
Chlorhexidine is the antiseptic compound containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, used often in medical settings for various sanitizing purposes due to its ability to disrupt cell membranes and gel cell contents.
Explanation:The compound in question that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings, and is used for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites, is chlorhexidine. Chlorhexidine is a bisbiguanide, meaning it can disrupt cell membranes causing cell contents to gel. This compound is commonly used in healthcare settings due to its efficacy as a disinfectant and antiseptic.
As a bisbiguanide, chlorhexidine is not only effective against a broad range of microbes but also can maintain its effectiveness in the presence of organic matter, making it a reliable choice for situations where contamination risk is high. It is important to note that while other chemicals like hydrogen peroxide and iodine are also used for disinfection, chlorhexidine is specifically known for its use in the mentioned applications.
The plant cell wall __________.a. regulates the composition of the cytoplasm. b. is very similar to the animal cell wall. c. makes food by converting light energy to chemical energy. d. is found just inside the plasma membrane. e. is a protective structure made of cellulose fibrils.
Answer:
E
Explanation:
What is the study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior?
Answer:
Behavioral Genetics
Explanation:
Behavioral genetics or behavior genetics is a field of scientific study that make use of genetic methods to study an individual's behavior. In general, it is the study of the relative power and limits of genetics and environmental influences on behavior.
Studies have shown that one's behavior is greatly linked to one's genetics and environmental exposure.
"Sometimes during DNA replication a change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, which is called a mutation, can occur. There are various reasons why mutations occur. In certain instances, a chemical called _______ can increase the mutation rate."
Answer: Mutagen
There are various reasons why mutations occur. In certain instances, a chemical called mutagen can increase the mutation rate."
Explanation:
A mutagen is a chemical agent that changes the genetic material, usually DNA, of an organism and this increases the frequency of mutations above the natural background level.
Other causes of mutation include:
- error in DNA replication, repair and recombination
A chemical that can increase the mutation rate during DNA replication is called a mutagen. Mutagens include various environmental factors, such as chemicals and radiation, and can lead to induced mutations in the DNA sequence.
Explanation:During DNA replication, a change in the DNA nucleotide sequence, known as a mutation, can occur. While DNA polymerases proofread the nucleotide sequence, errors can still happen approximately once every 10⁷ nucleotides. Mutations can range from single nucleotide changes to large insertions or deletions. These changes can be benign or deleterious, possibly leading to diseases such as cancer if they occur in specific regulatory regions.
Mutations can arise spontaneously or be induced by environmental factors. Induced mutations are the result of exposure to mutagens such as chemicals, ultraviolet (UV) rays, x-rays, or other agents. Spontaneous mutations, however, occur without any exposure to these agents and are a result of natural reactions within the body. Chemicals that increase mutation rates are referred to as mutagens and can lead to a significantly higher rate of changes in the DNA sequence.
Osteoblasts are cells that are involved in creating new extracellular matrix in bone.
a. The extracellular matrix of cartilage contains only one type of cell, which are the Chondroblasts.
b. The perichondrium is a structure that surrounds cartilage and contains the Chondrocytes.
c. Bones are continually remodeled, a process that requires that old bone matrix be broken down by Osteoclasts.
d. Lacunae of compact bone are occupied by mature Osteocytes.
Answer:
(C). Bones are continually remodeled, a process that requires that old bone matrix be broken down by Osteoclasts.
Explanation:
Osteoblasts synthesize and secrete the organic part and inorganic part of the extracellular matrix of collagen fibers and bone tissues. Osteoclasts remove bone structure by releasing lysosomal enzymes and acids that dissolve the bone matrix. These minerals released from the bones into the blood and help regulate calcium concentrations in the body fluids.
Chondroblasts and chondrocytes are involved in cartilage; perichondrium surrounds cartilage and contains chondrocytes; bones are remodeled by osteoclasts; lacunae of compact bone are occupied by osteocytes.
Explanation:a. The statement is incorrect. Cartilage contains both chondroblasts and chondrocytes. Chondroblasts are responsible for producing and maintaining the extracellular matrix, while chondrocytes are found within the matrix and are responsible for maintaining the health of the cartilage.
b. The statement is correct. The perichondrium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds cartilage and contains chondrocytes, which play a role in the growth and repair of cartilage.
c. The statement is correct. Bones undergo a process called remodeling, which involves the removal of old bone matrix by cells called osteoclasts. Osteoclasts break down the mineralized matrix, allowing for the subsequent formation of new bone.
d. The statement is incorrect. Lacunae of compact bone are occupied by osteocytes, which are mature bone cells. Osteocytes are responsible for maintaining the bone tissue.
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