Answer:
The correct answer is B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes.
Explanation:
If a bacteria experience a cost of maintaining some antibiotic-resistant gene, then they will able to flourish more in that environment which contains the antibiotic against which the antibiotic-resistant gene is present in the bacteria.
But if this bacteria is grown in medium that lack antibiotic then this bacteria will be outcompeted replaced by those bacteria who have lost these genes because these new bacteria are more adapted to this condition than the antibiotic-resistant bacteria. Therefore the correct answer is B.
Antibiotics are missing B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes Therefore , B) These bacteria should be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes is correct .
In environments where antibiotics are absent or not present, the cost associated with maintaining antibiotic-resistance genes becomes a significant factor.
If a bacterium like Staphylococcus aureus carries antibiotic-resistance genes but does not encounter antibiotics in its environment, it will likely face a fitness disadvantage due to the energy and resources it expends to maintain these genes.
Natural selection favors traits that enhance an organism's survival and reproduction in its specific environment.
If the environment does not contain antibiotics or selective pressure for antibiotic resistance, the cost associated with maintaining resistance genes becomes a burden. Bacteria constantly strive to optimize resource allocation and maximize their fitness.
Bacteria with antibiotic-resistance genes may replicate at a slower rate or utilize resources less efficiently due to the cost of maintaining these genes.
In contrast, bacteria without these genes can allocate resources more effectively and may outcompete the resistant bacteria in a non-antibiotic environment.
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A student observed a stained specimen of bacteria using bright-field microscopy. At 100x magnification, there appeared to be only one cell in the field of view, but at 1000x it was clear that there were two cells close together. The ability to distinguish these two cells as separate entities is called __________. View Available Hint(s) A student observed a stained specimen of bacteria using bright-field microscopy. At 100x magnification, there appeared to be only one cell in the field of view, but at 1000x it was clear that there were two cells close together. The ability to distinguish these two cells as separate entities is called __________. A.wavelength B.cell division C.resolution D.magnification
Answer:
Resolution (C)
Explanation:
The ability of a microscope to distinguish between two separate points is known as resolution. if a microscope is focused at two separate points. but can only see them as a point then the microscope can not resolve or give details of the two points.Hence it has poor magnification. Thus the greater the amount of details of object showed by the microscope the higher the resolution e.g light microscope with resolution of 200nm. can not separate or resolve specimens where the distance of separations is more than 200nm. The reason fro this is that:
the limit of resolution is one-half of the wavelength of light of the microscope used to view it, if a specimen is smaller than half of the radiation used to view it then it can not be resolved by the microscope.
For example from last paragraph, the resolution of light microscope is 200nm, because the shortest wavelength of visible light is 400 nm, thus any specimens that is closer together than half of 400nm that is (200nm) can not be resolved by light microscope.
Electron microscopes have higher resolution than light microscope because they makes use of electrons instead of light. Electrons have grater wavelength therefore more energy,
and
they are negatively charged so they can easily be used to focus on an object by deflection of beam of electrons with magnetic in electromagnets component of the microscope for alerting the resolution.
With these features of electrons two types of electron microscope are the the scanning and transmission electron microscope
.Electron microscopes have resolution close to 0,5nm, hundred times grater than the light microscope because of the electron features.
The Sea World animal trainers use rewards (reinforcements) to teach whales, sea lions and dolphins to perform tricks. These training techniques are based on principles from which early school of psychology?
A. Functionalism
B. Structuralism
C. Behaviorism
D. Cognitive
Answer:
The correct option is C) Behaviorism
Explanation:
In the world of psychology, behaviorism can be described as an idea that behaviour is influenced by environmental factors. In general terms, behavior is triggered by a stimuli from the environment on an individual.
For example, whales, sea lions and dolphins learn to perform certain tricks because they know they have learned that they will get a reward for their action. Hence, the reward acts as a stimuli for their actions.
Sea World animal trainers use techniques that align with the behaviorism school of psychology. Behaviorism is a theory that behaviors are learnt through conditioning, in this case, positive reinforcement is used to promote desired behaviors.
Explanation:The Sea World animal trainers make use of training techniques that align with principles from the early school of psychology known as Behaviorism. Behaviorism is essentially the theory that all behaviors are acquired through conditioning. It posits that our responses to environmental stimuli shape our behaviors. Conditioning is carried out through reinforcement or punishment, with the former being the strategy used in this context to train the sea world animals. Hence, when the animals perform a trick correctly, they receive a reward (positive reinforcement), promoting the repetition of that behavior.
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Discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count. Consult an appropriate reference as necessary, and explain your reasoning.
Answer:
Athletic training increases red blood cell count.
A permanent move from sea level to high altitude increases red blood cell count.
Explanation:
Athletic training increases red blood cell count.
An athlete has a comparatively increased muscle mass and requires an efficient oxygen means of transportation to the muscles during the course of the athlete running 4 to 5 miles a day over a period of 6 to nine months training or execrise.
A permanent move from sea level to high altitude increases red blood cell count.
The air is less dense at high altitudes and would posses a reduced amount of oxygen. The body make up for this lower concentration of oxygen in the air by yielding more RBCs to ensure that the same corresponding level of oxygen can be acquired or accumulated and then its transported by the blood.
___________________________
The complete question
Discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count. Consult an appropriate reference as necessary, and explain your reasoning: The long-term effect of athletic training (for example, running 4 to 5 miles a day over a period of 6 to nine months, and a permanent move from sea level to a high-altitude area.
Final answer:
Factors affecting RBC count include blood loss, faulty RBC production, and excessive RBC destruction, which can be analyzed by kinetic or morphological approaches. Polycythemia is a condition where RBC count increases due to various causes.
Explanation:
Effects of Factors on Red Blood Cell (RBC) Count
Changes in the levels of RBCs can significantly affect the body's oxygen delivery system. Factors affecting RBC count can be categorized blood loss, faulty RBC production, or excessive RBC destruction.
For example, blood loss through trauma or internal bleeding would lead to a decreased RBC count as the body loses its cells. On the other hand, inadequate production might be due to bone marrow disorders, nutritional deficiencies, or chronic diseases interfering with hematopoiesis. Excessive destruction of RBCs can occur in conditions like hemolytic anemia or infections.
Diagnostic methods like the kinetic approach analyze the production and removal rates of RBCs, whereas the morphological approach focuses on appearance and size, using metrics like the mean corpuscle volume (MCV). Polycythemia, an increase in RBC count, can be caused by dehydration, living at high altitudes, or bone marrow diseases like polycythemia vera.
There are a number of properties that all organisms share. In humans, exposure to ultraviolet light can result in a darkening of the skin. What kind of property is this?
a. energy processing
b. response to the environment
c. regulation
d. growth and development
Answer:
b. response to the environment
Explanation:
The ozone layer filters out most of the sun's harmful UV( ultraviolent) radiation. But when various environmental stresses and other human anthropogenic factors occurs, depletion of the ozone layer sets in and excessive production of Ultraviolent light emerges as well. Exposure to these ultraviolent light have the tendency and capability of causing damage to the skin cells which in turn cause wrinkles and darkening to the skin, damage to the melanin or sometimes skin cancer.
With incomplete dominance a likely ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation resulting from a monohybrid cross between two true-breeding parents would be?a) 1:2:1b) 3:3c) 3:1d) 9:3:3:1e) 1:2:2:4
Answer:
A) 1:2:1
Explanation:
Incomplete dominance is an effect observed in the organisms in which the neither of the two alleles controlling a trait is dominant or recessive instead produces a phenotype formed by the mixture of the effect of the two alleles. Therefore in incomplete dominance, a new trait is produced which is formed by both the alleles.
In the given question, if incomplete dominance is observed in a monohybrid cross which results in two homozygous genotypes and two heterozygous genotypes. In F2 the phenotypic generation produced will be 1:2:1 as the heterozygous genotype will form a new phenotype.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer
The genetic center of the eukaryotic cell is the __________.
Answer:
Nucleus
Explanation:
The nucleus is the genetic center of the eukaryotic cell because it contains the genetic material (DNA, RNA) used for the storage of genetic information
The genetic center of the eukaryotic cell is the nucleus, an organelle that contains most of the cell's DNA and serves as its control center. It is enclosed by a double membrane and regulates gene expression and protein synthesis.
The genetic center of the eukaryotic cell is the nucleus. The nucleus is a membrane-enclosed organelle found in most eukaryotic cells. It contains the genetic material of the cell in the form of DNA, which is organized into chromosomes. The primary function of the nucleus is to regulate gene expression and control protein synthesis. The nucleus is distinct from the nucleoid region found in prokaryotic cells, where the DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
The structure of the nucleus involves a double membrane, known as the nuclear envelope, which separates the contents of the nucleus from the cytoplasm. Inside, a substance called nucleoplasm is similar to the cytosol outside the nucleus. While most eukaryotic cells contain a single nucleus, there are exceptions, such as muscle cells which may contain multiple nuclei, and red blood cells which lack a nucleus altogether.
The organelle plays a crucial role during cell division, where it breaks down during mitosis and meiosis, allowing chromosomes to be organized and divided between new daughter cells. Moreover, it is involved in the transcription of various types of RNA which are critical for protein synthesis and gene regulation.
Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.)
Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.
a. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
b. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis Il. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis lI
d. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis !, and remains haploid in meiosisI.
e. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis I
Answer:
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.
Explanation:
Anaphase-I of meiosis-I includes the movement of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles of the cell. This even reduces the chromosome number to half in the daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I. Therefore, diploid cells become haploid by the end of meiosis-I. Since chromosomes carry DNA, a reduction in chromosome number also reduces the DNA content of the cells to half in meiosis-I.
Anaphase-II in meiosis-II separates the sister chromatids of each chromosome from each other. These sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell. This event further reduces the DNA content of the cell to half but the chromosome numbers are maintained.
Therefore, a cell with 2C DNA and 2n (diploid) chromosomes form two daughter cells having "C" DNA and "n" chromosomes by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in each of these daughter cells would form a total of 4 daughter cells each having "n" chromosomes and "C" DNA content.
The DNA content is reduced by half in meiosis I and remains the same in meiosis II. The ploidy level remains the same in meiosis I and is reduced by half in meiosis II.
Explanation:Cellular DNA content and ploidy levels during meiosis I and meiosis II:During meiosis I, the DNA content is reduced by half, while the ploidy level remains the same. This is because homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in the formation of two haploid cells. In meiosis II, the DNA content remains the same, but the ploidy level is reduced to half. This is because sister chromatids separate, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells.
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The enacting of right-to-die legislation by a state government will become an environmental ______ for hospitals and doctors in that state
Answer: Environmental force
Explanation:
Environmental force in medicine are external force which cannot be controlled by the medical practitioners.
Government enactment (right-to-die) can be either economic or social influence on the medical practitioners and punishment can be awarded when there is no compliance.
The normal prion protein is: Multiple Choice a) bound to the ribosomes of neurons. b) bound to the cell membrane of neurons. c) found in the nucleus of neurons. d) found in the mitochondria of neurons. e) found in the synapse between neurons.
Answer: B) Bound to the cell membrane of neurons
Explanation:
The cellular prion protein (PrPC) is a cell surface protein expressed in a variety of different organs and tissues with high expression levels in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
PrPC attaches to the outer surface of the cell membrane by a glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor but researchers have proposed roles in cell signalling and formation of synapses.
Natural selection suggests that creatures with mutations disadvantageous to survival will not live to reproduce, yet there are examples, such as albino animals, found occasionally. Do these exceptions discredit natural selection? Explain your answer.
Answer: No
Explanation: It is beneficial if the animals that are disadvantageous doesn't reproduce so it doesn't discredit natural selection. The traits in which variation is occured are more suitable for organism to live and reproduce in the environment are preserved and are passed from generation to generation.
However, natural selection effects limited number of progeny.
Answer: These types of exceptions do NOT discredit natural selection.
Explanation: Natural selection is based on the odds that certain traits will not adapt well in certain environments and ecosystems. It recognizes that organisms with mutations may be disadvantageous or not since the mutation is non-specific. In instances such as albinoism, the mutation is more likely to be disadvantageous though in some environments (like the desert) it could be a benefit. Natural selection is not an exact science or absolute rule, it is based on probabilities and variations, so exceptions will always exist.
Salvador would like to take a paternity test to determine if he is Pilar’s father. He asks Pilar’s mother, Antonia, to provide DNA samples for both her and Pilar. Which technique will most likely be used to compare the three DNA samples?
Answer:
d. Autoradiographies
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the technique that is mainly used for this are Autoradiographies. This is a technique that is mostly used for X- ray film to visualize molecules or fragments of molecules that have been radioactively but are also used for analyzing the length and number of DNA fragments using a special method called gel electrophoresis which is then used to compare the various DNA samples.
A researcher wants to determine if a new treatment program of yoga and vitamin A will improve test-taking skills in college students. To ensure that participants in the experimental condition are very similar to participants in the control condition, the researcher should:a. Randomly assign the participants to the conditions.
b. Choose the first people who signed up for the study to be in the control condition.
c. Ask for volunteers from a local yoga school.
d. Let the participants choose whether they want to be in the experimental or control condition.
Answer:
Option a
Explanation:
Random selection or random sampling from a given population is the most appropriate way, especially in experimental studies. This method is simple and accurate. According to the above-mentioned case, if the researcher selects students randomly for the experimental and control group, then each of them would have an equal chance of selection. Hence, the results would be generalized and not biased.
The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain Blank 1. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. . This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the Blank 2. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the Blank 3. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.
Answer:
The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain GANGLIA. This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the THORACOLUMBAR REGIONS' lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the VENTRAL AND DORSAL rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.
Explanation:
The sympathetic trunks (sympathetic chain, gangliated cord) are a paired bundle of nerve fibers that run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.
See the picture attached.
Which correctly matches a group with an adaptation to life on land that this group pioneered? Refer to the phylogeny as you evaluate the options.
Answer: The question is not complete, we do not know the group that we are going to match with the the pioneered group. Not to worry we will figure something out for you to be able to answer similar question(s). Check below.
Explanation:
PHYLOGENY deals with the history of evolution of plants and animals of different species. It involves the use of comparative anatomy, paleontology and embryology to determine the evolution of different species of plants and animals.
According to scientific researches, there are claims that plants started not on the terrestrial habitat/LAND but in water(aquatic habitat). According to the Researches made, the first plant actually came from Green algae. Plants are photosynthetic organisms but, the first organisms to photosynthesize were bacteria living inside water(aquatic habitat).
It was until about 350 million years (or less) that plants were successfully adapt to life in terrestrial habitat)/LAND.
ADAPTATIONS OF PLANTS TO LIFE ON LAND:
In order for plants to survive on LAND, several adaptations has to be developed. They are giving below:
==> Development of cuticle and stomata.
===> Development of vascular tissue.
===> Alternation of generation.
A good example is ANGIOSPERM PIONEERED PLANTS.
Although the main role of carbohydrates and lipids is to provide energy; vitamins, minerals, and ________ must also be present in the cell.
Answer: Water
Explanation:
There are 6 nutrients in the body which helps in keeping the body healthy. These components are carbohydrates, fats and proteins. These molecules helps in providing energy to the body.
The vitamins minerals and water is equally important for the cells as it helps in carrying out various types of reactions inside the body.
All the macro and micro nutrients are important for keeping the body healthy.
Please help!! Punnett squares (biology)
Answer/Explanation:
For the woman to be blood type B, she must either have 2 B alleles (homozygous, BB) or 1 B allele (heterozygous, BO). We can draw two punnett squares to show each of the potential outcomes when she has children with an AB man.
The two punnett squares are attached. In order to have a child that is type A, she needs to be heterozygous, BO. Even then, there was only a 25% chance that their child would have type A blood. If she were homozygous BB, it would be impossible for her to have a type A child with an AB man.
Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and has been tested for ADHD. A school psychologist suggests that Austin's hyperactivity might reflect the influence of some prenatal substance that did not affect his physical development, but instead influenced the development of his brain. Austin might be showing the effects of behavioral _____ that his mother ingested while he was in the womb.
Answer:
teratogens
Explanation:
The factors or any of the agent that can cause malformations in the development of the embryo are termed as teratogens. Behavioural teratogens are the ones that can cause harm to the development of the brain at the prenatal stage due to which the intellectual ability and the emotional functioning of the child can be affected in the future. The time the effect shows up in the future depends on the stage of the embryo/foetus development at which the child got exposed to the teratogen. In the given situation Austin is suffering from ADHD and hyperactivity that reflects a faulty brain development due to the exposure of teratogens that his mother consumed while he was conceived.Final answer:
Austin's hyperactivity may be due to prenatal exposure to teratogens like nicotine, which can lead to developmental issues such as ADHD, with factors like maternal stress also playing a role.
Explanation:
Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and might be showing the effects of behavioral teratogens that his mother ingested while he was in the womb. Teratogens are agents, like chemicals or viruses, that can cause harm to the developing fetus, leading to birth defects or developmental issues such as ADHD. Research has demonstrated that certain substances consumed during pregnancy can have significant impacts on child behavior and development. Notably, exposure to nicotine from cigarette smoke and maternal stress are associated with an increased risk of ADHD symptoms in children. Additionally, environmental toxins and factors such as lead exposure and high levels of prenatal stress from adverse life events are linked to ADHD. However, several misconceptions about ADHD's causes, including sugar intake, food allergies, and poor parenting, have been debunked through research.
A researcher asks participants to identify red shapes presented on a video screen. Following this, novel objects of various colors are depicted on the screen. Participants correctly identify red objects more quickly than objects of a different color. The result illustrates:
Answer:
Priming
Explanation:
Priming is a technique where exposure to one thing can alter behavior or thoughts. This occurs by exposure to a stimuli influences the response of a subsequent stimuli.
The participants were asked to identify red object on a video screen therefore when shown new objects of various colors on the screen it was easier for them to identify red objects. It is due to initial exposure of stimuli to red color that leads to subsequent stimuli to recognize red more easily.
if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of banormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?
Correct question:
if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of abnormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?
Answer:
100%
Explanation:
Nondisjunction at meiosis-I means that two homologous chromosomes of at least one homologous pair fail to separate from each other during anaphase-I. This would result in the formation of one cell with one extra chromosome and the other with one less chromosome by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in these two cells would maintain this chromosome number in the daughter cells. Therefore, out of the total four gametes formed by the end of the meiosis, two would have one extra chromosome and would be denoted as "n+1". The rest of the two gametes would have one less chromosome and would be denoted as "n-1".
A wild-type tomato plant (Plant 1) is homozygous dominant for three traits: solid leaves (MM), normal height (DD), and smooth skin (PP). Another tomato plant (Plant 2) is homozygous recessive for the same three traits: mottled leaves (mm), dwarf height (dd), and peach skin (pp). Two plants. Plant 1 has solid leaves (two uppercase M), normal height (two uppercase D), and fruits with smooth skin (two uppercase P). Plant 2 has mottled leaves (two lowercase m), dwarf height (two lowercase d), and fruits with peach skin (two lowercase p). In a cross between these two plants (MMDDPP x mmddpp), all offspring in the F1 generation are wild type and heterozygous for all three traits (MmDdPp). Now suppose you perform a testcross on one of the F1 plants (MmDdPp x mmddpp). The F2 generation can include plants with these eight possible phenotypes:________. Assuming that the three genes undergo-independent assortment, predict the phenotypic ratio of the offspring in the F2 generation.
a. solid, normal, smooth.
b. solid, normal, peach.
c. solid, dwarf, smooth.
d. solid, dwarf, peach.
e. mottled, normal, smooth.
f. mottled, normal, peach.
g. mottled, dwarf, smooth.
h. mottled, dwarf, peach.
Answer: In this type of cross between MmDdPp and mmddpp, the phenotypic ratios in the eight possible phenotypes are as follow; a. solid, normal, smooth = 1:8
b. solid, normal, peach = 1:8
c. solid, dwarf, smooth = 1:8
d. solid, dwarf, peach = 1:8
e. mottled, normal, smooth = 1:8
f. mottled, normal, peach = 1:8
g. mottled, dwarf, smooth = 1:8
h. mottled, dwarf, peach = 1:8
Explanation: The number of gametes that can be formed from a particular genotype is given as 2^n where n is the number of heterozygous loci. In the genotype MmDdPp, n = 3. Therefore, 8 gametes can be formed.
In genotype mmddpp, n = 0. Therefore, only one type of gamete can be formed.
Crossing the two genotype (MmDdPp and mmddpp) as shown in the attached image, 8 possible offsprings can be achieved. Phenotypes of these offspring had been stated earlier. The phenotypic frequency of each of these offspring is one out of eight (⅛).
The eight possible phenotypes resulting from a cross between an F1 plant (MmDdPp) and a homozygous recessive plant (mmddpp) are equally probable (1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1) due to the principle of independent assortment. This principle indicates that each trait segregates independently.
Explanation:The tomato plant question deals with the principle of independent assortment in genetics, which states that the alleles for different genes get sorted into gametes independently of one another. In the testcross with an F1 plant (MmDdPp) and a plant homozygous recessive for all traits (mmddpp), the F1 plant can provide either the dominant or recessive allele for each trait, resulting in eight possible phenotypes in the F2 generation.
To predict the phenotypic ratio of the offspring in the F2 generation, we could use the Punnett Square method or probability concepts. As each trait has a 1:1 ratio (for example, solid:mottled leaves), this results in equal chance (50%) for each trait to be either dominant or recessive. Applying this to all three traits and considering them independently, the expected phenotypic ratio would be 1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1 for the eight phenotypes:
solid, normal, smoothsolid, normal, peachsolid, dwarf, smoothsolid, dwarf, peachmottled, normal, smoothmottled, normal, peachmottled, dwarf, smoothmottled, dwarf, peachLearn more about Independent Assortment here:https://brainly.com/question/32921835
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Part A - Identifying X-linked inheritance in pedigrees
You are investigating the inheritance of two rare conditions (A and B) in an extended family of thoroughbred racehorses. You have constructed the following pedigree for these conditions.
Identify the inheritance mode of each condition by using the labels to complete the table. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Condition A Inheritance Mode: _____________________ ?
Condition B Inheritance Mode: _____________________ ?
PICK ANSWER FROM THESE CHOICES:
A) Autosomal Dominant
B) X-linked Dominant
C) X-linked Recessive
D) Autosomal Recessive
Sex-linked inheritance refers to genes linked to the sexual chromosomes, while autosomal inheritance refers to genes placed in autosomal chromosomes. Condition A: Option D / Condition B: Option C
--------------------------
According to the pedigree, we can assume that
Condition A Inheritance Mode is Autosomal RecessiveCondition B Inheritance Mode is X-linked RecessiveLet us first remember a few concepts,
Sex-linked ⇒ Refers to the gene that is linked to one of the sex chromosomes. In general, genes are linked to the X chromosome.
Autosomal ⇒ These genes affect men and women equally because they are located on autosomal chromosomes.
Also, remember that in a pedigree,
Circles represent women or females.Squares represent men or males. Empty symbols are healthy or not affected individuals.Solid symbols represent affected individuals.Each individual can be represented with a letter o a number.Generations are represented with roman numbers.Now, let us analyze each condition
Condition A.
This condition appears only in the female II-6. This female has two brothers, both of them not expressing the condition. Their parents do not express the condition either.If the condition was dominant, at least one of the parents should be heter0zyg0us expressing it. So we can assume that the condition is recessive and that female II6 is h0m0zyg0us recessive for that trait.
If the gene coding for this condition was sex-linked, then the mother of woman II6 should be heter0zyg0us, and the father should be affected.
The fact that individuals I-3 and I-4 (father and mother) do not express the condition, and only individual 6 does, suggests that the gene coding for this trait is autosomal recessive.
Both parents must be heter0zyg0us for the trait, the brothers might be either h0m0zyg0us dominant or heter0zyg0us, and the affected woman is h0m0zyg0us recessive.
So let us make a short cross:
Cross) man I-3 x woman I-4
Parentals) Aa x Aa
Gametes) A a A a
Punnett square) A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
F1) 3/4 AA + Aa ⇒ individuals II-5 and II-7
1/4 aa ⇒ individual II-6
According to this analysis, Condition A Inheritance Mode is Autosomal Recessive (Option D).
Condition B.
This condition appears in individuals I-2, III-1, III-3, and IV-2.All the other individuals do not express the condition.The fact that the condition is mostly affecting men, excepting for individual
IV-2, suggests that the gene coding for this trait could be sex-linked.
If it was dominant, at least one of the individuals II-1 and II-2 should carry the dominant allele and should express the trait.
The fact that these individuals do not express the trait, but their III-1 son does, suggests that this is a recessive trait.
According to this analysis, Condition B Inheritance Mode is X-linked Recessive (Option C).
------------------------------------
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According to developmental psychologist Kenneth Dodge, successful __________ proceeds through a series of steps that correspond to the child's information-processing strategies.
a) status managementb) conflict resolutionc) social competenced) social problem solving
Answer:
Option d) social problem solving
Explanation:
Psychologist define learning capacity of child by the use of small set of process including observational skills, problem solving skill, conditioning and other reflexes. According to psychologist a child having ability to solve a problem indicates that child has developed in-cognitive abilities well and his brain capability is higher than non-problem solving children.
Kenneth Dodge's theory relates to social problem solving, which is a sequence of steps based on children's information-processing. Various conflict management strategies such as competition, avoidance, accommodation, compromise, and collaboration are critical in the development of these skills.
According to developmental psychologist Kenneth Dodge, successful social problem solving proceeds through a series of steps that correspond to the child's information-processing strategies. This concept is part of a broader framework called psychosocial development, a process proposed by Erikson in which social tasks are mastered as humans move through eight stages of life from infancy to adulthood. Understanding conflict resolution and management is crucial in this developmental process.
There are various strategies for managing conflict, including competition, avoidance, accommodation, compromise, and collaboration. These strategies reflect the concern we place on self versus others and are influenced by our upbringing and experiences. Effective conflict resolution can deescalate conflict, and the approach used in conflict situations often depends on the context and learned behavior.
how the endocrine system and nervous systems become involved when a student feels stress--such as that associated with an upcoming exam. Be detailed and cite sources in this weeks posting.
Answer:
The endocrine system and nervous system work together for the maintenance of the homeostasis of the organisms. Endocrine system release hormones whereas nervous system includes the release of neurotransmitters.
The stress condition in the body generates the fight and flight mechanisms of the body. The hypothalamus releases the hormone known as epinephrine that activates the sympathetic parts of the autonomic nervous system. This generates the different changes like increase in the blood flow, pupil dilation and perspiration to prepare the body for stress situation.
Fresh foods lose nutritive value and spoil over time. People in urban areas often live far from the farms where fresh foods are grown. As a result, they can have a hard time accessing nutritious foods. Community gardens in high-density urban areas offer a solution to this problem, in that they allow people to grow their own fresh produce.
Which part of this problem would community gardens most likely solve?
A. Financial cost
B. Aesthetics
C. Safety
D. Public health
Answer:
Community garden would solve the "public health" problem
Explanation:
Community garden is a land where different fruits, vegetables and other plants are grown in shared land so as to meet the kitchen requirement. In the community garden people work combinedly in order to make a beautiful as well as productive space. Community garden idea allows people to interact with neighbors and can spend some time outdoor, able to make new friends in the colony and it can help in maintaining the mental and public health.
Answer:
public health
Explanation:
just finished the test on ap.ex
DNA replication is said to be semiconservative. What does this mean?
a. Each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand.
b. The old double helix is degraded, and half of its nucleotides are used in the construction of two new double helices.
c. Half of the old strand is degraded, and half is used as a template for the replication of a new strand.
d. One of the two resulting double helices is made of two old strands, and the other is made of two new strands.
e. One strand of the new double helix is made of DNA, and the other strand is made of RNA.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Upon discovery of the DNA structure by Watson and Crick, three models were proposed in the 1950's to explain the method in which DNA replicated. One of these models stood out, this model is the SEMICONSERVATIVE MODEL.
In the semiconservative model, it was proposed that a single DNA strand serves as a template for synthesizing its complementary strand. The cell replicates its DNA in the S-phase of interphase. In this phase, the the double-helix of the DNA is separated into two single strands. An enzyme called DNA polymerase then synthesizes a new strand complementary to each separated single strand.
At the end, the replicated double-stranded DNA now contains one old template strand and a new complementary strand.
Semiconservative means that in DNA replication, each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand, where each strand is used as a template for the new strand, thus conserving half of the original molecule in each new molecule.
Option A
Explanation:When we say DNA replication is semiconservative, we mean that each new double helix created during replication consists of one 'old' or 'parental' strand and one new or 'daughter' strand. This means that the answer choice 'a. Each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand.' is correct.
The process works as follows: The DNA double helix unzips or unwinds, and each strand is used as a template to synthesize a new complementary strand. This results in two identical DNA molecules, each composed of one old strand (from the original DNA molecule) and one new strand. Thus, each new DNA molecule conserves half of the original molecule, hence the term semiconservative.
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When you sneeze, air is forcefully exhaled from your nose. As the air exits the nose, what is the last structure the air will pass through?
The last structure the air will pass through will be External nares
Explanation:
The upper portion of the respiratory tract is the nasal cavity and the nose. The external nose forms the first and foremost respiratory tract area. Nose is the major part that is responsible in exchanging air with the atmosphere. It is responsible for the human survival.
There are two openings in a nose. These are called as nostrils. They are also called as exterior nares. The air from the atmosphere when inhaled it enters into the nostril. from there is is sent to the nasal cavity. Nasal cavity is the place where the air that is inhaled will be purified and it is transported to various human parts. thus, when air contains any dust or impurities it will make you to sneeze thereby the air gets out of the nose through External nares
The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, what do all of these organisms represent?
Answer:
A community
Explanation:
In ecology, a community is used to describe a group of organisms of different species populations that live and interact together at a particular time in a common habitat or ecosystem.
The two cardinals, colony of ants, a wasp’s nest, two squirrels, and the millions of bacteria represent a community of different organisms dwelling at the backyard tree.
The organisms living in the tree represent a biological community. This is an ecological concept that refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other.
Explanation:The tree in your backyard with its inhabitants - two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria - together represent a biological community. A biological community, in ecological terms, refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other. The tree provides a habitat for various organisms and their interactions make up the biological community. For instance, the cardinals may eat the ants, while the bacteria may break down fallen leaves from the tree, contributing to nutrient cycling.
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Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism's physiology because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues in an endocrine axis and within the second messenger systems of individual cells.truefalse
Answer: True,
Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues due to the second messenger systems.
explanation:
Second messemgers are the intracellular molecules which are activated by the extracellular molecules. Second messengers intracellulary triggers physiological changes such as proliferation differentiation migration etc.
When hormones are released they bind to specific receptors such as G-coupled recptors,tyrosine recpetor which when activated further activates second messengers such as cAMP and STAT respectively.
These second messengers amplify the hormone secretion and production by phosphorylation and increasing transcription.
Hence this is true that second messnegers amplify the hormones and their physiological results.
Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. View Available Hint(s) Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. analysis of ribosomal RNA analysis of DNA metabolic characteristics physical characteristics?
Answer:
The three main domains into which the organisms are classified are archaea, bacteria and eukarya.
Archaea : The archaea is more closely related to eukaryotes. Although they have bacteria like metabolism and have 70'S chromosomes but shows presence of introns and shows similar molecular mechanism like replication, transcription and translation similar to eukaryotes. These are found in the extreme conditions as well.
Bacteria: The bacteria have circular DNA with 70'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ester linkage and no nucleosome formation occur in bacteria. The transcription and translation are coupled together with no further modification.
Eukarya: The eukaryotes have linear DNA with 80'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ether linkage and proper nucleosome fprmation occurs in eukarya. The transcription and translation occurs separately in the distinct compartments and further modification occurs.
Match the following.
Part A
1. night blindness
2. color blindness
3. hyperopia
4. myopia
5. astigmatism
Part B
a. trouble distinguishing colors
b. eyeball too short
c. vitamin A deficiency
d. eyeball too long
e. light refracted aspherically
night blindness-vitamin A deficiency
color blindness - trouble distinguishing colors
hyperopia-eyeball too short
myopia-eyeball too long
astigmatism-light refracted aspherically.
Explanation:Night blindness is defined as the disease which involves the mal production of retinol in the rod cells of retina. This leads to the decreased sensitivity of eye to dim light.
Similarly, colour blindness is a genetic disease which is characterised by absence of a particular pigment in cone cells. This restricts the vision of a particular colour.
Hyperopia or hypermetropia is the shortening of eyeball which leads to the focusing of light rays behind the retina. So convex lenses are required to focus them on retina.
Myopia is the opposite of hypermetropia where the eyeball is elongated and the light rays doesn't reach the retina. So concave lens are required to focus the rays on retina.
Astigmatism is the case where the curvature of lens isn't correct, and the lens required for the correction is cylindrical lens