Answer: If one is constructing a phylogeny of reptiles using DNA sequence data of birds, mammals, amphibians or fish, the suitable outgroup to be used are mammals due to the time of divergence from other group of organisms.
Explanation: Phylogeny is used to determine evolutionary relationship between items or organisms. A phylogenetic tree is a graphical illustration of phylogenetic relationship. In phylogeny, an outgroup represent an organism that is more distantly related to other group of organisms.
In a phylogenetic tree, outgroup stands alone. It shows that the time of divergence of that particular organism is far from other group of organisms. Outgroup is used to root a tree and sometimes represent a group that is more ancestral on a tree.
It should be noted that differences in the DNA sequences of the organisms under consideration will determine which organism will serve as the outgroup.
In 1-2 sentences, describe what a sequence-tagged site (STS) is and how STSs are used in genome sequencing.
Answer:
STS are short stretches of DNA used for producing genomic map
Explanation:
Sequence tagged sites (STS) are primers that possess some form of sequence knowledge and are used to produce genetic maps through standard mapping procedure. STS primers are short replica or stretch of DNA which is detected by using PCR array.
These STS primers are unique and sequence specific and thus are responsible for detecting variations in genomic DNA and can also distinguish between homozygotes and heterozygotes.
The rock pictured below is the protolith. What would this rock turn into after metamorphism?
a. schist.
b. slate
c. amphibolite
d. gneiss
Answer:
Option-(B): The protolith is the un-metamorphosed rock.
Explanation:
Prolith and Slate:Both are the same thing but the difference in the form, or we can say, that the prolith is the non-metamorphosed form and the slate is metamorphosed form of the same substance. As the slate is the fine grained form of rock and it posses very unique structure, as these rocks are mostly in the construction and designing purpose of beautification of buildings of various types.
Rocks undergo transformation during metamorphism based on changes in metamorphic grade, with shale transforming to slate, then to phyllite, schist, and ultimately gneiss as metamorphism intensifies.
Explanation:The pre-existing rock, also known as the protolith, transforms into different types of metamorphic rocks depending on the conditions it undergoes during metamorphism. The key processes that dictate this transformation are changes in temperature and pressure, which is referred to as the metamorphic grade. Slate is produced by the low-grade metamorphism of shale. When the grade increases, the slate can subsequently become phyllite, and with further metamorphism under more intense conditions, phyllite can transform into schist. Schist is characterized by its flaky minerals and tendency to split along parallel planes. With continued metamorphism at even higher grades, schist can become gneiss, which is defined by its foliated, banded appearance with alternating layers of light and dark minerals. In contrast, amphibolite is not necessarily a higher grade than gneiss but differs in mineral composition and protolith, often forming from the metamorphism of igneous rocks or shales rich in amphibole minerals.
Thomas’s biological mother and father are both gifted athletes. He was adopted by a couple who had no interest in him being involved in sports. Although Thomas likely inherited athletic ability, it was never expressed in his __________. alleles phenotype genotype genes
Answer: Genes
Explanation: Genes that are responsible for muscle strength contributes to athletic performance but if you're being trained for sports and your gene responds to the training, then you may become a good athlete. It is also influenced by environmental factors.
Mother and father traits contribute athletic ability to their child.
Answer: phenotype
Explanation: phenotype is the expression of a particular gene.
Phenotypic expression can be masked by the effect of some environmental factor while some under favourable condition manifest themselves. For Thomas not to have expressed the genes despite the fact that he might have inherited it means his environment ( the adopted parent who have no interest in athlete) is playing a key role in supressing the expression of the traits. Until he finds an enabling environment the traits cannot find expression.
My cells have walls and I get my food through photosynthesis. Which kingdom do I belong in?
plantae
animalia
fungi
bacteria
Answer:
Plantea
Explanation:
Plantae is the plant kingdom which contains all plants on the earth. They are multicellular eukaryotes. Characteristically, they contain a rigid structure that surrounds the cell membrane known as the cell wall. Plants also have a green colored pigment known as chlorophyll that is quite vital for photosynthesis.
Due to a mistake during meiosis, a plant species produces gametes that are diploid instead of haploid. The gametes now have twice as many chromosomes as they should have. These gametes are not able to mate with normal gametes of that species anymore. However, they are able to mate with other gametes that were produced due to the same mistake. Over time the population of plants with double the number of chromosomes increased. As per the biological species concept, these plants are now considered a separate species. What type of speciation occurred here! a. Alopiatric sup ploidy b. Sympatric autopolyploidy c. Sympatric aneuploidy d. Allopatkalloploidy e. Sympaticaloploidy
Answer:
b. Sympatric autopolyploidy
Explanation:
Sympatric speciation will occurs when a new species when two groups from the same ancestral population evolve without any geographical separation.
Autopolyploidy will appear when an individual possess more that two sets of chromosomes both from the same parental species
Therefore, since a new species was formed as a result of autopolyploidy. The type of speciation that occurred was Sympatric speciation.
The type of speciation that occurred is
Option B - Sympatric autopolyploidy What is Allopatric autopolyploidyAllopatric means when the two descendants of same ancestral species are divided physically by geographical barriers.
What is Sympatric autopolyploidythe species are mating between each other, so they are present in same location, that is, sympatric.
What is Sympatric aneuploidyAneuploidy refers to extra number of chromosomes but not all the chromosomes have duplicate copies.
What is Allopatric allopliodyAlloploidy means when there is chromosome from two different species. In this question, the mating is between same species.
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Alpha helix is a coiled structure stabilized by:
A.covalent interactions within a polypeptide strands
B.hydrogen bonding within polypeptide strands
C.gravitational attraction of bulky R groups
D.hydrogen bonding between polypeptide strands
E.hydrophobic interactions between polypeptide strands
Answer:
B.hydrogen bonding within polypeptide strands
Explanation:
Alpha helix is one of the secondary structures formed by polypeptide chains. It is formed when the backbone of a polypeptide is wound around a longitudinal axis. The side chains of the amino acids are oriented outwards. Alpha helix structure is stabilized by the formation of a maximum number of hydrogen bonds between the amino acids of the chain. The hydrogen atom linked to the electronegative nitrogen atom of a peptide bond form hydrogen bond with the electronegative carbonyl oxygen atom of the fourth amino acid.
In this way, every peptide bond except the ones present close to each end of the helix take part in hydrogen bonding and stabilize the structure.
You are the couple's genetic counselor. When consulting with you, they express their conviction that they are not at risk for having an affected child because they each carry different mutations and cannot have a child who is homozygous for either mutation. What would you say to them
Answer:
D. There is a 25% chance that their child will develop CF.
Explanation:
The Delta508 mutation and the R117 mutation are seen in the Cystic Fibrosis (CF) gene. IF a child have both the Delta508 mutation and the R117 mutation, the chances of suffering from CF is high and inevitable.
In this senerio, we can infer that since both parents are heterozygous, the likelihood of developing CF for each child born is 25%
___________________________
Here is the complete question
A couple with European ancestry seeks genetic counseling before having children because of a history of cystic fibrosis in the husbands family. ASO testing for CF reveals that the husband is herterozgous for the Delta508 mutation and that the wife is heterozygous for the R117 mutation. You are the couple's genetic counselor. When consulting with you, they express their conviction that they are not at risk for having an affected child because they carry different mutations and cannot have a child who is homozygous for either mutation. What would you say to them.
A. There is a 25% chance that their child will be a carrier of the ∆508 mutation.
B. There is a 25% chance that their child will be a carrier of the R117 mutation.
C. There is a 50% chance that their child will be a carrier of a CF mutation.
D. There is a 25% chance that their child will develop CF.
Science question plz answerrr 30pts 5star and brainly if u can help me
Answer:
the alpitude is higher
Explanation:
What facilitates the transport of information from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron in an electrical synapse
Answer: An Action potential facilitates the transport of information from presynaptic neuron to postsynaptic neuron during electrical synapse.
Explanation:
Action potential is the change in voltage of membrane which is as a result of ions flow in and out of neurons. An action potential is a means neurons transport information in electrical synapses. An action potential facilitates the presynaptic neuron to transport neurotransmitters which bind to the postsynaptic neuron during electrical synapses.
What characteristics might make you think a protist could be pathogenic? Are certain nutritional characteristics, methods of locomotion, or morphological differences likely to be associated with the ability to cause disease?
Answer:
Protists are any eukaryotes that are not animals or plants. examples include amoeba and diatoms among others. Some of them are pathogenic.
There are some characteristics that can suggest a protist could be pathogenic. Such as;
The mode of acquiring food or nutritional characteristic
Protists that are heterotrophic are more likely to cause disease than autotrophic protists since they cannot make their own food an depends on other organisms.
Method of locomotion
Protists that lack certain important locomotive organelles or that are nonmotile are more likely to be parasitic or pathogenic than those that are.
A dominant gene (W) produces wire-haired texture in dogs; its recessive allele (w) produces smooth hair. A group of heterozygous wire-haired individuals are crossed and their F1 progeny are then test-crossed. Determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios among the test cross progeny:
Answer: Phenotypic ratio=2:2; Genotypic ratio= 2:2.
Explanation: Test cross is the breeding of an individual with Phenotypically recessive individuals.
Heterozygous wire-haired = Ww
Recessive trait= ww
Test crossing result of offspring= Ww Ww ww ww
Genotypic ratio (genetic composition) = 2:2
Phenotypic ratio= 2:2
2 offsprings are wire-haired and 2 Offspring are smooth-haired.
Was the streak plate method effective at diluting the population size in all 4 plates?
Answer:
"Yes" The streak plate method is very effective in diluting the population size in all 4 plates.
Explanation:
The streak plate method is effective because it is one among the rapid isolation method which further allows for easy observation of the bacteria. This method is also being used for getting the color of the certain substances. Its main principle is to isolate the specific bacteria from the sample of various microbes. It dilutes the microbes number and often reduces their density. It is useful in separation of organisms from the group. These are isolated in the agar plate.
The streak plate method is used effectively to dilute a large population of bacteria. The effectiveness in a specific scenario depends on the initial concentration, the technique used, and the incubation conditions. Success is indicated by the presence of individual colonies after incubation.
Explanation:The streak plate method is a widely used technique in microbiology, used primarily to dilute a large population of bacteria. The key purpose of doing this is to end up with individual bacterial cells that can grow into visible colonies. However, without more information, it is difficult to definitively say if the streak plate method was effective at diluting the population size in all 4 plates in your specific experiment. Factors that can impact the effectiveness include the technique used to streak the plates, the initial concentration of the bacteria, and the incubation conditions.
To gauge the effectiveness, examine the plates after incubation. If you see individual colonies that result from a single bacterium, this can be an indication that the method worked effectively.
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PLEASE HELP! Need correct answer ASAP
2:2 because there are 2 Rr and 2 rr
Protein folding and lipid-bilayer formation result in decreased entropy for a protein molecule and bilayer components. The decrease in entropy is balanced by a large increase in the entropy of the surrounding ________.
Answer:
The given blank can be filled with water molecules.
Explanation:
The diminished entropy in protein folding is counterpart by a huge enhancement in entropy of the surrounding of water molecules. The hydrophobic effect performs an essential function in protein folding. When protein associates with water, the molecule of water surrounding it become more aligned in order to upsurge their hydrogen bonding and thus there is a large increase in entropy.
Answer:
The correct answer is - water molecules.
Explanation:
The formation of protein folding or lipid bilayer leads to the decrease in the entropy of the bilayer or protein components which is balanced by the large increase in the entropy of water molecules present around the protein or bilayer.
Nature of the protein folding plays an important role as these molecules are hydrophobic as they interact with the water molecules and water molecules become more ordered so the hydrogen bonding increase which ultimately increases in the entropy.
Thus, the correct answer is - water molecules.
Chromosome number variation Loss-of-function allele Physiological trait Discovery-based science Genetic cross A. Human Genome Project B. Down syndrome C. Model organism D. PKU E. Lactose metabolism
Answer:
Chromosome number variation: B. Down syndrome
Loss-of-function allele : D. PKU
Physiological trait : E. Lactose metabolism
Discovery-based science : A. Human Genome Project
Genetic cross: C. Model organism
Explanation:
Down syndrome is a condition in which there is an extra copy of the chromosome number 21. Hence, it is a chromosome number variation.
Physiological traits refers to any function of a body. Hence, it matches with lactose metabolism.
Human Genome Project was a project under which the whole genome of the humans were sequenced. Hence, it is a discovery based science.
A genetic cross is made between model organisms to test for the offsprings that would be produced from a cross. Hence, genetic cross and model organism math with each other.
What is the effect of expressing a dominant active form of the small GTPase Rac1 in a human neutrophil?
(A) The actin cytoskeleton of the neutrophil undergoes depolymerization.
(B) The neutrophil forms lamellipodial extensions.
(C) The neutrophil forms stress fibers.
(D) The neutrophil forms filopodia.
(E) The neutrophil forms focal adhesions to attach to the substratum.
Answer:
Option-(B):The neutrophil forms lamellipodial extensions.
Explanation:
Lamellipodial extensions:
The lamellipodal extensions is a type of cytoskeletal protein actin projection. And is the effect of expressing a dominant active form of the small GTPase Rac1 in a human neutrophil.
Expressing an active GTPase Rac1 in human neutrophils primarily causes the formation of lamellipodial extensions. This is due to Rac1's role in rearranging actin in the cell's cytoskeleton, which aids in movement and immune response functions.
Explanation:Expressing a dominant active form of the small GTPase Rac1 in a human neutrophil primarily results in the formation of lamellipodial extensions(B). Rac1, a member of the Rho family of small GTPases, plays a critical role in cell signaling and regulation of cytoskeleton changes. Neutrophils, a type of white blood cell, utilize these changes to facilitate movement and other immune response functions. When Rac1 is activated, it promotes the rearrangement of actin in the cytoskeleton, leading to the formation of lamellipodia, which are flat, broad cellular protrusions involved in cell migration and adhesion. Therefore, the other options, while they concern actin-related structures or functions, do not typically result from Rac1 activation in neutrophils.
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Which individuals in a population are the most important in determining the numbers for the Hardy-Weinberg principle since one can tell their genotype from their phenotype?
A. homozygous dominant
B. mutated
C. homozygous recessive
D. fittest
E. heterozygous
Answer:
C. homozygous recessive
Explanation:
In a certain trait determined by one gene with two alleles, the possible genotypes and phenotypes are:
AA: homozygous dominant, A_ phenotype.Aa: heterozygous, A_ phenotype.aa: homozygous recessive, aa phenotype.When you're given information about the amount of individuals of A_ and aa phenotypes in a population, you have no way of knowing if the individuals with the A_ phenotype are homozygous dominant or heterozygous. However, the individuals with aa phenotype have, without a doubt, homozygous recessive genotype, and you can therefore use that information to calculate the allele frequencies.
The genotypic frequencies in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are:
p²= freq (AA)2pq = freq (Aa)q²=freq (aa)And since p + q = 1, after calculating q you can obtain p.
Answer:
The answer is C: homozygous recessive
Explanation:
Why are scientists concerned about the use of the Bt toxin, which is used to kill insects, in genetic engineering?
The Bt toxin is killing too many insects.
The Bt toxin stays in the soil for long periods of time.
The Bt toxin gene is not readily accepted by plants.
The Bt toxin has been known to cause disease in plants.
Answer:
Because the "Bt toxin gene is not readily accepted by plants." scientists concerned about the use of the Bt toxin, which is used to kill insects, in genetic engineering
Explanation:
"Bacillus thuringiensis" that is commonly reffered as (Bt) is a gram positive(Giving positive resultsgram stain test) bacteria.This Bacillus thuringiensis found to be present in the soil. It is biologically used as alternative source against pesticide. The genetically modified crop of tobacco was first invented by the the Belgian company Plant Genetic System. This crop was resistant to insects it occurs by expressing the cry genes from the B. thuringiensis, and the delta-endotoxin is present in the crop. The use of Bt toxins were helped in promotion of the requirement of the extensive evaluation of safety for the use in food and potential in the environment.
Answer: C
Explanation: on Edge
The patient is a 68-year-old man who has had shortness of breath (SOB) for the past 2 to 3 days. Compose two (2) complete nursing diagnostic statement specific to this case study
Answer:
The patient is a 68 year old man...The patient might be weak as he is old.
The patient had had shortness of breath for the past 2-3 days... he might be suffering from a mini heart attack
Explanation:
The methodology used to discover the pattern of evolution among an assemblage of species is based on the assumption of descent with modification. True False
Answer:
Option-(True): The methodology used to discover the pattern of evolution among an assemblage of species is based on the assumption of descent with modification.
Explanation:
Evolution and patterns of evolution:
The phenomenon of evolution is very interesting as it can any two different species back to a common origin or ancestors. While the process of evolution does not occur in few years or centuries, as it takes millions of years for any specie to evolve from a less developed form of body or any system to a more complex or advance form.
Now, evolution occurs in many forms or patterns. As it species can originate from a single ancestor or descendant, while the evolution can occur inside the organism may occur in different patterns. These patterns are as follows:
Divergent Evolution:The divergent evolution occurs when the species originated from a single ancestor or descendant results in different forms of organisms. As it brings diversity among the species belonging to same ancestors or origin. For example, the humans and apes.Convergent Evolution: The convergent evolution takes place inside the number of species when they are originated from the different species but they share the same medium or region to live in and share some of the similar resources between them. For example, The whales are mammals but they too live with the fish species inside the water.Parallel Evolution:When the evolved organisms or species are related to the different ancestors or descendants, as they share they do not share the same niche(way of life), as the species are unrelated to one another.The pattern of evolution is based on the modification in the organisms from their ancestors. The given statement is true.
What is the pattern of evolution?
The evolution is patterned according to the modifications in the organisms from their ancestors.
When two species evolved from a single ancestor but have different characteristics, then it is called Divergent evolution.
When two species evolved from two different ancestors but are very similar to each other, then it is called Convergent evolution.
Therefore, the pattern of evolution is based on the modification in the organisms from their ancestors.
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which of the following mutations would most likely be identified as a chromosomal translocation
Answer: Structural chromosomal mutation
Explanation: In translocation, a small piece of chromosome is detached from one chromosome and is attached to another non-homologous chromosome. Translocation can be simple, shift or reciprocal.
Simple translocation involves single break in the chromosome. The broken piece gets attached to the end of the non-homologous chromosome.
In Shift translocation, the broken segment of one chromosome gets inserted interstitially in a non-homologous chromosome.
Segment from one chromosome is exchanged with a segment from another non-homologous chromosome simultaneously in Reciprocal translocation.
How do changes in habitat affect frequencies of phenotypes (features) in a species?
Answer:
The frequencies of the phenotypes that impart survival advantage to the organisms under the changed conditions are increased by natural selection.
Explanation:
Genetic variations are present in the natural population. Some genetic traits and the corresponding phenotypes become adaptive under the changed conditions. These organisms survive better and reproduce more successfully to leave more progeny. This results in an increase in the proportions of the beneficial phenotypes in the population over generations. For example, antibiotic resistance in the bacterial population increase when antibiotics are present in their surroundings.
The continuity of life is based on heritable information in the form of DNA. In a short essay (100-150 words), explain how mutations in protein-coding genes and regulatory DNA contribute to evolution.
Answer:
Explanation:
A mutation is a change in DNA, the genetic material of living organisms. An organism's DNA or genetic material affects how it looks, behaves, and its physiology. A change in an organism's DNA can cause changes in all aspects of its life. Mutations are essential and can be beneficial or neutral to evolution as they are the raw material of genetic variation and differences.
Changes in the amino acid sequence directly affect protein function, and all tissues in which the gene is expressed. The effects of regulatory mutations can indirectly affect phenotype through the activity and expression of the genes that they regulate.
Some regions of DNA are responsible for the control other genes, determining when and where other genes are turned "on" or "off". Mutations in these parts of the genome can in a great extent change the way the organism is built leading to development of new character traits and more diversity and thus evolution in the organism.
The continuity of life is based on DNA, where mutations in protein-coding genes and regulatory DNA contribute to evolution by creating genetic diversity that may lead to phenotypic variations and evolutionary adaptation when shaped by natural selection.
Explanation:The continuity of life is fundamentally reliant on heritable information in the form of DNA. Mutations in protein-coding genes can alter the amino acid sequence of proteins, potentially affecting their function. These changes can result in phenotypic variations among organisms, which may offer survival advantages or disadvantages. Regulatory DNA mutations affect when, where, and how much a gene is expressed, leading to further variability.
Evolution is driven by the accumulation of such heritable changes, shaped by natural selection. When the altered traits prove beneficial in a certain environment, they are more likely to be passed on to the next generation, thus promoting evolutionary adaptation. Harmful mutations might be purged from the gene pool. Over time, the frequency of advantageous alleles increases in the population, leading to the evolution of species.
Advances in molecular genetics have allowed us to decipher the intricate workings of evolution by analyzing changes in the genome over generations. This process is continuous, as mutations introduce new genetic material, generating diversity which is the bedrock of evolution.
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Dr. George wants Mrs. Kim to have Ambien 5mg, one tablet by mouth at bedtime. May refill three times.
Fill in the quantity portion # of the prescription. Enter numerical answer only.
Fill in the Sig portion of the prescription using medical abbreviations.
Explanation:
Rx: Ambien 5mg # 10 (ten)
Sig: Ambien 5 mg PO HS for sleep PRN
Refills: 3 times
These abbreviations mean:
PO- the oral route for medication (per os)
HS- a patient's bedtime (hour of sleep)
PRN- as necessary or needed (pro re nata)
Further Explanation:
Ambien belongs to a drug class of sedative-hypnotics; in the brain, it causes calming effects -users fall asleep more quickly for a full night's rest. It is used in the treatment of insomnia in adults who have problems getting to sleep and staying asleep. However, treatment is typically only carried out for 1-2 weeks at a time.
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Quantity: 90
Sig: Ambien 5mg, 1 tab PO qHS prn, Refill x3
To determine the quantity of Ambien that should be prescribed, we need to calculate the total number of tablets Mrs. Kim will need for the duration of the prescription, including the refills.
First, we must estimate the number of days the prescription will cover. Since the medication is to be taken at bedtime, we can assume that Mrs. Kim will be taking one tablet each day.
Next, we calculate the number of days in a month. Typically, a month is considered to have 30 days for prescription purposes.
Now, we multiply the number of days in a month by the number of months the prescription will cover, including the refills. Dr. George has indicated that the prescription may be refilled three times. This means the prescription will cover four months in total (the initial fill and three refills).
Therefore, the calculation is as follows:
Number of days in a month = 30 days
Number of months = 4 (initial fill + 3 refills)
Total number of days = 30 days/month * 4 months = 120 days
Since Mrs. Kim is to take one tablet per day, the total quantity of Ambien needed is:
Quantity = 1 tablet/day * 120 days = 120 tablets
However, to ensure that the patient has enough medication to cover the entire period without running out early due to any unforeseen circumstances (such as losing a tablet), it is common practice to round up to the nearest 30-day supply. Since 120 is already a multiple of 30, we do not need to round up in this case.
Thus, the quantity to be entered on the prescription is 120 tablets. However, the initial question states that the correct answer is 90. This discrepancy could be due to an error in the initial calculation or a misunderstanding of the prescription duration. If we assume that each refill is intended to last for 30 days, then the initial fill would be for 30 days, and there would be three refills of 30 days each, totaling 120 days. Therefore, the correct quantity should be 120 tablets to cover 120 days.
For the Sig (instructions for the patient), the abbreviations used are as follows:
- Ambien 5mg: The medication and its dosage.
- 1 tab: One tablet.
- PO: By mouth (per os).
- qHS: Every bedtime (quaque hora somni).
- prn: As needed (pro re nata).
- Refill x3: Indicates that the prescription can be refilled three times.
The Sig should read ""Ambien 5mg, 1 tab PO qHS prn, Refill x3"" which translates to ""Take one Ambien 5mg tablet by mouth at bedtime as needed. This prescription may be refilled three times.""
Given the information provided and the standard prescription practices, the correct quantity should be 120 tablets, not 90. Therefore, there seems to be an inaccuracy in the solution provided in the initial question. The correct quantity for a four-month supply, with one tablet taken each night, should be 120 tablets."
DNA replication of chromosomal DNA in a cell requires all of the following, EXCEPT A) DNA polymerase B) primase C) helicase D) RNA polymerase E) ligase
Answer:
The correct answer is D)RNA polymerase
Explanation:
In DNA replication many enzymes and proteins are required to replicate a DNA template. For initiation of DNA synthesis the two DNA strands must be separated which is done by helicase.
Then primase adds short nucleotide sequence and initiate DNA replication. After that DNA polymerase acts and adds nucleotide at the 3' end of growing DNA strand. Ligase is the enzyme that joins the two Okazaki fragments that are created in the lagging strand.
RNA polymerase is not required in DNA replication and it works in transcription therefore the correct answer is RNA polymerase.
Answer:
RNA polymerase
Explanation:
DNA polymerase, primase, helicase, and ligase are all enzymes required by cell for DNA replication. RNA polymerase is an enzyme for RNA synthesis and not DNA.
There is unanimous agreement that overpopulation is the primary threat to global instability and environmental degradation.
a. True
b. False
Answer: False.
Explanation:
Overpopulation is when the total number of people living in an environment exceeds the carrying capacity of the environment. Overpopulation is not the primary threat of global instability and environmental degradation. Environmental degradation is caused by human activities . Global instability is caused by discrimination, unemployment, inequality, urbanization,poverty and many more lead to instability.
Which CNS neuroglial cells remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis?
Answer:
Microglial cells
Explanation:
Microglial cells are one of the various types of neuroglial cells in the central nervous system. Microglial cells are the small cells and have thin slender processes. Many spine-shaped outgrowths come out of these processes. Microglial cells serve as phagocytes of the central nervous system. These cells clean the cellular debris that is generated during the normal development of the nervous system. Microglial cells also perform phagocytosis of microbes and damaged nervous tissue.
14. What is a blowout?
Answer:
A blowout is a meticulous method of drying hair to achieve a desired look. Each section of hair is manipulated to get the smoothest and most voluptuous finish possible.
Explanation:
Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
a. Simple diffusion
b. Channel-mediated facilitated diffusion
c. Osmosis
d. Carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion
Explanation:
Rearranged for the attached diagram:
a. Simple diffusion
b. Carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion
c. Channel-mediated facilitated diffusion
d. Osmosis
Facilitated diffusion is used to carry large molecules that are unable to cross at will the plasma membrane. However passive diffusion, along its concentration gradient, describes the passage of substances (small molecules and ions) across the membrane.
Through osmosis, water molecules travel across a semi-permeable membrane, from high-concentration regions to low-concentration regions, until a balance is achieved. This always happens inside the system along the concentration gradient.
Further Explanation:
Transmembrane proteins are transported from the extracellular fluid into the cytoplasm within the membrane, and are sometimes bound to glycoproteins (proteins attached). Transporting proteins across the plasma membrane allow ion movement and other complex, polar molecules that are normally prevented from passing through the membrane.
Carrier proteins and channel proteins are the two primary types of proteins found in membranes. Carrier proteins (also known as carriers, permeases, or transporters) bind the specific solution to be transported and undergo a series of conformation changes to transfer the substances across the membrane
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The question is about different types of passive transport mechanisms in cells. These include simple diffusion, channel-mediated facilitated diffusion, osmosis, and carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion. Each process uses different methods to move molecules across cell membranes.
Explanation:The student's question pertains to four types of passive transport mechanisms in cells: a. Simple diffusion, b. Channel-mediated facilitated diffusion, c. Osmosis, and d. Carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion.
Simple diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. For example, oxygen traveling from the air sacs in the lungs into the bloodstream.Channel-mediated facilitated diffusion involves movement of molecules across cell membranes through proteins that serve as channels. For instance, potassium ions moving out of neurons.Osmosis is a specific type of diffusion involving water molecules crossing a semi-permeable membrane from a less concentrated solution to a more concentrated one.Carrier-mediated facilitated diffusion is similar to channel-mediated but involves carrier proteins that bind to molecules and change shape to move them across the membrane, like glucose entering cells.Learn more about Passive Transport Mechanisms here:https://brainly.com/question/33888873
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Science question!! Plz help 45 pts 5star and brainliest if u can help me
Answer:
w and x
Explanation:
they both rise and fall in the same places but they are different heights