The main factors that led to a boom in human population size in the last 300 years include advancements in medical technology, increased agricultural productivity, industrialization, and improved standards of living. Population A would increase by more people in one year due to its higher growth rate. The relationship between population density and population distribution is that population density is a measure of the number of people living per unit area, while distribution refers to the pattern of where people live. Urbanization relieves some pressure on ecosystems as it concentrates human impact into smaller areas, allowing the regeneration of ecosystems in non-urbanized regions.
Historically, the human population grew at a slow rate until the onset of the Industrial Revolution, which led to improved medicine, sanitation, and food production, promoting a rapid increase in population. Population A's annual growth rate of 3.3 percent would result in a larger absolute increase in numbers compared to Population B with an annual growth rate of 1.8 percent, despite the initial population size difference. The concept of population density is distinct from distribution; densely populated areas might be unevenly distributed if large regions are sparsely inhabited. Urbanization can reduce pressure on ecosystems located away from cities because it centralizes resource consumption and waste production, allowing undisturbed regions to maintain or recover their natural ecological functions.
Which of the following best estimates the amount of Earth's primary production that occurs in the oceans?
50%
90%
10%
25%
75%
The best way to estimate the amount of Earth's primary production that occurs in the oceans is 10%.
What is primary production?Primary production is defined as the creation of new organic matter by plants and other autotrophs.It can be related per unit area for individual ecosystems or worldwide. The production also is a rate, measured per time unit, while standing crop biomass is the huge amount of plant matter at a given point in time.Examples of primary production are farming, fishing, livestock rearing, and other production methods.Primary productivity is of two types:i. Gross Primary Productivity (GPP)
ii. Net Primary Productivity (NPP)
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The best estimate for the amount of Earth's primary production occurring in the oceans is around 50%, as oceans and terrestrial systems have similar levels of production, with the half of the biosphere's energy captured by oceanic phytoplankton.
The question concerns the estimate of Earth's primary production coming from the oceans. Based on the information provided, approximately half of the energy that flows through the Earth's biosphere is captured by phytoplankton in the ocean. Moreover, marine productivity is almost the same as that of terrestrial systems, with marine net production being about 35-50 billion metric tons per year, compared to terrestrial production which reaches 50-70 billion tons per year. Therefore, the best estimate for the fraction of Earth's primary production that occurs in the oceans would be around 50%.
Question 3 Use your Punnett squares to explain why traits that aren’t present in either parent could show up in the offspring or in future generations of the offspring.
Some traits are not present if there the recessive trait which is the less dominant allele which means it is not the dominant trait so it won't show unless its 2 recessives or more.
How Punnett squares can be use:The Punnett square is a square diagram that is used to predict the genotypes of a particular cross or breeding experiment.
Punnett squares are a useful tool for predicting what the offspring will look like when mating plants or animals.
Punnett squares are often used to help determine how likely a child is to receive a dominant or recessive allele. Because they can be overridden by dominant alleles, recessive alleles tend to be expressed more rarely.
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when did the phanerozoic Eon begin
Answer:
541 million years ago
Explanation:
The Phanerozoic Eon is the most recent eon. It started 541 million years ago, and it still lasts, thus we are living in this eon as well. The Phanerozoic Eon has seen lot of changes, from explosion of the life, to big catastrophic events, big changes in climate, changes in the continents and oceans, and most recently the appearance of the most intelligent species, the humans. Through this period the Earth has been dominated by fish, sinapsids, dinosaurs, mammals, all having their fair share of dominance on the planet. The continents have been constantly on the move, creating supercontinents on multiple occasions, but then falling apart and creating numerous small ones. There has been multiple mass extinctions as well, some caused by intense volcanic activity, some by meteorite impacts.
Red wolves are an endangered species in the United States. Which agency is responsible for their protection?
Check all that apply.
○ National Park Service
○ US Fish and Wildlife Service
○ US Forest Service
○ Bureau of Land Management
Answer:
US Fish and Wildlife Service
Explanation:
The US Fish and Wildlife Service is the agency that has the authority to protect the habitat and the fish, and wildlife. They do that by securing an area, getting well prepared professionals on the ground or water, and they try and mostly manage to stop any illegal activities that can harm the habitat and the local flora and fauna. They are very important especially when it comes to stopping the poachers and getting them behind bars, as very often they are the main threat and reason why certain animals have come on the verge of extinction. Often this agency is accompanied and supported by the National Marine Fishery Service.
Answer:
US Fish and Wildfire Service
Explanation:
I PROMISE ITS THE RIGHT ANSWER !!PROMISE!!Multiple Choice New species arise when a. a portion of the population becomes isolated from the remainder of the population and experiences different selective pressures. b. living organisms can arise from non-living matter and that the type of organism formed depends on the type of non-living matter DNA controls the activities of the cell by specifying what proteins are to be synthesized. c. chloroplasts and mitochondria evolved from small prokaryotes that were consumed by a larger eukaryotic cell. d. all living organisms are composed of cells and that a cell is the smallest unit considered to be living.
Answer:
a. a portion of the population becomes isolated from the remainder of the population and experiences different selective pressures
Explanation:
This is an example of allopatric speciation Allopatric speciation is a form of speciation (formation of new species) that occurs as a result of geographic isolation. This means that a part of population becomes physically separated from the initial main population. There is no gene flow between these two populations and as a result the two populations reach a high level of genetic divergence. They can no longer interbreed which means they become two different species (speciation).
New populations evolve as result of mutation, genetic drift and natural selection.
For example, Galapagos finches are isolated from others by the ocean (geographic isolation). Because of the isolation, the finches don’t breed with one another. So, they developed unique characteristics and became endemic.
Which word describes structures that are used for the same purpose in the environment but do not share the same development?
Answer:
Convergent evolution is the independent evolution of similar features in species of different lineages. Convergent evolution creates analogous structures that have similar form or function but were not present in the last common ancestor of those groups. The cladistic term for the same phenomenon is homoplasy. The recurrent evolution of flight is a classic example, as flying insects, birds, pterosaurs, and bats have independently evolved the useful capacity of flight. Functionally similar features that have arisen through convergent evolution are analogous, whereas homologous structures or traits have a common origin but can have dissimilar functions. Bird, bat, and pterosaur wings are analogous structures, but their forelimbs are homologous, sharing an ancestral state despite serving different functions.
The opposite of convergence is divergent evolution, where related species evolve different traits. Convergent evolution is similar to parallel evolution, which occurs when two independent species evolve in the same direction and thus independently acquire similar characteristics; for instance, gliding frogs have evolved in parallel from multiple types of tree frog.
Many instances of convergent evolution are known in plants, including the repeated development of C4 photosynthesis, seed dispersal by fleshy fruits adapted to be eaten by animals, and carnivory.
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A thread can be put to sleep for a given number of milliseconds. when the thread wakes up, it goes to the rear of the ____ queue. running blocked ready waiting
I believe the answer is waiting queue.
When dry environmental conditions exist, guard cells close the openings in leaves to reduce the loss of water from the plant. This process is an example of a feedback mechanism that plants use in order to
I think is environment
Answer:
To maintain homeostasis is the correct answer
Explanation:
What did matthias schleiden contribute to the cell theory
Answer:
He was the firs who claimed that organism is composed of cells.
Explanation:
Together with Theodor Schwann and Rudolf Virchow, a German botanist Matthias Schleiden was a cofounder of cell theory. He studied plant structure under the microscope and there he discovered that the basic units of plant organism are cells. He was also involved in the findings about the cell nucleus and the cell division process.
Matthias Schleiden, a German botanist, contributed significantly to the development of the cell theory. He proposed, with Theodor Schwann, that all living things are composed of one or more cells, the cell is the basic unit of life, and new cells come from existing cells. His work aided in the acceptance of cell theory as a foundation for biological understanding.
Explanation:The German botanist Matthias Schleiden contributed significantly to the development of the cell theory. Along with the zoologist Theodor Schwann, he proposed in the late 1830s the unified cell theory. This theory posited that all living things are made up of one or more cells, the cell is the basic unit of life, and new cells come from existing cells.
Schleiden made extensive microscopic observations of plant tissues and described them as being composed of cells. His studies of plant cells were particularly impactful because plant cells, with their visible, thick cell walls, were easier to observe than animal cells. Contrary to the contemporary belief, Schleiden put forth that cells did not form through crystallization, but rather through cell division.
Despite the fact cells were first observed in the 1660s by Robert Hooke, Schleiden's work, alongside collectives efforts of scientists like Schwann, Remak, and Virchow, was instrumental in the scientific community's acceptance of the cell theory as a foundation for understanding the basic structure of life.
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This is a tiny fluid-filled cavity in the cytoplasm. It can be used for storage of biochemicals.
Answer:
The cell organelle that is been described in the question is VACUOLE.
Explanation:
Vacuole is one of the cell organelles that are found in both plant and animal cells although their sizes and numbers vary in these cells. In plants, the vacuole are bigger compare to those found in animal cells. Also, plant cells usually have one big vacuole while the animal cells typically have many small vacuoles. The vacuoles in animal cells are smaller and they are used majorly for the storage of biochemicals. Vacuoles also participates in exocytosis and endocytosis in animal cells.
Answer:
Vacuole
Explanation:
Which of the following parts of a nervous reflex arc is usually a muscle or gland? a) Sensory receptor b) Sensory neuron c) Motor neuron d) Effector e) Integration Center
the answer is d) effector
The effector, which is usually a muscle or a gland, is the part of the nervous reflex arc that responds to signals transmitted through the motor neuron, or the efferent branch, of the reflex arc. This reaction accomplishes the intent of the reflex, often leading to a muscular movement or glandular secretion. Both short and long reflex arcs can involve the efferent branch.
Explanation:In the nervous reflex arc, the part that is usually a muscle or gland is the Effector (d). The effector responds to the signal it receives via the motor neuron or the 'efferent branch' of the reflex arc. This branch starts at a central neuron and proceeds along the preganglionic fiber, making a synapse with a ganglionic neuron which then projects to the target effector, causing it to react.
The efferent branch of the reflex arc can be involved in both short and long reflexes. In case of a long reflex, the sensory neuron sends its signal to the central nervous system (CNS) while in a short reflex, the sensory neuron bypasses the CNS and directly activates the ganglionic neuron, leading to a quicker response at the effector.
These reflexes are coordinated via pathways which include sensory receptors, sensory neurons, an integration center, a motor neuron, and the effector. The sensory receptors are responsible for recognizing a change in the environment, the sensory neurons relay this information to an integration center in the CNS, which interprets this information and then sends a signal to the motor neuron. This signal is received and acted upon by the effector - our muscles or glands.
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The_____glands are the ovaries and testes.
Answer:
endocrine gland
The amniote egg solved what amphibian problem by _________
Answer:
The amniote egg prevented the drying of the egg
Explanation:
The first fully terrestrial vertebrates (adapted to land) were amniotes meaning that they produce eggs with internal membranes that enable embryo breathing without drying out (gases could pass through, but not the water).
For example, amphibians were the first animals on the land, but they had to return to water to reproduce, because they lack amniotic egg
So, amniote egg is adaptation that helped animals colonize dry land.
The amniotic egg, characteristic of amniotes including reptiles, birds, and mammals, solved a crucial amphibian problem by allowing for terrestrial reproduction and less dependence on a watery environment for development. The evolution of the amniotic egg enabled these creatures to explore and inhabit wider terrestrial ecosystems.
Explanation:
The amniote egg, a key characteristic of amniotes which include reptiles, birds, and mammals, solved a major amphibian problem by allowing for terrestrial reproduction and less dependence on water for development. Before the evolution of the amniotic egg, amphibians' shell-less eggs restricted them to moist environments. However, the amniotic egg, with its four extra-embryonic membranes and protective shell, provided an internal aquatic environment for the embryo, permitted gas exchange, and sequestered waste, insulating the organism from desiccation and enabling them to branch out into drier environments.
These eggs are terrestrially adapted and the albumin within them provides the embryo with water and protein. At the same time, the yolk sac, another extraembryonic membrane contained within the egg, provides nutrients to the developing embryo. This was a significant development as it allowed amniotes to explore and populate wider ecosystems, marking a major evolutionary transition from water to land.
The amphibian problem solved by the amniotic egg was, therefore, dependence on a water environment for reproduction and development. With the evolutionary advent of the amniotic egg, embryos could now develop in a variety of terrestrial conditions.
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Which of the two tests would likely produce more false negatives with a shorter incubation time?
Answer: A short incubation time runs the risk of a false negative on the VP test, since not enough time may have elapsed to produce an adequate amount of acetoin to give a positive result. The pH change associated with mixed acid fermentation occurs fairly quickly and is less likely to be affected by shorter incubation.
b) The VP test would benefit most from a longer incubation time because it takes a while for the 2,3-butanodiol to be produced.
Explanation:
Why do iridescent colors seen in some seashells (such as abalone shells) change as the shells are viewed from various positions?
iridescent colors seen in some seashells change as the shells are viewed from various positions because the color shown depends on where your light source is coming from. The color changes as you tilt the shell in different positions, changing where the light source is hitting it.
which of these is an advantage of hydroelectric energy
A. is available only in limited areas
B. reduce greenhouse-gas emissions
C. is expensive to build or maintain
D. harms aquatic organisms
Answer:
B. reduce greenhouse gas emissions
Explanation:
The hydroelectric energy has its pros and cons as most of the energy production facilities do. One of the biggest advantages of the production of this type of energy is that it almost doesn't emit any greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. Considering the problem that the world is facing because of it, especially the climate changes and rising sea levels because of that, this is seen as a very big plus for any type of energy production. This has resulted in the building of more and more dams that produce hydroelectric energy, some of which have been made very large and very large energy production.
Pancreatic digestive juices are carried by
Answer:
The pancreatic duct
Explanation:
Pancreatic digestive juices, consisting of enzymes and bicarbonate, are carried to the small intestine via the primary pancreatic duct and the accessory duct, assisting digestion.
Pancreatic digestive juices, which contain a mix of enzymes and bicarbonate, are essential for digestion in the small intestine. These juices are produced by the exocrine cells of the pancreas and travel through the pancreatic ducts to reach their destination.
The main pancreatic duct joins with the common bile duct to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla, which controls the release of both pancreatic juice and bile into the duodenum.
Additionally, there is a secondary duct known as the accessory duct, or duct of Santorini, which may directly connect the pancreas to the duodenum.
Franny drew a diagram to compare images produced by concave and convex lenses.
Which belongs in the area marked X?
Real
Virtual
Larger than object
Upside down
Answer:
Virtual is the answer
Explanation:
Answer:
Virtual
Explanation:
The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is ________.
Answer: The correct answer is OSMOSIS.
Explanation:
The option attached to this question are as follows:
A. Filtration.
B. Osmosis.
C. Active transport.
D. Co-transport with sodium ion.
Water re-absorption is the process by which water, which was lost during glomerular filtration re-enter the blood. The process typically occurs at the proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron. The process occurs by mean of osmosis, which is a form of passive transport. Re-abosorption usually occur based on the concentration gradients that exist in the convoluted tubule, movement takes place from the high concentration in the tubule to the low concentration in the blood capillaries that are surrounding the tubules.
Water reabsorption in the renal tubules occurs through active transport and osmosis, regulated by hormones like ADH.
Explanation:Tubular reabsorption is the process by which water is reabsorbed from the renal tubules in the kidneys. Water reabsorption occurs mainly in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and is regulated by various factors, including hormones like antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Sodium ions are actively transported out of the tubule, creating an osmotic gradient that causes water to follow and be reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries. This mechanism helps maintain water balance in the body.
Offshore wind turbines are more efficient compared to onland wind turbines. Which statement best describes the advantage of using offshore wind turbines than onland wind turbines?
A) Offshore wind turbines use more water compared to onland wind turbines.
Eliminate
B) Offshore wind turbines need more space compared to onland wind turbines.
C) Offshore wind turbines contributes to carbon emissions compared to onland wind power turbines.
D) Offshore wind turbines have more consistent wind power and speed compared to onland wind turbines.
Answer D: Offshore wind turbines have more consistent wind power and speed compared to on land wind turbines.
Explanation:
Offshore wind turbines do not need land space. There are no trees that would interfere with the wind power and speed. Offshore wind turbines do not use water.
Offshore wind turbines are more advantageous because they have access to more consistent and stronger winds, potentially generating more energy. Hence, option D is correct.
Offshore turbines can utilize the steadier and stronger winds found over bodies of water, and because they are usually located far from shore, they are less likely to conflict with land-based uses and aesthetic concerns. Moreover, they have the potential to generate more energy due to these stronger and more consistent winds.
31. Elephants are not the most dominant species in African grasslands, yet they influence community structure. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. If the elephants are taken away, the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario? A) Elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community relative to their abundance. B) Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland. C) Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands. D) Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community. E) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.
Answer:a. Elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community relative to their abundance.
Explanation:
Elephants are keystone species because elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community relative to their abundance (Option A).
Keynote species are fundamental species for the homeostasis of the ecosystem in which they live.These species (keynote species) define the ecosystem where they inhabit.The absence/extinction of a keystone species may dramatically change the entire ecosystem and community or even cease to exist altogether.In conclusion, elephants are keystone species because elephants exhibit a disproportionate influence on the structure of the community relative to their abundance (Option A).
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How far can you flick a booger?
This is a very important question. Depending on the speed and the angle it was flicked, how far can it go??
Answer:
up to 7 yards (21 feet)
my brother actually measured this lol
What is a cell doing during the g1 and g2 periods
Answer:
G1-preparation for DNA replication
G2-preparation for mitosis
Explanation:
Cell cycle is a process that can be divided into two major phases: interphase and mitotic phase (division). Interphase is than subdivided into G1, S and G2 phases while mitotic phases consists of prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
Phases in interphase:
G1 or Gap 1 is characterized by cell growth (cell becomes much larger), synthesis of molecules and organelles copying.S phase is characterized by DNA replicationG2 phase or Gap 2 phase is phase in which cell makes more proteins and organelles and prepares for mitosisThe G1 phase is a cell's first growth stage where it performs normal functions and prepares for DNA replication. Following this, the cell enters G2 phase, which entails further growth, protein synthesis for chromosome manipulation, and preparation for mitosis.
Explanation:The G₁ phase (gap 1 phase) is the first gap, or growth stage, in a cell's life cycle. During this phase, a cell grows and carries out all its normal metabolic functions and processes. It's a time when the cell might spend from a few hours to many days, depending on its specific role and the physical conditions. For cells that will divide again, G₁ is followed by replication of the DNA during the S phase.
Following DNA replication during the S phase, the cell enters the G2 phase. This is a second gap phase, during which the cell continues to grow. It also makes the necessary preparations for mitosis, which includes synthesizing proteins necessary for chromosome manipulation and duplicating some cell organelles. The length of this phase is typically about 5 hours.
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WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST IF BEST ANSWER!
Which of the following is a basic building block of galaxies?
A.Stars
B.Gas
C.Dust
D.All of the above
Answer:
Stars are the basic building blocks of galaxies.
Explanation:
Stars are the dense embedded structures formed in compact in clusters. They range from a dozen to million of stars.These are he observational indicators of the gas expulsion from clusters which may occur even quicker or late than a stellar crossing time scale or within. They are classified into two main groups: OCs and globular clusters
OCs: They are ranging from few tens of millions of years old.They are generally young objects. They are less tightly bounded by the gravity. & less densely populated.
Globular Clusters: These are a tight compositions/ formation of old stars which are distributed roughly in the galactic halo spherically i.e.around the galactic center. Around the galactic centers they are having a high elliptical orbits.
Answer:
Stars
Explanation:
If someone was to say “order will always become disorder”, how would you explain to them that you could put order back?
•A. disorder can never be put back into order so it cannot he explained.
•B. a form of energy is required to be input so it can become orderly again.
•C. disorder can be stopped and from that order just happens.
•D. a form of matter is required to make things orderly again.
Answer:
•B. a form of energy is required to be input so it can become orderly again
Explanation:
Order can be restored from a disordered system by inputing energy. The energy helps restore back the orderliness in a system.
We know that entropy is the state of randomness or disorderliness of the particles of a system. Entropy increases with rise in temperature. When the heat energy that causes temperature rise is removed from a system, the kinetic energy require for molecules to move is reduced and orderliness can gradually be approached.
For example, heating of water causes agitation of its molecules. The randomness of it particles increases. This is seen in the phase change from liquid to gases. As temperature is lowered, the water cools and orderliness is approached again. We can approach more orderliness by putting the water in a refrigerator.
In some systems, we can bring gases into a more ordered state by compression. The pressure applied to compress gases is a form of energy because work is done to bring the molecules into close contact as seen in a gas cylinder.
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Sickle-cell disease is an autosomal recessive disorder that causes the red blood cells of an affected person to be rigid and abnormally shaped. The life expectancy of a person affected by the disorder is approximately 45 years. Carriers of the disease produce some sickled cells, but not enough to be symptomatic.
Malaria is a potentially fatal disease caused by the protist Plasmodium falciparum.
Studies have shown that those affected by sickle-cell disease (genotype ss), as well as carriers who possess only one sickle-cell allele (Ss), are much more resistant to malaria than those with homozygous dominant genotypes (SS). This resistance is created in part by the rupturing of any sickled red blood cells that are infected with the parasite, preventing Plasmodium falciparum from reproducing and making it more susceptible to the host's immune system.
Which of the following statements best predicts what would happen in response to a prolonged epidemic of malaria in a population with no previous exposure to malaria?
A. The frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (ss) would decrease.
B. The frequency of the dominant allele (S) would increase.
C. The frequency of the sickle-cell allele (s) would increase.
D. The frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (SS) would increase.
Explanation:
Sickle cell disease is a group of disorders that affects hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body. People with this disorder have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape.
Signs and symptoms of sickle cell disease usually begin in early childhood. Characteristic features of this disorder include a low number of red blood cells (anemia), repeated infections, and periodic episodes of pain. The severity of symptoms varies from person to person. Some people have mild symptoms, while others are frequently hospitalized for more serious complications.
The signs and symptoms of sickle cell disease are caused by the sickling of red blood cells. When red blood cells sickle, they break down prematurely, which can lead to anemia. Anemia can cause shortness of breath, fatigue, and delayed growth and development in children.
Answer:
D. The frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (SS) would increase.Answer: the correct answer is C. The frequency of the sickle-cell allele 9s) would increase.
Explanation:
Elephants are valued by some people because their tusks are made of ivory. Although it is illegal, people kill elephants, take the ivory, and sell it to make a variety of objects like jewelry and sculptures. This activity is an example of which threat to biodiversity? Poaching habitat destruction pollution nonnative species
Answer:
Poaching
Explanation:
Poaching is to kill animals illegally and sell various body parts to make huge amounts of money. Poaching threatens animal speicies and can lead to extinction, threatening the lives of many animals.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-Poaching
Explanation:
Poaching is the illegal killing, shooting and trapping the animals in an area where such practices are completely forbidden.
Poaching is a threat to wild animals as it is one of the major cause of the loss of biological diversity on Earth as it leads to the loss of the wild animals which can make the species threatened species.
Since poaching occurs when something valuable is possessed by the animal-like elephants possess their tusks which are made of ivory.
Thus, poaching is the correct answer.
Which of the following correctly explains the difference between evolution and natural selection?
Natural selection and evolution both occur at the individual level of an organism.
Natural selection occurs to individuals in a population over time and evolution occurs to entire populations on a longer time scale.
Evolution occurs to individuals and natural selection occurs to populations on a longer time scale.
Evolution and natural selection both occur to individuals within a population on a relatively short time scale.
Answer:Natural selection occurs to individuals in a population over time and evolution occurs to entire populations on a longer time scale.
Explanation:
''Natural selection occurs to individuals in a population over time and evolution occurs to entire populations on a longer time scale'' is the correct statement.
What is the difference between evolution and natural selection?Evolution is a change that occurs in the inherited traits of a population over many generations while on the other hand, Natural selection is a mechanism where the members of a population best suited to their environment survived and to pass on their genes to their offspring.
So we can conclude that option B is the correct statement.
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Dave's wife suggests that he talk to a doctor because of his crippling fear of heights. the doctor suggests that dave's phobia is a learned disorder that can be unlearned with proper treatment. this view is typical of the _______ model of abnormality.
Answer: cognitive-behavioral those are the answers
Explanation:
Dave's phobia about crippling fear of heights is a disorder learned by doctors and is a typical common cognitive-behavioral abnormality.
What is cognitive-behavioral?Exposing yourself to difficult conditions, including visiting a crowded common street. CBT is defined as psychotherapy that combines cognitive therapy with behavior therapy by identifying failed or maladaptive patterns of emotion.
Dave has fear of heights is a condition is a learned disorder that can be unlearned with proper treatment representing the abnormality model cognitive-behavioral.
Behavior and replacing them with desirable habits of thinking, emotional response, or behavior. It includes keeping a log of your thoughts throughout the day and recording your feelings about your thoughts.
Therefore Dave's phobia about crippling fear of heights is an abnormality model of cognitive-behavioral.
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Match the graphs with type of corrections they represent
Answer:
negative correlation
Explanation:
Answer: negative correlation, positive correlation, no correlation.
Explanation:
For Platos analyzing and communicating scientific info. Test