Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Left
I think C would be very hard to do. How much study? What is a good person? Still with a lot of careful definitions it might be possible. I wouldn't want to do it however.
I think A would be fun, but what kind of procedure would you set up to try and resolve what it in the box. How would you distinguish between a rattlesnake and a baby rattle? What test could you set up? I think A is the answer and I should come up with a better example. How would you tell the difference between an 8 faced figure and a 12 faced one? You can't open the box and look. So the answer is A.
Middle
You have the right answer of those listed. But Lyell was not the first to make a geological column. Look up Smith.
Right
Same answer as above.
Related Questions
Feeling tired after a long day of work, you walk across a parking lot at night to get to your car. As you approach the car you see a shadow extending behind the back of the car. You immediately feel a rush of energy, your heart starts pounding, and you feel wide awake and alert. You slowly circle around to the back of the car and see that the shadow is coming from a parking lot sign above your car. You breathe a sigh of relief and start to calm down. You think about how you just felt in that scary situation and realize that you had the same reaction when you were called on in class to answer a question in front of everyone. Your teacher used that exercise to describe that the hormone ________ can be produced in fearful situations by ________.
Answers
Answer:
Epinephrine and adrenal gland.
Explanation:
The concept of natural selection is a mechanism of evolution where environmental pressures select for phenotypes that exist in populations based on genetic variation. Which process below would not contribute to the genetic variation in a population of mice?
A) mitotic growth
B) sexual reproduction
C) mutations resulting from errors in DNA synthesis
D) crossing over of homologous chromosomes during meiosis
Answers
Answer:
Mitotic growth
Explanation:
Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells, which should have no new diversity as a result. Meiosis (including crossing over), sexual reproduction (including fertilization), and mutations (from changes to the DNA) all contribute to genetic diversity and new phenotypes.
The concept of natural selection is based on genetic variation so mitotic growth would not contribute to the genetic variation in a population of mice. Hence option 4 is the correct option.
What is mitotic growth?At the time of mitosis, a cell duplicates all of its contents, including its chromosomes, and splits to form two identical daughter cells without variation.
The concept of natural selection is a mechanism of evolution where environmental pressures select for phenotypes that exist in populations based on genetic variation is a property of meiosis or physical reproduction.It allows genetic variation by a process of gene shuffling which happens when the cells are dividing. Where the sperm and egg cells unite, and contribute 23 chromosomes each to result an embryo.
Hence, as mitotic growth does not show genetic variation, option 4 is the correct option.
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True or false? One possible way to alter chromatin structure such that genes could be transcribed would be to make histone proteins more positively charged.
Answers
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The histones that are more positively charged, tight hardly to negatively charged DNA. So, enzymes, such as acetyltransferases, that reduce the positive charge of histones promote transcription.
Chromatin structure and its modifications can change the package of the DNA and consequently, alter the gene expression. The most common modifications of the chromatin are covalent modifications such as acetylation/deacetylation (by acetyltransferases and eacetylases), methylation (by methyltransferases), and phosphorylation (by kinases). This is the way of gene expression regulation.
The effects of modifications are different, for example methylation promotes condensation of the chromatin and as a consequence, prevents binding of transcription factors to the DNA (transcription is repressed).
Acetylation loosens the association between nucleosomes and DNA (because it neutralizes the positive charge of histones) and consequently promotes transcription. Deacetylation is a process opposite to acetylation.
False, increasing the positive charge of histone proteins would make the chromatin more condensed, preventing gene transcription. To facilitate transcription, histone proteins need to be less positively charged, allowing the chromatin to open and the DNA to be accessible for RNA polymerase and transcription factors.
Explanation:False, making histone proteins more positively charged would not result in genes being transcribed. The structure of chromatin is affected by the charge of histone proteins that the DNA is wound around. DNA is a negatively charged molecule, so changes in the charge of histone proteins influences how tightly it is wound. However, to facilitate gene transcription, histones need to have a neutral or less positive charge, as this allows the DNA to unwind and become accessible for the machinery of transcription, such as RNA polymerase and transcription factors. This is achieved through the addition of chemical modifications like acetyl groups to histones; these modifications decrease the positive charge, helping to open the chromatin structure. Therefore, making the histone proteins more positive would actually make the chromatin structure more closed, preventing gene transcription.
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Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?a. yyBB and yyBBb. yyBB and yybbc. yyBB and yyBbd. yyBb and yybbe. yyBb and yyBb
Answers
Answer:
e. yyBb and yyBb
Explanation:
The blue budgies have the genotype either yyBB or yyBb. After their cross they produced some of the white offspring. This means that in their genotypes must be recessive alleles (because white genotype is yybb). So the genotypes of the "parents" are: yyBb and yyBb.
A fish is in an environment where sexual reproduction would be stressful. What type of asexual reproduction could fish use to reproduce?
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Meiosis
C. Budding
D. Binary fission
Answers
Answer:
A. Parthenogeneise
Explanation:
In this zygote is formed without fertilisation.
Answer:
Option A, Parthenogenesis
Explanation:
Parthenogenesis is an asexual mode of reproduction in which an organism develop embryo without fertilization. The embryo starts developing from an unfertilized egg.
This reproduction strategy is adopted when the surrounding environmental conditions are not suitable for carrying out sexual reproduction.
Animals such as wasps, bees, ants , reptiles , fishes and plants are capable of reproducing in this manner.
hence, option A is correct
Portion of an enzyme to which a substrate can attach
Answers
Answer:
An active site
Explanation:
Enzymes are biological catalysts that catalyze chemical reactions or biochemical reactions. They are substrate specific and each enzyme acts on a certain specific substrate.Enzymes contain a pocket-like structure called the active site where the substrate binds according to the induced-fit model.Upon binding of the substrate to the active site catalysis takes place and the substrate is converted to product. Enzymes remain unchanged after the reaction.Which of the following describes pulmonary veins?
a, return blood to the right atrium of the heart
b, transport blood rich in carbon dioxide to the lungs
c, transport oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart
d, split off the pulmonary trunk
e, transport oxygenated blood to the lungs
Answers
Answer:
C. transport oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart
Explanation:
The pulmonary veins are the veins that transfer oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. The largest pulmonary veins are the four main pulmonary veins, two from each lung that drain into the left atrium of the heart. The pulmonary veins are part of the pulmonary circulation.
The pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart, making them unique as they are the only veins that carry oxygen-rich blood. Hence, the correct answer is C.
After the process of gas exchange in the lungs, where blood gives off carbon dioxide and takes on oxygen, this newly oxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the pulmonary veins. Specifically, these veins carry the blood into the left atrium, marking the completion of the pulmonary circuit. This is a distinct characteristic of the pulmonary veins, as they are the only veins in the human body that carry oxygen-rich blood, in contrast to other veins that typically carry oxygen-poor blood.
Aside from heat within the mantle generated by the decay of radioactive elements, the movement of the earth's tectonic plates is driven by A) solar flares. B) ocean currents. C) climate change. D) gravitational forces.
Answers
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
The motion of tectonic plates is controlled by both the factors, namely the convection current and gravity. Both this factors occurs simultaneously.
The magma when heated becomes less dense (gravity decrease), and slowly rises up towards the surface of the mantle. As the magma reaches the upper part of the mantle, its temperature decreases and density slowly increases and it eventually sinks. This continuous motion of magma from the core mantle boundary to the surface of the mantle forms a current known as the convection current, that forms in the mantle. It is due to the heat energy radiated from the interior of the earth.
This plate motion takes place in 3 ways namely the divergent, convergent and the transform type of plate boundary.
In the divergent plate boundary, due to the greater density, the oceanic plate subducts below the continental plate.
Thus, in all aspects, the plate motion is initiated by both gravity and gravitational force.
Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Answer:
the correct answer is D
Explanation:
Why should a female butterfly choose a vibrantly colored male for mating?
Answers
Answer:
It attracts the male butterfly
Explanation:
Enzymatic catalysis of the peptide bond between the growing polypeptide and the next incoming amino acid takes place in which binding site?
a. A siteb. P sitec. E sited. combined A and P sites
Answers
Answer:
a. A site
Explanation:
During the process of translation, ribosomes play a major role in connecting mRNA codons with tRNA anticodons. Ribosomes are composed of two subunits which consist ofproteins and rRNA. The tree sites of ribosomes are:
P site or peptidyl site-this site binds to the tRNA which holds the growing polypeptide chain.A site or acceptor site-this is a site of peptide bond formation between the growing polypeptide and the next incoming amino acid E site or exit site-the site for the final binding of t-RNA .The peptide bond formation between the growing polypeptide chain and the next incoming amino acid is facilitated by enzymatic catalysis at the P site of the ribosome.
Explanation:The peptide bond formation between the growing polypeptide chain and the next incoming amino acid occurs at the P site of the ribosome. The P, or peptidyl site, is where the hold tRNA molecule carrying the growing polypeptide chain is held. The process involving these peptide bonds is called enzymatic catalysis and is carried out by an enzymatic component of the ribosome called peptidyl transferase. So the right answer is choice b. P site.
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When energy changes from one form to another, some energy is always changed to A. Electricity. B. Heat. C. Sound. D. Light.
Answers
Some energy is always changed to heat (B)
Answer:
heat
Explanation:
Which of the following statements are true regarding olfaction? Check all that apply. a)Smell is a chemical sense. b)Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor. c)Humans can only distinguish up to 200 odors. d)Olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli. e)When olfactory receptors are stimulated a receptor potential is created.
Answers
Answer:
A.) Smell is a chemical sense.
B.) Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor
C.) Olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli
The statements that are true regarding olfaction are: smell is a chemical sense, odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor, and olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli.
Three statements are true regarding olfaction:
Smell is a chemical sense. Like taste, olfaction responds to chemical stimuli.Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor. As airborne molecules are inhaled through the nose, they pass over the olfactory epithelial region and dissolve into the mucus before binding to a receptor protein.Olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli. Olfactory sensory neurons have dendrites with hair-like extensions that trap odor molecules.Therefore, statements a), b), and d) are true regarding olfaction.
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Meiosis starts with a single diploid cell and produces
Answers
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Meiosis begins with a single diploid cell and results in four haploid daughter cells. The process involves two rounds of division, Meiosis I and Meiosis II, reducing the number of chromosomes to half of that of the parent cell. This contributes to genetic diversity in sexual reproduction.
Explanation:Meiosis commences with a solitary diploid cell and produces four haploid daughter cells.
The first round of division in meiosis, known as Meiosis I, begins with the duplicated chromosomes from the parent cell being rearranged and separated into separate daughter cells. This first division process results in a nucleus with only half the original number of chromosomes – a transition from diploid to haploid cells.
Following Meiosis I, there is a second round of nuclear division, Meiosis II, which results in four haploid daughter cells. Each of these resultant cells contains half the number of chromosomes as the original parent cell. This process ensures the production of genetically unique cells which play a crucial role in sexual reproduction.
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True or false: each action listed here is a major function of the liver. 1. production of bile 2. glycogen storage 3. interconversion of nutrients 4. filtering the blood 5. detoxification 6. phagocytosis 7. bile storage 8. production of digestive enzyme
Answers
my answer is false i hope this helps
Match the definitions to the terms:
Terms:
Hypotonic Solution
Isotonic Solution
Hypertonic Solution
Diffusion
Facilitative Diffusion
Active Transport
Passive Transport
Concentration Gradient
Equilibrium
Osmosis
Definitions:
1. Movement of material across the cell membrane with energy
2. The environment outside of the cell has a lower concentration of dissolved material than the inside of the cell. This causes the cell to swell, and it may even burst.
3. A difference in the concentration of a substance across a distance
4. Movement of material across the cell membrane without energy
5. The environment outside of the cell has more dissolved material than inside of the cell. If a cell is placed in a this type of solution, water will leave the cell. This can cause a cell to shrink and shrivel (crenation).
6. The movement of particles from regions of higher density to lower density regions
7. Diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane
8. Concentration of a substance is the same throughout a space
9. A solution in which the amount of dissolved material is equal both inside and outside of the cell. Water still flows in both directions, but an equal amount enters and leaves the cell.
10. The movement of large molecules through a membrane protein channel along the concentration gradient.
Answers
1.Active Transport
2. Hypotonic Solution
3.Concentration Gradient
4. Passive Transport
5. Hypertonic Solution
6. Diffusion
7.Osmosis
8. Equilibrium
9.Isotonic Solution
The naturalist Charles Darwin, who is credited with developing the theory of evolution by natural selection, suggested that adaptations of organisms were the result of
A. their genetic structure, which is indicated by internal genetic codes.
B. how much sunlight an organism is exposed to.
C. adaptations to different environmental conditions.
D. how much activity an organism has, including the amount of time it spends sleeping.
E. the number of years of an organism's existence.
Answers
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
C seems to be the best answer.
Will mark brainliest! It also tells me if you are wrong!
Jena is doing research on one of the planets of the solar system. She writes:
"This planet quickly revolves around the Sun and has no rings and no moons. It is also the planet that has virtually no atmosphere.”
Based on information provided in Jena’s research, answer the following questions.
1) Is this planet an inner planet or outer planet? Answer: ______
2) What is the composition of this planet?
Answer: ______
3) What is the identity of this planet?
Answer: ______
Answers
Answer: Is this planet an inner planet or outer planet? Answer: inner
What is the composition of this planet?
Answer: rock
What is the identity of this planet?
Answer: Mercury
Explanation:
Answer:
1) Inner planet
2) Metallic rocks
3) Mercury
Explanation:
Solar system has 4 inner planets and 4 outer planets. The inner planets of the system have rocky surface. The outer planets are composed of gases mainly hydrogen and helium. The outer planets have many moons and have ring system.
Given: The planet has no rings and no moons.
Inner planets do no have rings. Of those, two planets do not have moons-Mercury and Venus.
The planet has virtually no atmosphere.
Mercury does not have atmosphere. On the other hand Venus has a very thick atmosphere.
Thus, Mercury fits into the description.
It is an inner planet. It has rocky surface and has no moon and no atmosphere. It is composed of mainly iron.
You are performing cpr on a victim and an assisting responder arrives. Which of the following is most appropriate for the assisting responder to do first?
Begin giving ventilations to the victim.
Call for a change in position to assist with CPR.
Check to see whether more advanced medical personnel have been called.
Have the first rescuer stop CPR to allow for victim reassessment.
Answers
Answer:
The most appropriate action for the assisting responder to take is to CHECK TO SEE WHETHER MORE ADVANCED MEDICAL PERSONNEL HAVE BEEN CALLED.
Explanation:
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency medical technique that is often used to assist those in cardiac arrest pending the time that qualified medical personnel can attend to them. The CPR procedure is a life saving procedure that is made up of series of chest compression and ventilation, which are targeted at keeping the brain functioning pending the time that blood circulation and breathing will be restored.
if two responders are present at the emergency scene, one should perform the CPR while the other call appropriate lines to get the needed emergency medical attention. In the scenario presented in this question, the second responder has to ensure that the necessary needed medical help have been called for.
The assisting responder should first check if more advanced medical personnel have been called. After confirming, they can assist with chest compressions or ventilations. Thus 3rd option is correct.
When performing CPR and an assisting responder arrives, the most appropriate first action for the assisting responder is to check to see whether more advanced medical personnel have been called. Ensuring that professional help is on the way is crucial for the victim's survival. Once that is confirmed, the assisting responder can help by taking over chest compressions or giving ventilations as needed.
Steps to Follow During CPR
Confirm advanced medical personnel have been called.Coordinate with the first responder for a change in position or duties.Continue providing high-quality chest compressions and ventilations if needed.It is essential to maintain uninterrupted chest compressions until the arrival of advanced medical support.
Which division of the nervous system has long preganglionic neurons?
Answers
Answer:
Parasympathetic nervous system
Explanation:
Parasympathetic nervous system together with sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system also called the vegetative nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system which inervates smooth muscle and glands. Thus, it directly affects the function of internal organs and regulates functions such as the heart rate, digestion, respiratory rate, urination etc. This nervous system control is unconscious.
Parasympathetic nervous system works when organism is at rest so it is known as system responsible for "rest and digest functions". On the other hand, sympathetic nervous system works at active and stressful situations and it is known as "fight and flight" system.
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system has long preganglionic neurons that travel in cranial and spinal nerves to the target effectors.
Explanation:The division of the nervous system that has long preganglionic neurons is the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. The preganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic system are long and the postganglionic fibers are short because the ganglia are close to the target effectors. These long preganglionic neurons travel in cranial nerves from the cranial region and in spinal nerves from the sacral region.
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Rita has finished her art project. What is a scientific question that she could ask about her art supplies?
A.
Where are the scissors put away?
B.
Why does Katie like art class?
C.
Is blue crayon prettier than red crayon?
D.
What if glue dries by itself on a piece of paper?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:i say B hope this helps
A new process for removing heavy metals and acid sulfate pollution from mine leachate water is ________. treatment with chlorine or ozone deep-well injection surface impoundments sulfate-reducing bacteria filtration and sedimentation
Answers
Answer:
Sulfate reducing bacteria
Explanation:
The contemporary method for purifying mine leachate water from heavy metals and acid sulfates involves the use of sulfate-reducing bacteria, offering a bioremediation alternative to traditional physical and chemical treatments.
The new process for removing heavy metals and acid sulfate pollution from mine leachate water is treatment using sulfate-reducing bacteria. These bacteria can remove contaminants such as arsenic from acidic mine waters through bioremediation methods, transforming heavy metals and sulfate into less harmful substances. Unlike other methods such as disinfection with chlorine or ozone, which aim to kill microbes, or filtration and sedimentation, which physically remove particulates, sulfate-reducing bacteria can change the chemical composition of contaminants to reduce pollution in an environmentally friendly way. This environmentally benign bioremediation strategy underscores a paradigm shift towards sustainable pollution mitigation, leveraging natural microbial processes to ameliorate environmental degradation in mining operations.
Cells in your hair follicles produce the protein keratin, but cells in your liver do not produce keratin. Which statement explains these differences
A). Hair follicles contain recombined DNA, which create the protein keratin
B). Genes are expressed differently in liver cells and hair follicles
C). Hair follicle cells contain different genes from liver cells
D). Hair follicle cells do not produce DNA, but liver cells do
Answers
Answer:
B). Genes are expressed differently in liver cells and hair follicles
Explanation:
In given organisms all the cells of the body have the same number of genes, however, their activity varies due to differential expression of genes.
The differential expression of genes is regulated by several factors, such as histone modifications, DNA, etc. which may silence or activate the genes differentially in different cells.
Since the hair cells and liver cells of the organisms will have the same genes, they only vary due to the differential expression fo the genes.
Answer:
B) Genes are expressed differently in liver cells and hair follicles
Explanation:
Cell differentiation helps produce different cells with different functions that express different genes in the genome.
Liver cells and hair follicles are an example of cell differentiation creating different functions in multi-celled organisms.
In pea plants the trait for tall stems is dominant over the trait for short stems. if two heterozygous tall plants are crossed , what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have thensame phentotype as the parents
Answers
Answer:
75%
Explanation:
Tall stems are dominant over short stems. Let T represent tall and t represents short. The parents are Heterozygous tall plants, which means that their genotype would be Tt and their phenotype would be tall. In a Punnett square it would look like this:
T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
Notice that we have 3 possible genotype combinations. When the dominant allele T is present that means that the phenotype that will be expressed is the dominant trait. In this case we have the following genotype and phenotype:
TT Tall 1/4
Tt Tall 2/4
tt Short 1/4
The question is asking the chance the pffspring phenotype is the same as the parent specifically so we can see that 3/4 are tall.
3/4 = 75%
The study of genes and inheritance is called genetics. There are two types of alleles and these are recessive and dominant.
The correct answer is 75%.
What are genes?A gene is a basic unit of heredity and a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that encodes the synthesis of a gene product, either RNA or protein. During gene expression, the DNA is first copied into RNA. The RNA can be directly functional or be the intermediate template for a protein that performs a functionTall stems are dominant over short stems. Let T represent tall and t represent short. The parents are Heterozygous tall plants, which means that their genotype would be Tt and their phenotype would be tall. In a Punnett square it would look like this:
T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
Notice that we have 3 possible genotype combinations. When the dominant allele T is present that means that the phenotype that will be expressed is the dominant trait. In this case, we have the following genotype and phenotype:
TT Tall 1/4
Tt Tall 2/4
tt Short 1/4
The question is asking the chance the offspring phenotype is the same as the parent specifically so we can see that 3/4 are tall.
Hence, the correct is 3/4 = 75%.
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Animals need certain compounds for their growth and development. Many of the compounds found in food are larger and more complex than the compounds required by an animal. How does the animal obtain the needed compounds? A. The animal's digestive system absorbs only the simple compounds present in food. B. The animal acquires the required compounds from other animals. C. The animal's digestive system breaks down the complex compounds into simpler compounds. D. The animal acquires the required compounds from air and water.
Answers
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Animals cannot utilize the compounds in their large size. This because they cannot fit in the gap junction of the organs that absorb these molecules such as the ileum. Therefore, the digestive tract of the animals have enzymes that break down these large molecules into smaller molecules that are able to pass across the epithelium of ileum and become utilized by the body.
Auxins _____.promote cell elongation and cell division in stemsstimulates seed growth and fruit developmentpromotes cell divisionregulates the opening and closing of stomata
Answers
Option A. Auxins promote cell elongation and cell division in stems.
Auxins are plant hormones that primarily promote cell elongation, particularly in stems. They play a crucial role in the growth and development of plants by stimulating cell division and elongation, especially in the stem regions.
Auxins also help in the formation of roots and influence the differentiation of vascular tissues. They regulate various processes such as phototropism (growth towards light) and gravitropism (growth in response to gravity).
By controlling these growth responses, auxins are vital in shaping the plant's structure.
Complete question
Auxins _____. A. promote cell elongation and cell division in stems B. stimulates seed growth and fruit development C. promotes cell division D. regulates the opening and closing of stomata
our nervous system is organized into two broad anatomical divisions: the central nervous system (consisting of the brain and spinal cord) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Your PNS is further organized into two functional divisions. If you tap your knee, the signal to act is carried via your ____ to the muscles in your knee. In contrast, the signals that pass via the ____ are involuntary and act primarily to regulate your body's internal environment. This involuntary nerve system is further organized into three divisions. If you need a sudden burst of energy, your ____ is activated to help you act quickly. In contrast, if you are relaxing and conserving energy, then it is your ____ that is primarily in action. The third division is your _____ which helps control the components of the digestive system.
Answers
Answer:
If you tap your knee, the signal to act is carried via your somatic nervous system to the muscles in your knee. In contrast, the signals that pass via the autonomic nervous system are involuntary and act primarily to regulate your body's internal environment. This involuntary nerve system is further organized into three divisions. If you need a sudden burst of energy, your sympathetic nervous system is activated to help you act quickly. In contrast, if you are relaxing and conserving energy, then it is your parasympathetic nervous system that is primarily in action. The third division is your enteric nervous system which helps control the components of the digestive system.
Explanation:
Peripheral nervous system (PNS) is the nervous system that contains nerves and ganglia outside the central nervous system (CNS). PNS is divided into:
somatic (voluntary) nervous system-controls the movements of the skeletal musclesautonomic (involuntary) nervous system-controls the smooth muscles and glands and thus it is the regulator of the major body functions. It is subdivided into tree groups:sympathetic ("fight and flight") system-responsible for stressful and active situations (but also in normal conditions)parasympathetic ("rest and digest") system-opposite to sympathetic, responsible for the maintenance of body's activities at rest.enteric nervous system-controls the function of the gastrointestinal tract.The signal to move your knee after tapping is carried via the somatic nervous system, whereas involuntary regulation of the body's internal environment, like during sudden energy bursts or relaxation, is governed by the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems respectively. The enteric system controls digestive functions.
Our nervous system is organized into two broad anatomical divisions: the central nervous system (CNS), consisting of the brain and spinal cord, and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). The PNS is further organized into two functional divisions: the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems.
If you tap your knee, the signal to act is carried via your somatic nervous system to the muscles in your knee. In contrast, the signals that pass via the autonomic nervous system are involuntary and act primarily to regulate your body's internal environment. This involuntary nerve system is further organized into three divisions: the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
If you need a sudden burst of energy, your sympathetic nervous system is activated to help you act quickly. In contrast, if you are relaxing and conserving energy, then it is your parasympathetic nervous system that is primarily in action. The third division is your enteric nervous system, which helps control the components of the digestive system.
Imagine that you’ve been working with the CSI and Police Department in your local area as lead forensic scientist for quite a few years now. The department has recently put a young, brand new forensic scientist to work on a case with you, so they can better learn the ropes from a seasoned vet like yourself! The two of you are on your way to investigate a crime scene where a dead body was found just a few hours ago. Of course, it’s imperative that you teach the new forensic scientist the proper way to handle evidence and an investigation!
Crime Scene:
You walk up to the crime scene. A dead body is lying on the bank of the river, just a few miles outside of the city. There is a bullet wound on the victim’s chest where it appears a bullet entered the body. There are a few bullets that have been found scattered near the body of the victim. You can see that a gun is resting on the bottom of the river in the shallow end near the shore.
Do some online research regarding what should be done first at any crime scene and how evidence should be processed. Based on your research, and what you learned in the unit, answer the questions.
Discuss the first things you should teach your new partner to do as you approach the crime scene.
Explain how you and your partner should go about handling the gun found at the bottom of the river? What are some things to keep in mind?
How should you and your partner go about handling the bullets found near the body of the victim?
What information might you be able to find from the gun and bullets found at the crime scene?
As we know, it is very important to handle evidence at a crime scene properly. If clues and evidence are mishandled, it could ruin an entire investigation! Conduct some additional online research on your own. Find an article that describes a crime scene where evidence was mishandled. Share the link to the article you found and write a paragraph or two to describe how the scene was mishandled and how this impacted the case. Include advice on how the investigation could have been better managed and how the scene and evidence should have been handled.
Answers
1.
Answer:
As the first responder, you should:
Explanation:
Protect the crime scene.
This means that the first responder should protect the public and the crime scene and also control the changes made to the crime scene to the best of their ability.
Protection of the public means the evacuation of the public from the crime scene to a safer area.
The crime scene should be protected against evidence distortion.
The control of changes made to the crime scene maintains the original evidence present at the crime scene.
2.
Answer:
Fire arm safety measures shall be taken
The gun should not be transported by placing a pencil in the barrel or inside the trigger guard.
There shall be documentation of the location of the gun.
Photos of the location of the gun should be taken.
There after the gun shall be retrieved from the river safely.
Since the gun shall be wet at the time of collection, it shall be kept in a plastic bag.
The gun shall then be transported to the evidence receiving area.
The gun should not be held in the plastic bag for more than two hours since this could lead to the growth of microorganisms which can destroy evidence.
3
Answer:
Things to keep in mind
Fire arm safety mechanisms should be put in place.Evidence packed in plastic material should not be held in the packing material for more than two hours.Only large quantities of dry powder should be collected and stored in plastic bags.Any items which may cross contaminate each other must be packaged separately to avoid evidence contaminationThe containers should be closed and secured to avoid the mixture of evidence during the transportation process. Each container should have: The collecting person's initialsDate and time it was collectedComplete description of the evidence and where it was found The investigating agency's name and their file number.4
Answer
Bullets from near the body of the victim should:
Be packaged separately and placed in paper envelopes or small cardboard pillboxes. Handled carefully to prevent alter of evidence such as fingerprints.The bullets have to be submitted to the crime lab for identification of any evidence present on them that could help in investigation.Be kept safe and separate from the gun.The container should be labeled to warn that the contents are precautions should be taken to prevent anyone from being injured.5
Answer:
The gun and bullet might help us out in finding out:
The fingerprints of the user: The gun can be checked to retrieve the fingerprints of its handler if any.The bullet cartilages shall reveal the owner of the bullets, this shall lead to the identification of a suspect.Blood, hair that might be found on the gun and bullets might help in DNA analysis. This shall in turn lead us to a suspect.The guns registration number shall lead us to the owner of the gun used thereby the suspect in the crime.6
Answer:
The officer who arrested Oscar Pistorius on the night Reeva Steenkamp was killed last year testified Friday that police at the crime scene mishandled evidence, including a ballistics expert who handled the murder weapon without gloves.
This in turn led to confusion in evidence of the case.
The police should have instead used gloves in handling the pistol at the crime scene.
This would have prevented the intoxication of evidence.
Protect the crime scene.
This means that the first responder should protect the public and the crime scene and also control the changes made to the crime scene to the best of their ability.
Protection of the public means the evacuation of the public from the crime scene to a safer area.
The crime scene should be protected against evidence distortion.
The control of changes made to the crime scene maintains the original evidence present at the crime scene.
2.
Answer:
Fire arm safety measures shall be taken
The gun should not be transported by placing a pencil in the barrel or inside the trigger guard.
There shall be documentation of the location of the gun.
Photos of the location of the gun should be taken.
There after the gun shall be retrieved from the river safely.
Since the gun shall be wet at the time of collection, it shall be kept in a plastic bag.
The gun shall then be transported to the evidence receiving area.
The gun should not be held in the plastic bag for more than two hours since this could lead to the growth of microorganisms which can destroy evidence.
3
Answer:
Things to keep in mind
Fire arm safety mechanisms should be put in place.
Evidence packed in plastic material should not be held in the packing material for more than two hours.
Only large quantities of dry powder should be collected and stored in plastic bags.
Any items which may cross contaminate each other must be packaged separately to avoid evidence contamination
The containers should be closed and secured to avoid the mixture of evidence during the transportation process.
Each container should have:
The collecting person's initials
Date and time it was collected
Complete description of the evidence and where it was found
The investigating agency's name and their file number.
4
Answer
Bullets from near the body of the victim should:
Be packaged separately and placed in paper envelopes or small cardboard pillboxes.
Handled carefully to prevent alter of evidence such as fingerprints.
The bullets have to be submitted to the crime lab for identification of any evidence present on them that could help in investigation.
Be kept safe and separate from the gun.
The container should be labeled to warn that the contents are precautions should be taken to prevent anyone from being injured.
5
Answer:
The gun and bullet might help us out in finding out:
The fingerprints of the user: The gun can be checked to retrieve the fingerprints of its handler if any.
The bullet cartilages shall reveal the owner of the bullets, this shall lead to the identification of a suspect.
Blood, hair that might be found on the gun and bullets might help in DNA analysis. This shall in turn lead us to a suspect.
The guns registration number shall lead us to the owner of the gun used thereby the suspect in the crime.
6
Answer:
The officer who arrested Oscar Pistorius on the night Reeva Steenkamp was killed last year testified Friday that police at the crime scene mishandled evidence, including a ballistics expert who handled the murder weapon without gloves.
This in turn led to confusion in evidence of the case.
The police should have instead used gloves in handling the pistol at the crime scene.
This would have prevented the intoxication of evidence.
Protect the crime scene.
This means that the first responder should protect the public and the crime scene and also control the changes made to the crime scene to the best of their ability.
Protection of the public means the evacuation of the public from the crime scene to a safer area.
The crime scene should be protected against evidence distortion.
The control of changes made to the crime scene maintains the original evidence present at the crime scene.
2.
Answer:
Fire arm safety measures shall be taken
The gun should not be transported by placing a pencil in the barrel or inside the trigger guard.
There shall be documentation of the location of the gun.
Photos of the location of the gun should be taken.
There after the gun shall be retrieved from the river safely.
Since the gun shall be wet at the time of collection, it shall be kept in a plastic bag.
The gun shall then be transported to the evidence receiving area.
The gun should not be held in the plastic bag for more than two hours since this could lead to the growth of microorganisms which can destroy evidence.
3
Answer:
Things to keep in mind
Fire arm safety mechanisms should be put in place.
Evidence packed in plastic material should not be held in the packing material for more than two hours.
Only large quantities of dry powder should be collected and stored in plastic bags.
Any items which may cross contaminate each other must be packaged separately to avoid evidence contamination
The containers should be closed and secured to avoid the mixture of evidence during the transportation process.
Each container should have:
The collecting person's initials
Date and time it was collected
Complete description of the evidence and where it was found
The investigating agency's name and their file number.
4
How do researchers investigate ideas and principles about nature?
A. by using the scientific process to study their surroundings
B. by taking classes taught by more knowledgeable professors
C. by researching information in textbooks and on the Internet
D. by asking questions about what they do not understand
Answers
Answer: Most likely A
Explanation:
The answer is most likely A because by using the scientific method they can then look at their surrounding and find what they know and learn more about what they don't know. Hope this helps a bit
Answer:
A. by using the scientific process to study their surroundings
Explanation: thats the most reasonable answer hope this helps out
When a client demonstrates the technique for self-administering nph insulin, which action indicates that the client needs additional teaching?
Answers
Answer:
Pulling the syringe plunger out immediately the needle reaches the subcutaneous tissue shall indicate that the client needs additional teaching.
Explanation:
The syringe should not be pulled out immediately, the patient should wait for about five seconds after injection then pull out.
This is to allow the syringe contents to fully drain into the patients system.
Buy pulling it out immediately, the patient shall have shown that he or she has not fully mastered the nph insulin administration process.
Why would a certain thickness of continental crust displace less of the mantle than the same thickness of oceanic crust?
Answers
Answer:
The slightly higher density of oceanic crust (basalt) causes it to displace more of the mantle than the same thickness of continental crust (granite) does.
A certain thickness of continental crust displaces less of the mantle than the same thickness of the oceanic crust, the continental crust is less dense. The correct option is b.
What is the continental crust?Granitic rocks, which have less density than basalt and more silicon and aluminum than the basaltic oceanic crust, make up the continental crust. The layer of granitic, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks that makes up the continents and the shallow seafloor around their shorelines is known as the continental crust (continental shelves).
The planet's continents and continental shelves are made of the continental crust, which is the topmost layer of the lithosphere and forms at plate boundaries where the oceanic and continental tectonic plates subduct beneath one another. The majority of the land surface on Earth is made up of the continental crust.
Therefore, the correct option is b, the continental crust is less dense.
To learn more about the continental crust, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/14912725
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The question is incomplete. Your most probably complete question is given below:
the continental crust is denser.
the continental crust is less dense.
the continental crust is less light.
the continental crust is denser.