Answer: The answer is . 8-10 pints
Explanation:
The body of the adult human contains Between 8-10 pints of blood.
The volume of blood in an average adult also account for its body weight.
Jane is using progestin-only pills. Which of the following best explains how this form of birth control protects her from an unplanned pregnancy?
A) It prevents the release of an egg.
B) It kills sperm.
C) It thickens cervical mucus and interferes with implantation.
D) It thickens the lining of the fallopian tubes to impede the travel of both egg and sperm.
Final answer:
Progestin-only pills prevent pregnancy primarily by thickening cervical mucus and secondarily by impacting the lining of the uterus to interfere with implantation.
Explanation:
Jane is using progestin-only pills, a form of hormonal contraception that works to prevent unplanned pregnancy primarily through two mechanisms. Firstly, by thickening the cervical mucus, it makes it more difficult for sperm to pass through the cervix and fertilize an egg. Secondly, it works by altering the endometrium (the lining of the uterus) which may interfere with the implantation of a fertilized egg, though this is considered a secondary mechanism. It is important to note that while the primary mechanism for combined pills (those containing both estrogen and progestin) is preventing ovulation, progestin-only pills rely more significantly on the mechanism of cervical mucus thickening and may also prevent ovulation, but not as consistently as combined pills.
What do you think would be the most satisfying part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer? Explain why. 5. What do you think would be the most frustrating part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer? Explain why.
Answer:think the most satisfying part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer would be that you're helping people to find out their diagnosis to get better.
Why? You will develop a magnetic personality, You will work in a clean environment, High salaries, you can avoid long night shift, You will be a certified health profession.
What do you think would be the most frustrating part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer?
Competition, physical work, radiation and union.
MRI and CT scans are the different types of scans that are used to produce body images to diagnose a disease or internal condition of the body.
Career as MRI and CT radiographerMRI scans or Magnetic Resonance Imaging is a type of scanning procedure, in which a radiographer diagnoses the condition and helps in the treatment better. CT scans or Computed Tomography is an X-ray scan in which computers control the source and detectors to process the data and produce the image.The benefits of CT and MRI radiographer includes high salary, safe environment, ability to diagnose the disease, rapid career growth, and is one of the highest growth rate jobs.
MRI and CT radiographer Jobs can be FrustratingThe primary risk is that the radiographers will be exposed to radiation, which can cause mutations, cancer, and other diseases.
The radiographer while interacting with the patient can be exposed to airborne or other pathogenic agents.The mental stress and emotional trauma while observing the patients with critical conditions.
Thus, a career as a radiographer can be beneficial and frustrating.
Learn more about radiography here:
https://brainly.com/question/12902772
Lipids are not like the other macromolecules we have discussed that are formed from polymerization of specific subunits. Instead lipids are grouped by being_____________
Answer:
chemically reacted (dehydrated)
Explanation:
By definition, polymers are macromolecules formed by the combination or interlinking of a single repeating unit i.e. a monomer. Unlike carbohydrates and proteins, lipids do not form polymers. Lipids consist of a unique starting molecule that is different from the other units.Lipids are formed by the chemical combination of sub-units through reactions such as dehydration. Fatty acids combine through dehydration and release water.This process only allow lipids to elongate in one direction only whereas carbohydrates and proteins can form complex, branched structures.A microorganism has the following characteristics: Its cells have a nucleus and cell walls, it is multicellular, and it grows in long filaments. What is its general classification?
Answer:
It must belong to the Kingdom Fungi.
Explanation:
Fungi are the organisms that have long thread-like structures called hypha in their body. Many hyphae together form a mass called mycelium. Fungi are eukaryotes and have a well-defined nucleus in their cells. They also have cell walls that are made up of chitin. Fungi are mostly multicellular. However, yeast is the fungi that have a single cell in their body. Fungi are heterotrophs and derive their nutrition by parasitic or saprophytic mode of nutrition. Therefore, the given description tells that the microbe should be a fungus.
When too much sugar is consumed in the diet, glucose in the blood exceeds the body's need for energy, and glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles, and as ________ in fat tissue.
Excess glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles, while the surplus is converted into fatty acids and stored as fat in adipose tissue.
Excess glucose in the blood, beyond the body's energy requirements, is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles, and as fat in adipose tissue. When glycogen stores are full, additional glucose is converted into fatty acids, which are stored in adipose tissue cells as triglycerides.
A nurse practitioner is teaching the parent of a child with spastic quadriplegia about intrathecal baclofen [Lioresal]. Which statement by the parent indicates a need for further teaching?
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
The options for the question are
a. “I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication.”
b. “I should not notice any change in my child’s muscle strength.”
c. “I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate.”
d. “If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately.”
Solution -
Intrathecal baclofen is a therapy used to deal with problem of short term spasticity in children with cerebral palsy. For long term spasticity this therapy may not produce effective results. The receptor of the brain and spinal cord interacts with the baclofen in order to reduce abnormal muscle form if the therapy is administered continuously for a certain period of time. If the therapy is stopped suddenly there are high chances that the child may get seizures. However, occurrence of seizure is not certain, but it is advisable to remove the therapy gradually. A parent asking something as stated in option D sows that more information or teaching is required.
Hence, option D is correct
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
The options for the question are
a. “I can expect my child to be more drowsy when receiving this medication.”
b. “I should not notice any change in my child’s muscle strength.”
c. “I will contact the provider if my child is constipated or cannot urinate.”
d. “If my child has a seizure, I should stop giving the medication immediately.”
Solution -
Intrathecal baclofen is a therapy used to deal with problem of short term spasticity in children with cerebral palsy. For long term spasticity this therapy may not produce effective results. The receptor of the brain and spinal cord interacts with the baclofen in order to reduce abnormal muscle form if the therapy is administered continuously for a certain period of time. If the therapy is stopped suddenly there are high chances that the child may get seizures. However, occurrence of seizure is not certain, but it is advisable to remove the therapy gradually. A parent asking something as stated in option D sows that more information or teaching is required.
Hence, option D is correct
Plants are susceptible to bacterial infections, which can damage their structure or even kill them. Which of the following would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant that is infected with bacteria?
Complete Question:
Plants are susceptible to bacterial infections, which can damage their structure or even kill them. Which of the following would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant that is infected with bacteria?
A) a drug that interferes with mitochondria function
B) a drug that disrupts cell wall structure and function
C) a drug that destroys the central vacuole
D) a drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes
Answer: Option D (a drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes.
Explanation: Circular chromosomes are chromosomes found in prokaryotes (including bacteria). Gene expression process in the cell is powered by the barterium’s circular chromosomes.
However, gene expression refers to process in which the information present in the gene (DNA and RNA) are used to produce proteins for specific cell functions. Part of the functions enables the cell to respond to change in it’s fluctuating environment. Which in turn, enable the inner environment fairly stable.
Some proteins are synthesized to regulate the proper functioning of other organelles of the cell including the cell wall, vacuole and etc.
Thus, introduction of antibiotics that disrupts the gene expression in the circular chromosomes will be the best way to eliminate the bacteria affecting the plants. Since, if there's no gene expression in action, no protein is produced for proper organelles and the whole cell functioning. Hence, the bacteria are rendered dead.
A drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant.
What is an antibiotic?Antibiotics are antimicrobial medicines that fight against microorganisms.
Antibiotic drugs are commonly used in the treatment and control of bacterial infections.
Bacteria may be killed or inhibited by these substances.
Thus, the correct option is D, A drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes.
Learn more about antibiotics, here:
https://brainly.com/question/14138965
Inside one osmosis bag*, A, is a 50% glucose solution and inside bag B is a 20% glucose solution. Both bags are put into beakers containing 100% water. What will happen to the bags?
A) Bag A will gain weight.
B) Bag B will gain weight.
C) Both bags will gain weight.
D) Both bags will lose weight.
E) Both bags will remain the same.
Answer:C) Both bags will gain weight.
Explanation: osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of low concentration of solute to a region of high concentration of solute, through a semi permeable membrane.
It is one of the ways in which living cells move substances across it's membrane.
In the above case,the bags are semi-permeable and so can allow the movement of water molecules through it.
Both bags contains water with glucose dissolved in them, although bag A has a higher concentration of solute (glucose).
When placed in the 100% water,water would flow into both bags through osmosis.this will occur because the concentration of solute in the bags is higher than that outside the bags.
As a result both bags would gain weight due to entry of water.
However ,Bag A which has more glucose in it, would gain more water.
In this osmosis process, water in the beaker (lower concentration) will move into the bags A and B (higher concentration) that contain glucose solution. Therefore, both bags A and B will gain weight.
Explanation:The process being described here is osmosis, a fundamental concept in biology. Osmosis is the process where solvent molecules move from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. In this context, the bags are semi-permeable membranes and the water inside the beakers is the solvent. Both bag A and bag B are filled with solutions that have a higher concentration of glucose (the solute) compared to the water in the beakers. Therefore, water will move from the beaker (area of lower concentration) to inside the bags (area of higher concentration). So, both Bag A and Bag B will gain weight, as water enters them. Thus, the correct answer is C) Both bags will gain weight.
Learn more about Osmosis here:https://brainly.com/question/33306139
#SPJ3
In some organisms, such as certain fungi and algae, cells undergo the cell cycle repeatedly without subsequently undergoing cytokinesis. What would result from this?
A) a decrease in chromosome number
B) inability to duplicate DNA
C) large cells containing many nuclei
D) a rapid rate of gamete production
E) division of the organism into many cells, most lacking nuclei
Answer:
C) large cells containing many nuclei
Explanation:
Mitosis (it's a stage in the cell cycle) is seen when the cell DNA has undergo duplication, resulting in two sets of chromosomes in a cell which are separated with the formation of two identical nuclei imside the cell.
We know that normally cytokinesis is the final stage in mitosis resulting in division of the cell cytoplasm and nuclei over two separate, identical daughter cells. ***The aftermath of mitosis without cytokinesis yield a cell with more than one nucleus.***
This type of cell is termed a multinucleated cell. It may occur normally as seen in humans possessing particular multinucleated bone cells (osteoclasts) which are produced via this means. This process can also be seen at the early development of particular insects e.g. the fruit fly (Drosophila). It may be a sign of a altered cell cycle, indicating a pathological activity as observed in tumors.
You have identified a plant in your garden with a new flower color. You want to determine if this phenotype is dominant or recessive. Which cross would tell you this?
Answer:
A monohybrid cross will be able to determine whether the trait is dominant or recessive.
Explanation:
In order to determine whether the flower colour is dominant or recessive, we should cross the plant with the other type of the plant with different flower color. The results from the cross could be illustrated in a punnet square and will be able to determine whether the trait is dominant or recessive. If the plant will be recessive then it will be seen in lesser number in the upcoming population.
Answer:
Test cross
Explanation:
A testcross is a cross between an organism of unknown genotype with a double recessive individual. One way of establishing the genotype of a plant bearing the characteristics of the dominant gene is by self pollination. If all the offspring are similar, then the unknown genotype is homozygous dominant. If the offspring are different at a ratio of 1:1 then the unknown genotype is heterozygous.
As trees get larger and the number of leaves increases, transpiration rates rise and demand for water increases. How do mature plant stems meet this added demand for water?
Cells of secondary phloem adjacent to the vascular cambium differentiate into xylem cells.
Vascular cambium continues to divide, and cells of its inner surface differentiate to form additional secondary xylem cells.
Cells of the xylem continue to divide and produce more cells that transport water.
Cells present in the pith closest to the xylem differentiate into xylem cells.
Answer:
Vascular cambium continues to divide, and cells of its inner surface differentiate to form additional secondary xylem cells.
Select all that apply chromosomes____. always occur in pairs are tight coils of DNA can be analyzed in a karyotype carry thousands of genes are carried on genes
Answer:
The correct answers are:
Are tight coils of DNACan be analysed in a karyotype.Carry thousand of genes.Explanation:
Chromosome occur: In pairs only in diploid organisms, who have two sets of genes, one obtained from the father and other from the mother. But circular chromosomes in single form can be found in haploid organisms, like prokaryotes, which have a single copy of the genome.Polyploid organisms carry multiple copies of a chromosome. This is observed mostly in plants like rice or wheat.Chromosomes are formed by the compaction of the double-stranded DNA with the help of proteins. The DNA coils sequentially into the nucleosome, 10 nano-meter fibre, 30 nano-meter and then into the metaphase chromosome.DNA is analysed by the method of karyotyping in which the chromosomes are observed, counted and checked for abnormality in the cells, in metaphase stage of cell-division ( when the chromosomes can be distinctly identified).Each chromosome carries multiple genes as the chromosome is formed by the coiling up of the long DNA carrying genes.Chromosome carry genes, chromosomes are not carried on genes.What enzymes are found in the digestive system and what macromolecules do they break down? list the organs that produce the enzymes as well as the specific enzymes and the macromolecule each enzyme breaks up next to it
Enzymes in digetsive system are protases, nucleases, Amylase,Pepsin, Trypsin, Pancreatic lipase, Deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease.
Explanation:
The food that we intake can be broken into many sub units and they are in taken by the blood stream for attaining energy. This is done by the digestive system. there are many enzymes that are created by various organs of digestive system that helps to break down food that we intake. These enzymes includes, protases, nucleases, Amylase,Pepsin, Trypsin, Pancreatic lipase, Deoxyribonuclease and ribonuclease. Enzymes are the proteins that are helpful in breaking down the food that we take.
Protases and nucleases are used for breaking down the proteins and nucleic acids respectively. starch and sugar are broken down by Amylase. This enzyme is produced by the organ mouth. Stomach is the organ that produces Pepsin and it helps in breaking down proteins to amino acids. Pancreas produces the enzyme Trypsin that helps in breaking down proteins. Pancreas also produces lipase that breaks fats.
Final answer:
The digestive system has enzymes that break down carbohydrates (amylase), proteins (proteases like pepsin), and lipids (lipases), produced by the salivary glands, stomach, and pancreas. The small intestine also contains disaccharidases like sucrase and lactase. These enzymes are essential for the hydrolysis of food into energy-rich small molecules.
Explanation:
Digestive Enzymes and Their Functions
The human digestive system utilizes a variety of enzymes to break down food into absorbable nutrients. These enzymes are produced by different organs and target specific macromolecules:
Amylase, produced in the salivary glands and the pancreas, breaks down carbohydrates into simpler sugars like maltose.Proteases, such as pepsin, produced in the stomach, and trypsin and chymotrypsin, produced in the pancreas, break down proteins into peptides and amino acids.Lipases, primarily from the pancreas, break down fats (lipids) into glycerol and fatty acids.Disaccharidases such as sucrase, lactase, and maltase in the small intestine further break down disaccharides into monosaccharides.Enzymes like ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease, found in the pancreas, break down nucleic acids like RNA and DNA, respectively.The hydrolysis reactions catalyzed by these enzymes release energy, which powers other cellular activities.
Salmon hatcheries are commonly found near rivers along the West Coast of the United States because of decline in wild salmon populations due to what activities?
Answer:
Salmon populations in the United States is declining due to the following factors:
1. Over-fishing and human activities have put a major influence on the population of salmon.
2. Due to industrialization, urban growth, unplanned farming, deforestation, and pollution would have imparted strains on the stocks of salmon. Apart from this chemical contamination from the industrial run-off and agricultural activities are also declining populations of salmon.
3. Genetically modified fish from hatcheries usually escape and interbreed with wild fish, thus, changing the genetic features of the populations.
4. Construction of hydropower dams is also a major cause of the salmon population declining.
Answer:
The Salmon are endothermic animals and there internal environment changes according to the external environments. The change in the external environment can lead to the sudden decline in the population.
The main factors that are responsible for the decline in salmon populations are habitat fragmentation, habitat loss, hatcheries, increased urbanization and sudden change in the external environment. The increase in the environmental population also decreases the Salmon population.
To be considered part of the same population organisms must have a reasonable chance of mating with each other. Are two wild roses separated by a wide road part of the same population?
Two questions have been asked, and responded to
Answer:
For question 1: The statement is true
For question 2: Yes, the two wild roses are of the same population
Explanation:
Population is simply the total number of organisms of the same species LIVING and BREEDING together in a given area.
I) To be considered part of the same population, two of more organisms MUST BE able to mate i.e produce gametes that are viable enough to fuse together and create new offsprings.
2) Yes! Two wild roses separated by a wide road belong to the SAME POPULATION because
- it is still a given area or habitat
- transfer of pollen grains by agents such as wind or insects is possible, thus breeding still occurs.
1: The statement is true
2: Yes, the 2 wild roses are of the identical population
Population organismsWhen the Population is just the overall number of organisms of the identical species LIVING and also BREEDING together in an exceedingly given area.
I) Then To be considered a part of the identical population that two or more organisms MUST BE able to mate that's produce gametes that are viable enough to fuse and make new off-springs.
2) Yes! When Two wild roses separated by a good road belong to the identical POPULATION because it's still a given area or habitat transfer of pollen grains by agents like wind or insects is feasible, thus breeding still occurs.
Find out more information about Population organisms here:
https://brainly.com/question/10117781
A group of registered dietitian nutritionists is planning to conduct a scientific study to investigate the effects of eating honey on school-age children's behavior. At first, the researchers will ________.
Answer: Make observations
Explanation:
The observation is very essential when it comes to a scientific study. The first step is making observation related to the topic.
The observation is a type of inference which is made before conducting an experiment. The data which is collected related to the experiment is known as observation.
A person should have all the information based on that the hypothesis is given.Then the experiment is performed.
What are homologous chromosomes?
a. chromosomes that are similar in their size, shape, and gene content.
b. any chromosome in a diploid cell.
c. the two chromatids in a replicated chromosome.
d. similar chromosomes that are found in different individuals of the same species.
Answer:
The correct answer is a. chromosomes that are similar in their size, shape, and gene content.
Explanation:
A homologous chromosome is the chromosome which is similar in shape, size, centromere position and they contain the same genes at the same locus also.
One homologous chromosome comes from the father and the other homologous chromosomes come from the mother. These chromosomes have the same gene at the same locus but the alleles of that gene can be different in homologous chromosomes.
The homologous chromosome separates during the meiosis so that the gamete has half the number of chromosomes. So the correct answer is a.
Homologous chromosomes are similar in size, shape, and gene content. They are pairs of chromosomes found in diploid cells, one inherited from each parent. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes undergo crossing over to create genetic variation.
Explanation:Homologous chromosomes are chromosomes that are similar in their size, shape, and gene content. They are pairs of chromosomes that carry the same genes, although they may have different versions of those genes. Homologous chromosomes are found in diploid cells, which have two sets of chromosomes, one inherited from each parent.
For example, in humans, we have 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes, giving us a total of 46 chromosomes. Each pair consists of one chromosome inherited from the mother and one from the father.
These pairs of chromosomes are important for genetic diversity and inheritance. During meiosis, the process of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and eggs), homologous chromosomes line up and swap genetic material through a process called crossing over. This results in genetic variation and the shuffling of traits between generations.
Learn more about homologous chromosomes here:https://brainly.com/question/33380808
#SPJ3
What is a condition caused by some strains of staphylococci and streptococci in which toxic enzymes produced by the bacteria digest the connective tissue and spreads into muscle layers called
Answer:
Necrotizing fascilitis
Explanation:
It is a flesh eating disease that causes death to parts of the body's soft tissues such as the connective tissues and spreads to the muscles.
It is caused by multiple types of bacteria such as some strains of staphylococci and Streptococci. They do so by producing toxic enzymes which in turn digests these soft tissues.
Prevention include wound care and hand washing to prevent infection.
It is treated by surgically removal of the infected tissues and intravenous antibiotics.
In terms of your heartbeat, digestion, and glandular functioning, your body is pretty much a well-oiled machine that works even when you are asleep. This occurs due to your:__________a. sympathetic nervous systemb. somatic nervous systemc. parasympathetic nervous systemd. autonomic nervous system
Final answer:
The body's involuntary functions such as heartbeat, digestion, and glandular activity are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, which includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, maintaining homeostasis.
Explanation:
In terms of heartbeat, digestion, and glandular functioning, these processes persist even during sleep due to the autonomic nervous system. This system controls the internal organs and glands, largely outside voluntary control. It comprises two main divisions: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic division is responsible for preparing the body for stress-related activities ('fight or flight'), while the parasympathetic division helps the body to conserve energy and undertake routine day-to-day operations ('rest and digest'). Both divisions work together to maintain homeostasis, ensuring the body's internal environment remains stable. Option A and C is correct .
do you think resident of the great plains are the only people who have an interest in conserving the orgallala aquifer? write an editorial that expresses your point of view
Answer:
No they are not the only one.
Explanation:
Orgallala aquifer is very important. In first impact is to the people that surround the area, this aquifer cover 8 states in the US, that mean that around 3 million people depend on their water to drink and to their daily activities.
Also this aquifer is used to produce nearly the 30 % of the agricultural products for the whole country. That means that a lot of US residents consume veggies and cereals from this area. Also, the meat that this country produces, depends of the production of plants as food for animals.
Finally, this is one of the largest aquifer around the world. That means, plenty of leaving things occur in this are, among others.
These are the reason why not just the people around the aquifer is worry about.
Hope this info is useful.
The Ogallala Aquifer, also called the High Plains Aquifer, is one of the world's greatest underground freshwater sources.
No, not only the resident of the great plains are conserving water of orgallala, but many farmers from different states also interested in conserving the orgallala groundwater because they need water from farming.
Conservation of Orgallala Aquifer waterEvery summer, the Central Plains of the United States become parched, forcing farmers to rely on groundwater to irrigate sorghum, soy, cotton, wheat, and corn, as well as keep big herds of cattle and hogs.As the temperature rises, concerned irrigators congregate to debate if and how they should implement more strict conservation measures.They understand that unless they conserve, the Ogallala Aquifer, which is the source of their wealth, will run dry.Thus, I don't think that resident of the great plains are the only people who have an interest in conserving the orgallala aquifer.
Learn more about orgallala aquifer, here:
https://brainly.com/question/10609623
In the flask experiment (Pasteur's experiment) showing that living organisms arise from other living organisms, which one of the following statements MOST accurately describes hypothesis? Group of answer choices
1. Microbes should be capable of growing equally well in sterile broth contained in both straight-neck and swan-neck flasks.
2. The first cells must have come from chemical reactions occurring in early Earth.
3. Sterilization of broth kills microbes.
4. Straight-neck flasks allow for more contamination than swan-neck flasks.
5. If microbes arise from nonliving matter, they should appear spontaneously in sterile broth.
Answer:
The statement that most accurately describes the hypothesis is Statement 5 - If microbes arise from nonliving matter, they should appear spontaneously in sterile broth.
Explanation:
The statement is most accurate because he exposed two broth culture dust particles, one in a broken flask left opened while the other in an enclosed unbroken flask. So the one left open in a broken flask indicated microbial growth while the other was clear, simply showing that microorganisms do not occur from non-living materials alone.
An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the...
A. intervertebral discs
B. pubic symphysis
C. interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna
D. sagittal suture
Answer: The correct answer is : D. sagittal suture
Explanation: The sagittal suture connects the two parietal bones of the skull, it is a type of synartrotic fibrous joint. Fibrous joints with very little or no mobility are called synartrotic, the bones are held together by fibrous connective tissues. Synarthrosis occurs where there is bone growth. Synarthrosis protects and supports ligaments and muscles.
The sagittal suture is an example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint.
Explanation:An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the sagittal suture. Synarthrotic joints are immovable joints, and fibrous joints are connected by fibrous connective tissue.
An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the sagittal suture (option D). Synarthrotic joints, also known as immovable joints, are firmly held together by fibrous tissue. In the case of the sagittal suture, this joins the two parietal bones of the skull together. These joints are generally found in areas where strength and stability are necessary and movement is not, such as the skull.
Learn more about synarthrotic fibrous joint here:https://brainly.com/question/32754816
#SPJ6
What 5-carbon sugar makes up the DNA backbone? *
A. splenda
B. cane sugar
C. deoxyribose
Answer:
C. deoxyribose.. Hope that helps :)
Why are individuals with an extra chromosome 21, which causes Down syndrome, more numerous than individuals with an extra chromosome 3 or chromosome 16
Answer: Extra copies of the other somatic chromosomes are usually fatal.
Explanation:
In genetics, the term aneuploidy refers to the change in chromosome number 23, which can lead to genetic diseases. An aneuploid is an individual whose number of chromosomes differs from the wild or euploid type in part of its chromosomal makeup, due to an extra or missing chromosome, which is always associated with a deficiency in physical or mental development or both. This occurs during errors in meiosis, which is the type of cell division that occurs during the formation of gametes, which are sex cells that during fertilization give rise to a zygote. Human beings are diploid, which means that we have two copies of each chromosome.
Non-disjunction indicates a failure in this process of meiosis, in which two chromosomes or chromatids go together and the other pole receives nothing. A pair of homologous chromosomes that does not separate correctly during meiosis I, gives rise to two abnormal cells as a product of meiosis I: one cell with an extra chromosome and one with a missing chromosome. In meiosis II, the chromatids in the chromosomes separate and it could also give rise to abnromal cells.
In the case of trisomy on chromosome 21, this is more common as the disease it because is not lethal. But in many other cases, trisomy on another pair of chromosomes can be lethal. Having an extra chromosome changes the way a baby develops both physically and intellectually. These changes can present the baby and subsequent adult with a number of mental and physical challenges. This is because it alters the amount of protein produced that is encoded by the DNA in those chromosomes.
Aneuploidy is almost always deleterious because of gene imbalance: the ratio between genes is different than in euploids, and this difference interferes with the normal functioning of the genome. In general, the amount of transcript produced by a gene is directly proportional to the number of copies of that gene in the cell. Thus, for a given gene, the rate of transcription is directly related to the number of DNA moulds available. Thus, the more copies there are of a gene, the greater the number of transcripts produced, and a greater amount of that protein will be obtained. This relationship between the number of copies of a gene and the amount of gene product produced is called the gene dose effect. Usually, this could be lethal but in Down syndrome it is not. So that's why there are more individuals with Down syndrome than with other trisomies, because they survive and the others don't.
Match the following:________ 1. chloroplast genes are made of this substance 2. DNA body that releases energy from foods 3. nucleus food-making body 4. mitochondria cell headquarters 5. cell wall layers of cellulose outside the cell
Answer: 1. Chloroplast: food-making body
2. DNA: genes are made of this substance
3. Nucleus: cell headquarters
4. Mitochondria: body that releases energy from foods
5. Cell wall: layers of cellulose outside the cell
Explanation:
Chloroplasts are the cell organelle that helps in food-making. Present only in plants.The DNA which means DeoxyriboNucleic Acid is the carrier of genetic information. Genes are made of DNA. The Nucleus is referred to as the cell headquarters; it is the central and most important part of an cell. Mitochondria is the power house of the cell; it is the body that releases energy from foods. The Cell wall is a layer of cellulose outside the cell.
Identify whether each of the following is a component of the intracellular fluid or extracellular fluid.1. cytoplasm of a neuron2. cytosol of a red blood cell3. interstitial fluid4. blood plasma
Answer:
1 and 2 are components of intracellular fluids, while 3 and 4 are of extracellular fluids.
Explanation:
The fluid in the body can be categorized as either extracellular or intracellular, based on the fluid component as well as where they are found.
Extracellular fluids are found outside the body cells, while intracellular fluids are found inside of cells enclosed by the plasma membranes.
1. cytoplasm of a neuron and 2. Cytosol of a red blood cells are components of intracellular fluids found within cells.
3. Interstitial fluid and 4. Blood plasma are primary components of extracellular fluids found outside the surrounding of cells.
The cytoplasm of a neuron and the cytosol of a red blood cell are components of the intracellular fluid, while the interstitial fluid and blood plasma are part of the extracellular fluid.
Explanation:The components mentioned fall into different categories of body fluids based on their location. Number 1, cytoplasm of a neuron, and Number 2, cytosol of a red blood cell are components of the intracellular fluid. This is because they are located inside the cells. On the other hand, Number 3, interstitial fluid, and Number 4, blood plasma, belong to the extracellular fluid category, since they are found outside the cellular structure.
Learn more about Intracellular and Extracellular Fluids here:https://brainly.com/question/33718568
#SPJ3
A person who fakes symptoms for a goal is called a _________, while a person who fakes a disease for no clear goal has a ________disorder:
Answer:
A person who fakes symptoms for a goal is called a malingerer, while a person who fakes a disease for no clear goal has a factitous disorder:
Explanation:
Malingerer is someone who attempts to shirk or escape from duty/ responsibility by feigning. Malingering is the result of a person desire to gain a reward or avoid something and it is not caused by any physical factors. While Factitious disorder entails a person acting as if he or she has a physical or mental illness.
Answer: malingerer; factitious
Explanation:
Malingerer and factitious disorders both involve people who exaggerate symptoms or make up symptoms of a certain illness. However, those disorders have some differences.
Factitious disorder is classified as a somatic symptom disorder so it is a mental illness. People with this disorders exaggerate or lie about having medical or psychiatric symptoms and there are two kinds of factitious disorder:
Factitious disorder imposed on self (FDIS) also known as Munchausen syndrome: The person lies about their own health.
Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA) also known as Munchausen syndrome by proxy: The person lies about someone else’s symptoms or disease. The victim is usually a child or any person who can’t take care of themselves.
People with these disorders often go to see a doctor in a hospital or clinic. They talk about symptoms of a made up illness and they also may injure themselves or somebody else. And usually, they may try to fake diagnostic test results.
Malingerers exaggerate or make up symptoms of an illness which can be physical or psychiatric and they do it for personal gain. However, they have clear external motivations that drive their behavior. Some of those reasons include:
A financial gain Reducing work obligations To avoid prison timeTo get time off work To get prescriptions for medicationsAll of this also means that treatment is different for each disorder.
As fluid moves toward the injury site, which cells of the immune system follow to remove pathogens and cellular debris through phagocytosis__________.
Answer:
macrophages
Explanation:
Macrophages are the specialized cells that perform phagocytosis which refers to the intake of microbes, pathogens, toxins, etc. to remove them from the body. During any injury, capillaries become more permeable under the influence of histamine and other substances. This allows the tissue fluid to move towards the site of infection. Monocytes are the phagocytes that arrive at the site of injury or infections along with neutrophils. Monocytes are transformed into actively phagocytic macrophages. Macrophages ingest the debris and pathogens and kill them by the hydrolytic enzymes present inside them.
What does an antigen presenting cell encounter that allows the activation of both the humoral response and the cell mediated response in your immune system?
Answer:
Exogenous Antigen
Explanation:
An antigen-presenting cell (APC) is an immune cell that detects, engulfs, and informs the adaptive immune response about an infection. APC present the antigen complexed with with major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs). There are two type of APC: professional APC that presesnt MHCII and non professional APC that present MHCI. Macrophages, Dentritic cells and B cells (before maturation) are examples professional APC cells.
T cells are major cells in cell mediated immunity and B cells are key component for humoral immunity beacuse they are involved in the production of antibodies. There are three types of T cells; helper,cytotoxic and supressive. Foreign antigen presented by professional APC cell with MHC class II are recognized by helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells can recognize endogenous antigen presented on MHC class I. The virus infected cells are destroyed by T cytotoxic cells and T helper cells play a part to activate the cell mediated response and humoral response by stimulating the rapid division of B cells & cytotoxic T cells by producing compounds called interleukins.
T cell can only recognize foreign non viral antigen presented by professional T cells and only T helper cell can induce both cell mediated and humoral immune response.
In a diploid individual, one chromosome carries A and B genes, and the homologous chromosome carries different forms (alleles) of these same genes, a and b. If there is a single crossover between these two genes involving non-sister chromatids during metaphase I of meiosis, the resulting four gametes are:
A. AB, AB, ab, ab.
B. AB, ab, AB, ab.
C. AaBb, AaBb, AaBb, AaBb.
D. AB, Ab, aB, ab.
E. Ab, Ab, aB, aB.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
This involves a dihybrid inheritance I.e. two genes are being passed on. During meiosis, specifically, the Prophase stage, homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) line side by side. According to the question, one chromosome contains A and B alleles and its homologue, received by the other parent carries a and b alleles. This means that the diploid individual has a genotype AaBb for that gene.
According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, the alleles separate independently of one another into gametes. I.e. allele A and a separates into the gametes without affecting alleles B and b of the other gene.
Crossing-over, which is the exchange of chromosomal segment occurs between the two homologues. Hence, the exchange of chromosomal segments containing alleles in the individual will possibly produce four gametes with the genotypes: AB, Ab, aB, ab.