Answer:
1.Energy unidirectionally flows through an ecosystem, whereas matter generally cycles within an ecosystem.
Explanation:
In an ecosystem, energy from the organisms of one trophic level to that of next occurs by the process of feeding. The flow of energy follows a unidirectional path which means that energy from producers is carried to the primary consumers, secondary consumers and so on. It does not flow in reverse direction (from consumers to producers).
On the other hand, matter such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, etc. are cycled via various biogeochemical cycles. For instance, plants intake carbon from the air in the form of CO2 and form organic nutrients. These organic nutrients carry the carbon from plants to herbivores and then to the consumers of higher trophic levels. However, when plants and consumers die, the carbon present in their tissues is decomposed and is released back to the surroundings. In this way, the carbon cycle cycles carbon in an ecosystem.
In an ecosystem, energy flows unidirectionally, starting from the sun to producers, then consumers. On the other hand, matter like carbon, nitrogen, or water is cycled within the ecosystem, passing through various living organisms and the physical environment.
Explanation:In an ecosystem, energy and matter interact in very different ways. Firstly, energy flows unidirectionally through an ecosystem. This means it is transferred from the sun to producers (like plants) in the form of light energy, which these organisms then convert into chemical energy via photosynthesis. Herbivores, or primary consumers, then eat these plants and take in this energy. This energy is subsequently transferred up the food chain as these herbivores are eaten by carnivores, and so on. However, with each transfer, some energy is lost to the environment as heat, making for a one-way flow.
On the other hand, matter cycles within an ecosystem. This encompasses components such as carbon, nitrogen, and water, which are recycled through living organisms and the physical environment. For example, plants absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere for photosynthesis. When they are consumed by animals, this carbon is incorporated into their bodies. Once these organisms die and decompose, the carbon is released back into the soil or atmosphere, completing the cycle.
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A cell contains fertility (F) plasmid that allows it to produce a structure for exchanging DNA with another cell. What structure is coded for by the genes of this plasmid?
Answer:
Sex pilus or pilus
Explanation:
The donor bacterial cells during conjugation have a fertility plasmid. They are called F+ cells. The F genes present on the F plasmid encode enzymes. Some of the genes of F plasmid also code for the formation of sex pilus which is the long and thread-like structures present on the bacterial cell surface. Sex pili are involved in the process of genetic recombination. During conjugation, the sex pilus serves to recognize the surface of F- cell and forms a cytoplasmic bridge between the F+ and F- cells to facilitate DNA transfer.
Viral Spikies
A)attach non-specifically to host cell receptors
B)attach specifically to host cell receptors
C)are made of carbohydrate
D)are present in all viruses
Answer:
B)attach specifically to host cell receptors
Explanation:
Viral spikes are one of the envelope proteins. These proteins are coded for by viral genes. Viral spikes project from the envelope surface. They are also called peplomers. One of the functions of these spikes is to specifically interact with the receptors present on the surface of the host cell to mediate the attachment of the virus to the host cell surface. Viral spikes and the host cell surface receptors are complementary to allow their specific binding. For example, the spike protein of the SARS-coronavirus bind specifically to the human host cell receptor ACE2.
Iconic memory is to echoic memory as ________. Group of answer choices A. implicit is to explicit B.auditory is to visual visual is to auditory C.quick is to slow
Iconic memory is to echoic memory as ________. Group of answer choices A. implicit is to explicit
B.auditory is to visual
C.visual is to auditory
D.quick is to slow
Answer:
C. visual is to auditory
Explanation:
Iconic memory is a form of visual sensory memory concerning a visual sense of perception. It component comprises of visual long-term memory and visual short-term memory.
Echoic memory originate from the word echo, which typically implies reflection of sounds. That is to say Echoic memory deals with anything involving auditory channel. Thus, we can therefore conclude that Echoic memory pertains to auditory sensory memory that record ans save information heard in order to be processed via the cochlea to the brain where is interpreted and feedback is given in order to be understood.
Hence, Iconic memory is to echoic memory as visual is to auditory.
Iconic memory is a brief sensory memory for visual stimuli and echoic memory is for auditory stimuli. So, 'Iconic memory is to echoic memory as visual is to auditory'.
Explanation:The term 'iconic memory' refers to a type of sensory memory that is connected to the visual system and forms an afterimage. It only lasts for a very brief time, about one second. On the other hand, 'echoic memory' is a type of sensory memory related to auditory information held just long enough to be processed. These are components of our short-term sensory memories. So in the context of the question: Iconic memory (visual) is to echoic memory (auditory) as Visual is to Auditory.
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Which process is an important part of chemical weathering through oxidation? (1 point)
A oxygen capturing protons from other elements
B oxygen capturing electrons from other elements
C oxygen giving up electrons to other elements
D oxygen giving up protons to other elements
any one know the answer ?
A procedure in which two neutral stimuli are paired, after which one is repeatedly paired with the unconditioned stimulus. If the other stimulus is then presented alone, it may elicit a conditioned response even though it was never paired with the unconditioned stimulus: a. sensory preconditioning b. simultaneous conditioning c. backward conditioning d. trace conditioning
A 22-year-old man is experiencing hypovolemic shock following a fight in which his carotid artery was cut with a broken bottle. Which immediate treatments are likely to most benefit the man?a. Infusion of vasodilators to foster perfusion and inotropes to improve heart contractility.b. Infusion of normal saline or Ringer's lactate to maintain the vascular space.c. Resolution of compensatory pulmonary edema and heart arrhythmias.d. Administration of oxygen and epinephrine to promote perfusion.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option B.
Explanation:
The carotid arteries are one of the major blood vessels in the neck that helps in the blood supply to essential body parts such as the brain, face, and neck. It is present on both sides of the neck right and left.
Hypovolemic shock is a life-threatening condition takes place when there is a loss of blood volume more than 20 % which could be lead to organ failure. So, infusion of normal saline or Ringer's lactate so it can maintain the vascular space.
Thus, the correct answer is - option B.
A police officer felt a soft lumpy object in a suspects back pocket, about the size of a quarter. He was unsure what it was, so he manipulated it with his fingers. At this point he thought the object was a bag of marijuana, so he reached in and pulled it out. He was right. What was the result?
Answer:
Option A, The officer did not have a reasonable suspicion that the item was a weapon; bad frisk
Explanation:
The options for the question are -
a) The officer did not have reasonable suspicion that the item was a weapon; bad frisk.
b) The officer had reasonable suspicion that the item was evidence of a crime; good frisk
c) The officer had reasonable suspicion that the item was a weapon; good frisk
d) The officer was conducting a pat down for officer safety; good frisk
Solution -
When an officer is able to judge correctly that the suspect is a dangerous individual and may be carrying a weapon, then he/she undergo reasonable suspicion. In most of the case an officer presumption is right but in this case the presumption about the suspect carrying a weapon was wrong. Usually such presumptions are based on circumstances. Reasonable suspicion allows a police officer to inspect the suspect.
Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers from 92-100. Therefore, which of the following can be true?A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons.
C) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons.
D) Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons.
Answer: The true statement is that Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons
Explanation:
Step by step
I) Recall that Atomic number = Number of protons
So, Molybdenum with atomic number of 42 = 42 Protrons
II) Also, recall that Mass number = Number of protons + number of neutrons;
So, if Molybdenum mass number is 92,
then Neutrons = 92 - 42 = 50
III) If Mass number is 100,
then Neutrons = 100 - 42 = 58
So, Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons
Option A is correct because isotopes of Molybdenum can have between 50 and 58 neutrons, calculated by subtracting the constant atomic number from the varying mass numbers. Options B and D are incorrect, and C is misleading.
Explanation:The atomic number of Molybdenum is 42, which indicates that each atom has 42 protons. Isotopes differ in the number of neutrons they contain, while the number of protons remains constant. For isotopes of Molybdenum with mass numbers ranging from 92-100, we can find the number of neutrons by subtracting the atomic number (protons) from the mass number. The number of neutrons will therefore be 92 - 42 = 50 to 100 - 42 = 58.
Given these calculations, option A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons is correct. Option B) is incorrect because all isotopes of Molybdenum have 42 protons. Option C) is misleading: while a neutral atom would indeed have the same number of protons and electrons, the phrasing suggests variability in electron count due to isotopes, which is not the case. Option D) is incorrect, as isotopes vary in neutrons, not electrons, when considering neutral atoms.
Which complication may be increased because of the combined use of catechol ortho-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Answer:
Increased cardiovascular risk.
Explanation:
Catechol ortho-methyltransferase (COMT) and monoamine oxidase (MAO) is used for the catalysis of the first step of the catecholamine metabolism. COMT is present in neurons membrane whereas MAO is located on the outer membrane of mitochondria.
The inhibitors of monoamine oxidase and Catechol ortho-methyltransferase result in the improper metabolism of the catecholamines. These decreased metabolism results in the increase of the cardiovascular disease of the body. This affect the other functioning of the body as well.
Thus, the answer is increased cardiovascular risk.
ANSWER:
The correct answer is : increased risk of the cardiovascular disease.
Explanation:
Using the XCOMT and MAOIs together can lead to the high risk of cardiovascular disease due to the using these altogether cause lowering catecholamines.
There are several other condition can be arise due to not taking as prescribed such as taking COMT inhibitors empty stomach that result in GI upset however there is no direct impact on GI tract.
Thus, the correct answer is - increased risk of the cardiovascular disease.
These vertebrae attach to your hip bones. Select one: a. lumbar b. sacral c. thoracic d. coccygeal e. cervical
Answer:
The answer is option b. sacral bones.
Explanation:
The sacral bones are a shaped like a triangle and found below the fifth (5th) lumbar vertebrae and in between the hip bones. The joint formed with the hip bones is called the sacroiliac joint.
Anthony is a marine biologist who spends months living on a boat in the ocean studying the impact of runoff water a hundred miles off the coast as a part of his job. Which of the following sentences is the most accurate?
Answer:
A. Lodging is included in his income.
B. He may exclude meals from his income.
C. The fuel used to power the boat is excluded from his income.
D. b & c are correct, not a (correct).
E. All are correct.
Explanation:
Since Anthony is doing a job in the field, he is most likely getting extra benefits because of his day and night at the workplace. So, lodging definitely should not be included in his income rather it will come as a benefit.
Similarly, it is also possible that he gets meal benefits as well. Further, fuel used to power the boat should come from the company's expenses and not from his pocket so it should be excluded from his income too.
Therefore, both B and C options are correct.
Anthony, a marine biologist, spends months living on a boat in the ocean studying the impact of runoff water a hundred miles off the coast.
Explanation:The most accurate statement pertaining to the task of Anthony, a marine biologist, would be that he spends time in the ocean investigating the effects of runoff water. This line of work focuses on studying what happens when water from the land, carrying various substances, reaches the ocean. Anthony's research is conducted hundred miles off the coast. Through his work, he is able to contribute to our understanding of how runoff water impacts marine ecosystems.
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Drag the descriptions or images to the correct box to show your understanding of the external structures of bacterial cells.
Answer:
flagella: has runs and tumbles
pili: involved in bacterial conjugation
Explanation:
Flagella can be described as hair-like, long and thin appendages which are used by the bacteria for movement. Some bacteria have only a single flagellum while the others might have many of these. The flagella also help the bacteria to track down food particles.
Pili can be described as external structures of the bacteria that allow the bacteria to attach to different substrates. Pili also help in the transfer of genetic material from one bacteria to the other bacteria.
Flagella are slender, hair-like appendages found on bacteria, and they serve as propellers for bacterial movement.
Pili, on the other hand, are external structures of bacteria that play a crucial role in attaching to various surfaces.
Flagella can be found on a wide range of organisms, including bacteria, archaea, algae, protozoa, and spermatozoa. The number of flagella on a cell can vary from one to many. For example, some bacteria have a single flagellum, while others have hundreds or even thousands of flagella.
Flagella play an important role in the movement of many microorganisms. They also help some organisms to sense their environment and to communicate with each other. For example, some bacteria use their flagella to swim towards food or away from harmful substances. Other bacteria use their flagella to communicate with each other and to coordinate their behavior.
Additionally, pili facilitate the transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through a process known as bacterial conjugation.
Bacteria may possess either a single flagellum or multiple ones, aiding them in both locomotion and the detection of nutrients.
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To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: Select one: a. the heart. b. the lungs. c. the brain. d. the skin.
Answer:
D. The skin
Explanation:
The skin is usually considered as supply-independent for oxygen delivery. The most affected organs and tissues considered as being supply-dependent for oxygen delivery are heart, brain and lungs. These are the most sensitive to oxygen deprivation, being the brain more than the other organs.
To protect vital organs during times of stress, the body redirects blood away from less critical areas, notably the skin, as it can better tolerate lower blood flow compared to essential organs.
Explanation:To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow. The correct answer to the question is d. the skin. Unlike essential organs such as the heart, lungs, and brain, the skin can tolerate lower blood flow without significant impairment. The cardiovascular system is responsible for the resource allocation of blood flow. During activities like exercise, more blood is directed towards organs that are actively engaged in the task, such as skeletal muscles, the heart, and the lungs, and after eating, more blood goes to the digestive system. In contrast, the skin, along with other less vital body parts, receives less blood during these times. Systemic circulation ensures the continuous flow of blood to and from the heart, with regulatory mechanisms adjusting this flow based on the body's needs and activities.
During interphase of the cell cycle, a muscle cell was determined to contain less mitochondria than needed. What would most likely happen to this cell? Group of answer choices
Answer:
The unacceptable cell would most likely be detected during GAP1 and removed from the cell cycle.
Explanation:
Doesn't have sufficient mitochondria.
If a muscle cell contains less mitochondria than needed during interphase, it may experience a decrease in energy production and may not function properly. The cell could have reduced muscle contraction ability or undergo apoptosis due to lack of energy. Mitochondrial biogenesis can help increase the number of mitochondria to address this issue.
Explanation:If a muscle cell contains less mitochondria than needed during interphase of the cell cycle, it would likely experience a decrease in energy production. Mitochondria are responsible for producing ATP, the main energy currency of cells. Without enough mitochondria, the cell may struggle to meet its energy demands and may not function properly.
This could lead to various outcomes depending on the severity of the energy deficiency. The cell may have reduced muscle contraction ability, leading to issues with muscle function. It may also undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death) if it cannot sustain its essential processes due to lack of energy.
To address this issue, the cell may try to increase the number of mitochondria through mitochondrial biogenesis, a process that involves the replication and growth of existing mitochondria. This can happen in response to increased energy demands or as a result of specific stimuli.
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Match the following words with their meaning. Part A1. Typhus fever 2. strep throat 3. diarrhea 4. staph infections 5. tuberculosis 6. Lyme disease Part Ba. Rickettsia prawazekii b. Escherichia coli c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis e. Borrelia burgdorferi f. Staphylococcus aureus
Answer:
Typhus fever: Rickettsia prawazekii
strep throat: Streptococcus pyogenes
diarrhea: Escherichia coli
staph infections: Staphylococcus aureus
tuberculosis: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Lyme disease: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:
Typhus fever is a bacterial disease which spread through a vector usually lice. The epidemic thymus is caused by Rickettsia prawazekii.
Strep throat is caused by bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes which is a highly contagious bacterium.
E. coli O157: H7 is a virulent strain of Escherichia coli which is responsible for foodborne diseases and diarrhea.
Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for spreading staph infection. It can become dangerous if it gets into blood.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is responsible for causing tuberculosis. This bacteria usually affects the lungs but able to damage other body parts.
Borrelia burgdorferi bacteria is responsible for spreading Lyme disease. The bacteria is transmitted through a bite of blacked legged tick.
The oxidation of glucose in the presence of oxygen involves glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle). Some energy is captured in glycolysis when glucose is converted to pyruvate (pyruvic acid). In the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle), more energy is captured in the form of reduced electron carriers, NADH and FADH2.
Select the best explanation for why the eventual reoxidation of NADH and FADH2 is crucial for the continuation of the citric acid (Krebs) cycle.
Answer:
Option A, In order for the cycle to continue, oxidized electron carriers must be available.
Explanation:
Options for the given question are -
A) In order for the cycle to continue, oxidized electron carriers must be available.
B) Without oxidized electron carriers, oxygen will not accept the electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
C) Phosphate cannot attach to ADP to form ATP without oxidized electron carriers.
D) The presence of reduced forms of the electron carriers prevents the formation of ATP.
Solution -
Re-oxidized NADH and FADH2 donate their electron back to the electron transport chain (ETC) to produce oxidized ion NAD and FAD. These oxidized ions are very useful for running the process of glycolysis and citric acid cycle.
The electrons donated by NADH and FADH2 also assist the kerb’s cycle in driving hydrogen ion and hence produces ATP.
If the movement of electron through electron transport chain stops, pumping of protons into the matrix through the gradient will also stop and the ETC will come to halt .
Hence, option A is correct
Answer:
It is the first option, option A
What is the abbreviation that refers to a wear and tear disease caused by the breakdown and eventual destruction of cartilage in a joint, such as osteoarthritis?
Answer:ARAMIS
Explanation: The breakdown includes;
A-Arthritis
R-Rheumatism
A- Aging
M- Medical Information
S- System
During discharge patient teaching, the nurse reviews prescriptions with a patient. Which statement is correct about refills for an analgesic that is classified as Schedule C-III?a. No prescription refills are permitted.b. Refills are allowed only by written prescription.c. The patient may have no more than 5 refills in a 6-month period.d. Written prescriptions expire in 12 months.
Answer: is c. The patient may have no more than 5 refills in a 6-month period.
Explanation: Schedule C-III medications will not be refilled more than five times in 6 months period of time. Schedule 3 catogory of drugs may contain, valium, tranquillisers, anabolic steroids, testosterone, Tylenol, codeine and Ketamine. The reason behind why patient should not have more refills in a 6 month period of time is because by consuming these drugs patient may experience mild physical dependence or very high physiological dependence. Patient may experience addition (mild to high) while taking schedule C-III drugs. Although schedule C-III drugs are less abusive then schedule 1 and schedule 2 drugs. Schedule 3 drugs are declared as sightly dangerous.
For a Schedule C-III analgesic, the patient may have no more than 5 refills in a 6-month period according to federal guidelines. This regulation helps manage the safe use and limit potential misuse of these medications.
When discussing prescription refills for a Schedule C-III analgesic during discharge teaching, it is important to recognize the correct regulation. According to federal guidelines, Schedule C-III drugs may be refilled, but there are specific limitations.
No prescription refills are permitted for Schedule II drugs, not Schedule III.Refills do not need to be authorized by a new written prescription each time.The patient may have no more than 5 refills in a 6-month period. This is the correct regulation for Schedule III drugs. Written prescriptions for Schedule C-III drugs expire after 6 months, not 12 months as with some other medications.Therefore, the correct answer is c. The patient may have no more than 5 refills in a 6-month period.
This ensures that the patient adheres to the prescribed use and limits potential abuse or misuse of the medication.
What discoveries has space technology helped scientists with? (4 points) Allows scientists to ignore prior evidence when creating new theories Allowed scientists to determine exactly how extinct organisms died Allows scientists to find all of the fossils buried deep inside Earth Allowed scientists to better identify the location of fossils and change prior scientific knowledge
Answer:
The correct option is D) Allowed scientists to better identify the location of fossils and change prior scientific knowledge
Explanation:
It was very difficult for scientists to move to areas such as the Gobi to identify the fossils. The scientists knew that they could find fossils in that area but it was difficult to get on a road trip and move on lands such as the Gobi. To better get a knowledge about the fossils, NASA allows particular satellites to move in a circular orbit around the Earth. These satellites have specific radar systems which can determine the places most likely on Earth where fossils can be found.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Because the other ones are not true!
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In phase-contrast microscopy, the differences in refractive indices between organisms and their environments are utilized for better viewing of living specimens.
True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
In phase-contrast objective and a phase contrast optical systems is equipped with Light microscope .
Phase contrast microscope is used to differentiate unstained structures in a cell that differ in refractive indices and thickness. Thus it is usefull for examining living unstained organisms.
Light that passed through materials of different refractive index and/or thickness will undergo a change in Phase. The difference in phase or wave front irregularities cause variation in brightness of the structures.
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The statement about phase-contrast microscopy utilizing differences in refractive indices for better viewing of living specimens is true. It provides enhanced contrast by amplifying phase differences due to refractive index variations without staining the specimens.
The statement that in phase-contrast microscopy, the differences in refractive indices between organisms and their environments are utilized for better viewing of living specimens is True. The principle of the phase-contrast microscope harks back to the idea of refractive index. It details that cells have a different refractive index than their surroundings, which affects the phase of the light transmitted through them. This difference is subsequently amplified by a phase ring in a special phase objective, allowing the phase differences to be translated into differences in brightness, and thereby enhancing contrast without the need to stain the specimen.
This technology leverages wave interference and differences in phases, resulting in a dark image of the object amidst a bright background. Because of this, it becomes a most cost-effective tool for examining live, unfixed, and unstained specimens such as eukaryotic cells, showcasing organelles, and prokaryotic cells, visualizing endospores.
Production of PCBs was discontinued in 1977, yet PCBs are still found in the environment. The reason for this is PCBs are very reactive molecules. PCBs are very stable molecules. PCBs are imported from other countries where their production is not banned. PCBs are formed naturally by plants and_______
Answer:
PCBs are very stable molecules
Explanation:
PCBs are approximately 209 compounds made of chlorine. PCBs are formed synthetically.These compounds have high chemical and thermal stability so their chemical and biological physical degradation is very slow.
The years that these compounds can last are 2 weeks to 2 years in water, 6 years in the soil, and more than 10 years in fish.
PCBs are still found in the environment because they are extremely stable molecules that do not degrade easily and can bioaccumulate in organisms and soils.
Production of PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls) was discontinued in 1977, yet they are still found in the environment chiefly because PCBs are very stable molecules. These man-made organic compounds, consisting of carbon, hydrogen, and chlorine atoms, were used in a wide range of industrial and commercial applications due to their non-flammability, chemical stability, high boiling point, and electrical insulating properties. Despite their ban, PCBs persist in the environment because they do not easily break down and can both bioaccumulate in wildlife and be found in soils and sediments, even long after production has ceased.
PCBs' chemical stability means that instead of reacting and breaking down, they remain intact and accumulate over time. This is why higher concentrations can be found in predatory fish, and why they have been observed in remote regions like the Arctic, where they condense onto the soil from the atmosphere. Health effects associated with PCB exposure are numerous and can include complications in physical and neurological development, potential carcinogenesis, and effects on immune, reproductive, nervous, and endocrine systems.
When 2 or more plant proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called ________.a. nonessential proteinsb. complementary proteinsc. conditional proteinsd. corrected proteins
Answer:
b. complementary proteins
Explanation:
Complementary proteins are proteins that contain all adequate amounts of the essential amino acids when two or more protein sources that are deficient or low in some amino acids are combined together to compensate for the deficiency of the other. The protein sources can be eaten together in a meal or consumed the same day to get a complete protein.
For example, grains are deficient in lysine, while legumes are usually deficient in methionine. Combination of rice which is a grain, together with beans which is a legume, would give us complementary protein diet, making it a complete protein source with all adequate essential amino acids available.
Two or more plant proteins that are combined to provide all essential amino acids are known as complementary proteins.
Explanation:When 2 or more plant proteins are combined to compensate for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called complementary proteins. These proteins, when eaten together or throughout the day, can provide a balance of essential amino acids that the body cannot produce on its own. For example, a grain low in lysine can be complemented by a legume low in methionine, forming a complete protein when consumed together, similar to completing a puzzle with missing pieces. Vegans, who exclusively eat plant-based foods, need to combine different plant proteins to ensure they receive all essential amino acids since individual plant proteins typically do not contain them all.
Euhadra is a species of Japanese land snail in which some have left handed spirals and some have right handed spirals. Snails with right hand shells cannot physically mate with left hand shell snails. Which is the best hypothesis for an isolating barrier between right and left handed species.a. geographical isolationb. temporal isolationc. behavioral isolationd. mechanical isolatione. gametic isolation
Answer:
d. mechanical isolation
Explanation:
Mechanical isolation is a prezygotic barrier in which there is a physical barrier that prevents two populations of a species from mating successfully as a result of morphological differences.
This reproductive isolation can be seen in the Euhadra species of Japanese land snail, where snails with right hand shells and left hand shells are unable to physically corpulate successfully.
While writing your lecture notes, you are trying to develop a way to impart to your students how the removal of a water molecule, a hydroxyl and a hydrogen atom, will be used in making macromolecules. A molecule is a collection of atoms joined through different types of bonds. A macromolecule is the joining of numerous molecules into something that is relatively quite large. The addition of a molecule to a macromolecule, as well as the removal of a molecule from the macromolecule, involves a molecule of water. From past experience you are aware that when you state this to your students many will unfortunately assume you are referring to liquid water. Your students must understand that in biological reactions water, H2O, is actually a hydroxyl group (-OH) and a hydrogen atom (H+) that will be removed or added when altering macromolecules. A dehydration synthesis (removal of water) reforms atomic bonds between molecules to create a larger macromolecule. In a dehydration reaction, a hydroxyl group is removed from one reactant molecule while a hydrogen atom is stripped from another reactant molecule.
Answer:
yes boy
Explanation: yhyhyh
Sickle-cell anemia, in which the red blood cells cannot carry ______ properly and die quickly, occurs most often in African Americans.
Answer:
Oxygen-rich blood
Explanation:
Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic blood disorder in which the red blood cells cannot properly transport oxygen rich blood. The life span of normal red blood cells is 20 days but that of sickle red blood cells is 20days so they die quickly
An older adult client presents to the clinic just not ""feeling well."" Which bone marrow results would confirm the diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
Answer: Bone marrow aspiration and biopsy
Explanation: Are done to get bone marrow samples for testing. They're usually done together. The samples are usually taken from the back of the pelvic (hip) bone, but sometimes they may be taken from other bones.
For a bone marrow aspiration, you lie on a table (either on your side or on your belly). After cleaning the skin over your hip, the doctor uses a long thin needle to put in a drug that numbs the area and the surface of the bone. This may cause brief stinging or burning. A hollow needle is then put into the bone, and a syringe is used to suck out a small amount (about 1 teaspoon) of the thick, liquid bone marrow. Even with the numbing medicine, most people still have some brief pain when the marrow is removed.
What is the function of proteins and carbohydrates that are embedded in a cell membrane? They help control what enters and leaves the cell. They direct the reproduction process for the cell. They act as storage molecules for water. They provide nutrients that the cell needs.
Answer: They help control what enters and leaves the cell.
Explanation: carbohydrates also help the immune system identify if the cell is foreign or not.
A 1-month-old boy has a fever to 102.7°F (39.3°C), is irritable, has diarrhea, and has not been eating well. On examination he has an immobile red TM that has pus behind it. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?A. Admission to the hospital with complete evaluation.B. Intramuscular ceftriaxone and close outpatient follow-upC. Oral amoxicillin-clavulanate.D. Oral cefuroximeE. High-dose oral amoxicillin
Answer: E. High-dose oral amoxicillin is the appropriate therapy.
Explanation:
The pathology described is a case of Acute Otitis Media(AOM).
AOM is a common childhood disorder caused mainly by bacterial organisms.
The treatment of AOM is as follows:
1. “Watchful waiting” period of a few days may be indicated since many AOM cases self-resolve.
2. Should antibiotics be deemed necessary and depending on a community’s bacterial resistance patterns, amoxicillin at doses up to 80 to 90 mg/kg/d for 7 to 10 days is often the initial treatment. If clinical failure is noted after 3 treatment days, a change to amoxicillin-clavulanate, cefuroxime axetil, azithromycin, cefixime, ceftriaxone, or tympanocentesis is considered.
Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce:_______. a. exotoxins. b. endotoxins. c. interferons. d. cytokines. e. leukocidins.
Answer:
Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce cytokines.
Explanation:
Superantigens are a group of bifunctional proteins that interact with at least two receptors expressed on different cells. The superantigen´s receptors in lymphocyte T is located in the same place where the lymphocyte interacts with a conventional antigen, RCT. The capability of these superantigens to join their receptors in many T cells, shoots a series of processes that conduce to cellular activation, differentiation, proliferation, and great production and release of cytokine.
Superantigens constitute the most potent natural immunostimulators known.
Which of the following is not an independent cellular organism, but rather a collection of contained genetic material that transmits information to a host cell?
a. Virus
b. Fungus
c. Protozoan
d. Bacterium