Answer:
Because oxygen is the combustion fuel and glucose is the substrate needed for synthesis of energy as ATPs during cellular respiration.Therefore Guillermo lacks enough energy as ATPs in her body cells, especially skeletal muscles cells to complete the task of ascending the s steps.
For all the mitochondrial in cells(sites of energy production) to receive needed glucose,and other metabolites needed for energy synthesis; an efficient transport system is needed, so that these materials are available immediately, in required amount. This system is called circulatory system.
And for the the supply of combustion fuel (oxygen) needed for the completion of the ATP synthesis mechanisms; respiratory systems which convey oxygen from the external environments to the circulatory system through breathing mechanisms, for distribution is needed.
Therefore in order for the available glucose, oxygen , co-factors, and enzymes, needed for complete synthesis of ATPs to be used efficiently for energy synthesis, a step-wise , metabolic reactions is needed in the cells called cellular respiration( respiratory system).
Thus the doctor needs to test both the circulatory and respiratory systems.
Explanation:
Respiration is defined as the breakdown of molecules in the presence of oxygen to get energy. The breakdown of the larger molecule into a smaller molecule is called digestion and that molecule is used to get the energy.
The molecule which is used to obtain the energy is:-
ATPThe human body performs aerobic respiration. It uses oxygen to oxidize the substrate and get energy. Oxygen helps to breakdowns the molecule and form ATP the energy currency.
Guillermo cell does not use enough oxygen to break down the molecule and hence the ATP formed is very less.
The doctor needs to check the digestive system of the Guillermo and the respiratory tract.
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Teachers discuss a new child's situation and needs before s/he joins the group, and prepare materials and strategies to ensure _______.
Answer: I'm not quite sure, but my best guess is autonomy.
According to Freud, a lasting conflict that develops as the result of excessive frustration or gratification at a particular stage of development is called a(n) ________.
According to Freud, a lasting conflict that develops as the result of excessive frustration or gratification at a particular stage of development is called a Fixation.
Explanation:
Fixation is the word which is used in many sectors to represent a single meaning which is "to joint". In health the sector if a bone got fractured than the joints of bone are combined by plastering to fix the bones together. In social life if two parties or more than two are having conflict regarding any common matter, after a day or days long conversations or conflicts some common decision is taken to fix the issue occurring between them.
can someone plz help me w my recent? (jus click my pfp to see my questions)
Answer:
Yes let me take a look.
Explanation:
Answer:
Give me a picture.
Explanation:
In hemolytic disease of the newborn:________ 1. antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and affect the fetus. 2. the mother frequently dies during childbirth. 3. antibodies from the fetus cross the placenta and affect the mother. 4. hemolysis of white blood cells may occur. 5. fibrin is hydrolyzed.
Answer:
1. antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and affect the fetus.
Explanation:
The hemolysis disease of the newborn occurs when a mother with Rh-negative conceives a baby whit an Rh-positive father triggering an immunological reaction in the baby if he/she inherits the Rh-positive factor from the father, the problem can develop if the baby´s red blood cells cross to the Rh-negative mother, the mother´s immune system sees the baby´s Rh-positive red blood cells as foreign and start to fight and destroy, as the moither´s antibodies destroy the red blood cells the baby becomes sick.
The nurse is instructing a patient regarding self-management of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The patient has gastric ulceration as a comorbid condition. Which statement by the patient needs correction?
Answer:
Electrolyte solutions should be taken during meals, because it dilutes the solution by allowing it to mix with the food, which prevents irritation and damage to the gastrointestinal tract. Administration of demeclocycline blocks the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the renal tubules, resulting in more dilute urine. Chewing sugarless gum and ice chips decreases thirst. Diluting the electrolyte solution before administration prevents gastrointestinal damage.
Explanation:
Completed Ques;
1.
"I should take demeclocycline as prescribed."
2
"I should chew sugarless gum and ice chips."
3
"I should drink the electrolyte solution after meals."
4
"I should dilute the electrolyte solution before administration.
Answer:
"I should drink the electrolyte solution after meals
Explanation:
SIADH is due to release of large concentration of hormone ADH into the blood streams, resulting in over re-absorption of ''free fluid''( that is without dissolved solutes) from the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules into the blood. This raises the water potential of the blood,diluting it, and therefore depleting it of needed minerals, especially sodium .
To make up for the depleted minerals especially sodium, electrolyte fluids should be administered. However,because of gastric ulcer co- morbidity, when electrolyte fluid is taken directly or after meals; it interacts with the stomach epithelial cells. Specifically,Potassium causes irritation of stomach linings, bloating, nausea, vomiting,and other complications which may aggravate the ulceration.
Therefore the patient need to be corrected that, the electrolyte fluid should be taken within meals so that as it mixed with the food, it reduces direct effects and reaction( as listed above) of the electrolytes e.g potassium and other ions on the stomach linings, which may aggravate the ulceration.
In what ways do our early caregivers influence our habits of thought, emotion, and behavior?
Answer:
yes and no
Explanation:
they do because the make sure you act great infront of other people and no because youre actions are not there's
Early caregivers influence habits of thought, emotion, and behavior through attachment styles and parenting practices.
Early caregivers play a significant role in shaping individuals' habits of thought, emotion, and behavior through the establishment of secure attachment styles.
Attachment Theory suggests that the care received in infancy influences future intimate relationships.
Research indicates that parenting practices impact social, emotional, intellectual development, and behavioral health during the early years.
Therefore, early caregivers shape thoughts, emotions, and behaviors through attachment styles and parenting practices during formative years, influencing later relationships and personal development.
Andrew is an alcoholic and wants to stop drinking. His therapist asks him to take a pill that makes him nauseous every time he drinks alcohol. He does this for 1 month, throwing up every time he drinks with the pill. After 1 month, his therapist asks him to stop taking the pills. Andrew throws up when he takes his first drink without the pill and loses his desire to drink alcohol. What behavioristic strategy did his therapist use
Answer:
Classical Conditioning
Managers use a0 of there organization to help them plan and implement programs in their communities
Answer: Manager use "the structure" to plan and implement programs.
Explanation:
As a manager, it is their job to make sure everything runs smoothly. When a business contributes to the community the manager is put in charge of fundraisers, sponsoring school games, and/or helping families in community.
Using structure will help everything get done in a timely manner without hitting any snags or issues. If something does arise the manager will have the resources and knowledge to fix it in a timely manner.
Managers will work with other people in the community such as local business owners, teachers, parents, social workers, and law enforcement. The manager will be expected to attend community meetings so they can meet the people of the town and get to know them.
Darcy issitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heartbegins racing rapidly, and she experiences dulled vision and hearing, rapidbreathing, and sweating. She thinks she is having a heart attack. Nothing sheis doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms MOST resemble ______.
Answer:panic attack
Explanation:panic attack is a sudden intense fear,that can cause physical reaction. When panic attack happens,one may feel like they are having heart attack,going crazy or even dying. It happens without warning, and most often without clear trigger.
Symptoms includes
Heart racing
Shortness of breath
Sweating
Sudden intense fear
Chills
Hot flashes
Chest pain
The HPA axis explanation states that short term stress can be beneficial. However, prolonged exposure to stress results in the HPA axis remaining active. This can be unhealthy because ________.
Answer:
Prolong exposure to stress causes a continuous production of cortisol, which can lead to depression and fatigue.
Explanation:
HPA axis is the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis. HPA axis is often taken as a body;s stress system, which controls the amount of cortisol and other stress hormones.
Prolong exposure to stress, increases the cortisol production in body. Prolong stress can also cause certain changes to the neurons located in paraventricular nucleus, ultimately resulting in sustained activation of the axis. Long term activation of the axis causes negative feedback mechanism and ultimately causes fatigue, exhaustion, headache and depression etc.
Final answer:
Prolonged stress keeps the HPA axis active, resulting in continuous secretion of cortisol, which can lead to fatigue, depression, weakened immune system, and increased risk of heart disease.
Explanation:
The HPA axis explanation states that short-term stress can be beneficial because it helps us respond to potentially dangerous events by activating the HPA axis, which leads to the secretion of epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol. However, this can be unhealthy because prolonged exposure to stress results in the HPA axis remaining active, which continues the production of cortisol. This increased cortisol production can exhaust the stress response system, leading to negative health consequences like fatigue and depression, as well as impaired attention, memory, and self-control. Additionally, chronic stress can weaken the immune system and increase the risk of heart disease due to long-term cortisol exposure, which can cause structural and functional changes in the body.
You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered
A RUQ ultrasound has been ordered on a 63 year old male for abdominal pain and a palpable epigastric lesion felt on clinical exam. The patient states that he has had weight loss but he has being trying to lose a few pounds. As you are scanning the liver, you document an enlarged CBD. You following the CBD and acquire the image above. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Cancer
Explanation: An enlarged CBD could mean alot of things for a patient of this age. What we need to consider in this case is the age and symptoms the patient exhibits. Weight loss and the abdominal pain are key here. Considering and enlarged CBD which is central to Bile which burns fat in our bodies, we need to run tests to see why the blockage which causes the duct to enlarge is present in the patients body. Check for inflamation and possibly carry out a biopsy of the liquid in the duct. Of course, Cancer is the big one here, but it could also be several factors, like Hepatitis, Gall stones and inflamation due to the blockage in the duct which means the liver is at risk.
The most likely diagnosis in this case is a choledochal cyst, which is a rare congenital abnormality causing dilation of the bile duct. A RUQ ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis by visualizing the enlarged common bile duct.
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis in this case would be a choledochal cyst.
A choledochal cyst is a rare congenital abnormality in which the bile duct becomes dilated due to an obstruction or abnormal connection. This can lead to an enlarged common bile duct (CBD) and can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and a palpable epigastric lesion.
A RUQ ultrasound is an imaging test commonly used to diagnose choledochal cysts. It helps visualize the dilation of the CBD and any associated complications.
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An 85-year-old client residing in a nursing home reports to the LPN/LVN that even though he is eating an adequate, well-balanced diet and frequently drinks fluids, he continues to lose weight. Which of the following responses by the LPN/LVN is BEST?
a. "You may need to increase your fluid intake."
b. "Due to age, you have decreased function of the gastrointestinal tract."
c. "You are not eating enough food to maintain your weight."
d. "You need to completely chew your food before swallowing it."
Answer:
Option b. "Due to age, you have decreased function of the gastrointestinal tract."
Explanation:
As we begin to age or grow older as human beings, this tends to have an effect on the way gastrointestinal tract works or functions.
In older people the rate of digestion of foods tends to happen very slowly. The food moves slowly in the digestive system.
There is a reduced production in older people of enzymes required to react with the various classes of food been consumed thereby resulting in a poor or reduced production and absorption of the essential nutrients required by the body in other . This could lead to loss in weight in older people.
Examples from your book describing real experiences of how memories, even ones from a long time ago, can be stimulated by locations, songs, and smells highlight the importance of ___________ __________in long-term memory.
Answer:
The correct answer is Retrieval cues.
Explanation:
Retrieval is a procedure of accessing some information which is kept in long-term memory. Through this process, we are bringing those memories out of the storage box and becoming consciously aware of them.
Retrieval cues evoke in memory retrieval. This enables the human to recall long-term memory quickly and easily. These stimulus bring your memory to your conscious.
The importance of encoding specificity in long-term memory is highlighted through real-world examples like locations, songs, and smells triggering vivid memories. This principle explains why sensory inputs closely associated with a memory can effectively trigger its recall.
Examples from your book describing real experiences of how memories, even ones from a long time ago, can be stimulated by locations, songs, and smells highlight the importance of encoding specificity in long-term memory. The encoding specificity principle, a key concept in understanding memory recall, emphasizes how information is encoded into memory along with specific details about the context or the emotional state at the time. This means that our ability to recall a memory is greatly enhanced when the retrieval cues present at the time of remembering closely match those present at the time of encoding. For instance, hearing a song that was playing during a significant event in our lives can trigger vivid memories of that event, thanks to the strong association between the sensory input (the song) and the memory itself.
A classic experiment demonstrating this principle involved participants memorizing words in a unique setting; those who were later tested on the word sets in the same location showed significantly better recall. This illustrates how physical context can serve as a powerful retrieval cue. Similarly, specific scents can evoke detailed memories due to their unique and specific nature, making them effective triggers for recall. Understanding the encoding specificity principle helps explain why techniques like the method of loci, which involve associating information to specific locations, are so effective for memory recall.
Elaine has episodes of mania that alternate with episodes of depression. These episodes occur regularly. For Elaine's disorder to be considered rapid cycling, she must have _____ episodes of mania within a year.
Answer:
For Elaine's disorder to be considered rapid cycling, she must have ‘four or more ‘episodes of mania within a year.
Explanation:
Rapid cycling is a term used when a person with bipolar disorder experiences four or more mood swings (episodes) within a twelve-month period. An episode may consist of depression, mania, hypomania, or a condition known as a mixed state in which depression and mania are co-occurring.
A person filled with grandiose self-esteem, displaying rapid speech and impulsive behaviors, and showing an elevated, expansive, or irritable mood for at least one week is exhibiting symptoms of
Answer:
Symptoms of Mania
Explanation:
Mania can be described as an abnormally elevated mood state characterized by such symptoms as inappropriate elation, increased irritability, severe insomnia, grandiose notions, increased speed and/or volume of speech, disconnected and racing thoughts, increased sexual desire, markedly increased energy and activity level, poor judgment, and inappropriate social behavior.
Answer:
Mania
Explanation:
Mania can also be Called Manic syndrome.It is usually associated with bipolar disorder. It is an unusual increase in the state of the mood of an individual. It can be caused by stress and drugs. Symptoms such as elevated sexual desire,energy, speech speed and unsuitable irritability are common.
As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE ______ manner.
Answer:
As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE emotional manner.
Explanation:
Bipolar disorder causes:
Dramatic mood swings (from overly "high" and/or irritable to sad and then back again often with periods of normal mood in between)Severe Changes in energy and behaviour go along with these changes in mood.The periods of highs and lows are called episodes of mania and depressionHence, As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE emotional manner
Hannah will be traveling to Mexico with her church group over spring break to build houses. She is concerned she may develop traveler's diarrhea. Advice includes following normal food and water precautions as well as taking:________.1. Loperamide four times a day throughout the trip2. Bismuth subsalicylate with each meal and at bedtime3. A prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine to use if she gets diarrhea4. None of the above
Answer:
3. A prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine to use if she gets diarrhea
A police officer asks residents to clean up litter, remove graffiti, and install better lighting in a nearby park that is known for extensive drug dealing. Such a request is characteristic of what type of policing
Answer:
problem-solving
Explanation:
Problem oriented policing is a policing approach that is very of a proactive. Here police officers develop strategies that focuses on preventing crime by working with the residents of a particular neighbourhood using not just traditional approach but any other approach in order to effect an effective policing.
A police officer asks residents to clean up litter, remove graffiti, and install better lighting in a nearby park that is known for extensive drug dealing is a typical approach of problem oriented policing.
The type of policing that involves residents in cleaning and maintaining their neighborhood to reduce crime is known as community policing and is related to the broken windows theory. It also aligns with zero-tolerance policies, although those have been subject to controversy due to potential negative impacts on marginalized communities.
Explanation:A police officer asking residents to clean up litter, remove graffiti, and install better lighting in a nearby park to deter drug dealing is characteristic of community policing strategies aimed at reducing crime through environmental design and local engagement. This approach is in line with the broken windows theory, which maintains that visible signs of disorder and neglect result in an increase in crime.
Maintaining a clean and orderly environment through the removal of graffiti, litter, and the addition of better lighting can lead to positive spillovers such as higher property values, lower crime rates, and happier residents.
Advocates of this strategy, as well as of more controversial zero-tolerance policing, believe that such measures are effective in reducing crime. However, critics point out that they can also lead to negative consequences, such as the displacement of vulnerable populations and allegations of police harassment in communities of color.
In what chambers of the heart does pulmonary circulation begin and end
Pulmonary circulation begins in the right atrium and ends in the left atrium of the heart.
Explanation:Pulmonary circulation begins in the right atrium of the heart and ends in the left atrium. It involves the flow of blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation, and then back to the left atrium of the heart.
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Pulmonary circulation begins in the right ventricle of the heart and ends in the left atrium. This process is essential for oxygenating blood before it is distributed throughout the body.
Pulmonary Circulation in the Heart
Pulmonary circulation is a crucial component of the cardiovascular system, responsible for oxygenating blood. Here are the chambers of the heart where pulmonary circulation begins and ends:
Right Ventricle: The process begins here, where deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary arteries and transported to the lungs.Left Atrium: The process ends here, as oxygenated blood returns from the lungs via the pulmonary veins and is pumped into the left ventricle to be distributed to the rest of the body.This circulation ensures that blood is well-oxygenated before it's circulated through the body, playing an essential role in maintaining overall health.
Minority groups such as women, people of color, people with disabilities, and LGBT individuals are often treated unfairly due to their race, gender, sexual orientation, and/or physical and mental abilities. They are experiencing ______.
Answer:
discrimination
Explanation:
Minority groups such as women, people of color, people with disabilities, and LGBT individuals are experiencing discrimination due to their race, gender, sexual orientation, and/or physical and mental abilities.
Explanation:Minority groups such as women, people of color, people with disabilities, and LGBT individuals are often treated unfairly due to their race, gender, sexual orientation, and/or physical and mental abilities. They are experiencing discrimination. Discrimination is characterized by unequal treatment, subordination, and limitations imposed on individuals or groups based on their race, gender, or other protected characteristics.
This discrimination can manifest in various forms, such as hate crimes, unequal access to opportunities, and prejudicial attitudes and behaviors. For example, LGBTQ individuals may face discrimination in healthcare, which can lead to negative health outcomes. It is important to address and challenge discriminatory practices and promote equality and inclusivity.
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In an experiment, hypnotized subjects are told to scratch their ear if they hear the word "psychology" mentioned later. The fact that they do so only if they think the experiment is still under way most clearly supports the theory that hypnosis involves:a. dissociation.
b. neuroadaptation.
c. role playing.
d. hypnagogic sensations.
Answer:
The correct answer is C. Role Playing.
Explanation:
Role Playing in psychology is used to enhance certain skills to handle difficult situations. In other words, role playing can be defined as changing one's behavior to adapt to a new role.
This theory was first introduced in 1941 by RW White. This man said that hypnosis is basically like a role that people are playing i.e. they are acting if they are being hypnotized.
The new graduate nurse on the neurology unit reviews plans for caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure secondary to supratentorial surgery/head injury. Which of the following statements by the new graduate nurse requires correction by the preceptor?1. "I will give the patient a cold sponge bath if a fever occurs"2. "I will do as many procedures close together as I can."3. "I will hyperventilate the patient before and after suctioning"4. "I will be sure to keep the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees."
Answer:
2. "I will do as many procedures close together as I can
Explanation:
She requires correction of this statement because the treatment to be followed is not immediate but requires a follow-up of approximately 2 days, although she must take into account that the patient should be treated lightly in intensive care since she needs to perform several procedures but cannot be immediately subsequent as
1. Respiratory support
2. Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid
3. supply of
medications to reduce swelling.
4. Removal of part of the skull, especially in the first 2 days
The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?A. Fixator strength.B. Antagonist muscle strength.C. Prime mover strength.D. Neutralizer strength.
Answer:
The correct answer would be Prime Mover strength
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The nurse is working for a hospital that holds an agreement with a local organ procurement organization (OPO). The patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3 and discussions have been held with the family about withdrawing life support. Which statement by the nurse best describes requirements that must be met to sustain Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Conditions of Participation?
a.
"I need to notify TransLife (OPO) of my patient's impending death."
b.
"I will contact the physician to obtain informed consent for organ donation."
c.
"The charge nurse will notify TransLife (OPO) once the patient has been pronounced brain dead."
d.
"I need the physician to evaluate my patient's suitability for organ donation."
Answer:
d. I need the physician to evaluate my patient's suitability for organ donation.
Explanation:
Every patient that needs to donate organ needs to undergo series of evaluation test to determine the suitability of the patient's health towards the organs to be harvested. The healther the organ the better for it to be used for donation to a patient on the waiting list.
It is the duty of the nurse working in the hospital to ensure that the patient is suitable for organ donation before contacting the organ procurement organization (OPO) which his hosptial has an agreement with. The nurse can only do this through reaching out to the hosptal physicians for the patient's evaluation.
A client reports bright red, painless vaginal bleeding during her 32nd week of pregnancy. A sonogram reveals that the placenta has implanted low in the uterus and is partially covering the cervical os. Which immediate care measures are initiated?
The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
A client reports to her obstetrician a significant amount of bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. A sonogram reveals that her placenta has implanted low in the uterus and is partially covering the cervical os. Which immediate care measures should the nurse initiate? Select all that apply.
a) Attach external monitoring equipment to record fetal heart sounds.
b) Perform a pelvic examination.
c) Obtain baseline vital signs.
d) Place the woman on bed rest in a side-lying position.
e) Continue to assess blood pressure every 5 to 15 minutes.
f) Determine from the client the time the bleeding began and about how much blood has been lost.
Answer:
Option (a), (c), (d), (e) and (f).
Explanation:
The placenta is the important tissue that connects the mother and fetus. The placenta helps in the exchange of material like food, gases and excretory substance.
As the information in the question, the pelvic examination should not be done because this might cause injury in placenta and cause hemorrhage. This can cause problem to both the mother and the baby. All the other options are appropriate to provide immediate care in the given situation.
Thus, the answer is option (a), (c), (d), (e) and (f).
The national High Blood Pressure Education Program classification system for blood pressure of adults 18 years of age and older has various categories, including normal, pre-hypertension, and hypertension; which values are the minimum levels for stage 1 of hypertension?
Answer:
stage 1 of hypertension:
systolic: 130 - 139
diastolic: 80 - 89
Explanation:
According to the American heart association guide 2017 Blood Pressure Classification in Young Adults the systolic blood pressure (SBP) 130–139 mmHg and the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) 80–89 mmHg)
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write in your own words please
Describe 2 steps for warming up and 2 steps for cooling down.
Warming up and Cooling down steps
Explanation:
Warming up exercises prepares the body for strenuous physical activities. These increase the body flexibility, reduces injury risk and pain, increases oxygen intake and good blood flow, improved range of motion, reduces muscular tension.
The basic steps involved in warming are: Loosening of joints, stretching the muscles, pumping the heart, and practice movements.
Loosening joints warms up and mobilizes the joints and include upper and lower body rotations. Upper body rotations include slow and controlled circling repetitive motions of the joints like wrists, elbows, and shoulder. Lower body rotations include leg balancing and rotation of knee and ankle joints in controlled repetitions. Stretching exercises of muscles, especially the dynamic stretches warms up the muscles and increases the flexibility. Sequential repetitive stretching targeting all body parts from head to toe should be done. Neck rolls, arm swings, side bends, rocking horse, lunges, leg swings etc are various types of warm up stretches.Cooling down exercises brings back the body to its normal condition (reduces heart rate, muscle strain etc) after a strenuous exercise activity. These involve mainly cool stretches and slow movements like walking.
A slow leisure walking is the best cool down exercise to relax the body and mind Cool down stretches are static stretches like stretching of legs, chest, arms, and core of the body to relax the strained muscles of the body after a rigorous exercise session.Sams, Hari, Rif, and Knuutila (1993) performed a neuroscience experiment that employed event-related potential (ERP) recording and determined that the length of _____ memory can be up to 10 seconds long.
Answer: Echic nemory
Explanation:
Echoic memory, or auditory sensory memory, is a type of memory that stores audio information (sound).
It’s a subcategory of human memory, which can be divided into three major categories:
-Long-term memory retains events, facts, and skills. It can last for hours to decades.
-Short-term memory stores information you recently received. It lasts for a few seconds to 1 minute.
-Sensory memory, also called the sensory register, holds information from the senses. It can be further broken down into three types:
Iconic memory, or visual sensory memory, handles visual information.
Haptic memory retains information from your sense of touch.
Echoic memory holds audio information from your sense of hearing.
The purpose of echoic memory is to store audio information as the brain processes the sound. It also holds bits of audio information, which gives meaning to the overall sound.
An individual arrives late at a meeting. Which explanation for being tracy is c/w self-serving bias? The individual will attribute being late to: A. An uncontrollable personality trait B. A situational variable C. A controllable personality trait. D. A stable variable
Answer:
B. A situational variable
Explanation:
Self service bias is a tendency in which individuals attribute positive things and tendencies to themselves but often attribute negative things to situations.
In the light of the above definition siting a situational variable as the cause of coming late is a typical example of self servicing bias.