For individuals with cancer who are undergoing chemotherapy, bone marrow suppression places these individuals at risk for life-threatening infections. What is the most common cause of these infections?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Overgrowth of the client's own normal flora.

Explanation:

The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is overgrowth of their own normal flora. Hand hygiene, careful preparation of food, and avoiding exposure to individuals harboring an infection help to decrease the risks secondary to external organisms. These actions however, do not affect the risk of normal flora overgrowth.

Bacterial overgrowth syndrome (BOS) is a term that describes clinical manifestations that occur when the normally low number of bacteria that inhabit the stomach, duodenum, jejunum, and proximal ileum significantly increases or becomes overtaken by other pathogens.

Answer 2

Aplastic anemia.  

The bone marrow failure syndromes comprise a group of disorders than can be either inherited or acquired. These diseases are intrinsic disorders of the bone marrow involving disruption in the homeostasis and function of hematopoietic stem cells, resulting in inadequate production of either a single or multiple cell lines (erythroid for red cells, myeloid for white blood cells, megakaryocytic for platelets). The most common cause of life-threatening infections in individuals with bone marrow suppression is aplastic anemia and overgrowth of their own normal flora.

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Related Questions

Darcy issitting at her desk in her office one day when, without warning, her heartbegins racing rapidly, and she experiences dulled vision and hearing, rapidbreathing, and sweating. She thinks she is having a heart attack. Nothing sheis doing seems to have caused such an episode. Her symptoms MOST resemble ______.

Answers

Answer:panic attack

Explanation:panic attack is a sudden intense fear,that can cause physical reaction. When panic attack happens,one may feel like they are having heart attack,going crazy or even dying. It happens without warning, and most often without clear trigger.

Symptoms includes

Heart racing

Shortness of breath

Sweating

Sudden intense fear

Chills

Hot flashes

Chest pain

Hannah will be traveling to Mexico with her church group over spring break to build houses. She is concerned she may develop traveler's diarrhea. Advice includes following normal food and water precautions as well as taking:________.1. Loperamide four times a day throughout the trip2. Bismuth subsalicylate with each meal and at bedtime3. A prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine to use if she gets diarrhea4. None of the above

Answers

Answer:

3. A prescription for diphenoxylate with atropine to use if she gets diarrhea

A person filled with grandiose self-esteem, displaying rapid speech and impulsive behaviors, and showing an elevated, expansive, or irritable mood for at least one week is exhibiting symptoms of

Answers

Answer:

Symptoms of Mania

Explanation:

Mania can be described as an abnormally elevated mood state characterized by such symptoms as inappropriate elation, increased irritability, severe insomnia, grandiose notions, increased speed and/or volume of speech, disconnected and racing thoughts, increased sexual desire, markedly increased energy and activity level, poor judgment, and inappropriate social behavior.

Answer:

Mania

Explanation:

Mania can also be Called Manic syndrome.It is usually associated with bipolar disorder. It is an unusual increase in the state of the mood of an individual. It can be caused by stress and drugs. Symptoms such as elevated sexual desire,energy, speech speed and unsuitable irritability are common.

A client reports bright red, painless vaginal bleeding during her 32nd week of pregnancy. A sonogram reveals that the placenta has implanted low in the uterus and is partially covering the cervical os. Which immediate care measures are initiated?

Answers

The question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:

A client reports to her obstetrician a significant amount of bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. A sonogram reveals that her placenta has implanted low in the uterus and is partially covering the cervical os. Which immediate care measures should the nurse initiate? Select all that apply.

a) Attach external monitoring equipment to record fetal heart sounds.

b) Perform a pelvic examination.

c) Obtain baseline vital signs.

d) Place the woman on bed rest in a side-lying position.

e) Continue to assess blood pressure every 5 to 15 minutes.

f) Determine from the client the time the bleeding began and about how much blood has been lost.

Answer:

Option (a), (c), (d), (e) and (f).

Explanation:

The placenta is the important tissue that connects the mother and fetus. The placenta helps in the exchange of material like food, gases and excretory substance.

As the information in the question, the pelvic examination should not be done because this might cause injury in placenta and cause hemorrhage. This can cause problem to both the mother and the baby. All the other options are appropriate to provide immediate care in the given situation.

Thus, the answer is option (a), (c), (d), (e) and (f).

what's the meaning of "we grieve the way we are"?

Answers

Answer:

"We grieve the way we are" refers to how humans naturally shed tears and want comfort when tragedies happen. It is a part of human nature in order to overcome the challenges that they face in this world.

Explanation:

The question above is related to a letter written by Hugo Mendoza's mother on his passing. For the mother, grieving over Hugo is normal since that time shall also pass. According to her, the Lord gives everyone the chance to cry and the time to heal. Her letter shows how much love he had for Hugo and how his passing brought her back to the Lord. It is also evident on how proud she was on him as a hero of America.

So, this explains the answer.

Sams, Hari, Rif, and Knuutila (1993) performed a neuroscience experiment that employed event-related potential (ERP) recording and determined that the length of _____ memory can be up to 10 seconds long.

Answers

Answer: Echic nemory

Explanation:

Echoic memory, or auditory sensory memory, is a type of memory that stores audio information (sound).

It’s a subcategory of human memory, which can be divided into three major categories:

-Long-term memory retains events, facts, and skills. It can last for hours to decades.

-Short-term memory stores information you recently received. It lasts for a few seconds to 1 minute.

-Sensory memory, also called the sensory register, holds information from the senses. It can be further broken down into three types:

Iconic memory, or visual sensory memory, handles visual information.

Haptic memory retains information from your sense of touch.

Echoic memory holds audio information from your sense of hearing.

The purpose of echoic memory is to store audio information as the brain processes the sound. It also holds bits of audio information, which gives meaning to the overall sound.

You are a manager in a shipping organization. Which set of behaviors would best match your goal to demonstrate both Initiating Structure and Consideration?

Answers

Answer:

Setting challenging goals and celebrating holidays

Explanation:

Research has shown that teams who set goals obtain 20–25% improved work performance! In addition to improving their performance, people who set goals have more self-confidence, are less stressed and are happier and more productive at work.

Recognition isn’t just about implementing employee programs or distributing expensive gifts, it's about bringing out the best in people and improving your company’s bottom line. Increasingly so, employees expect their workplace to deliver a productive, engaging, enjoyable experience.

Examples from your book describing real experiences of how memories, even ones from a long time ago, can be stimulated by locations, songs, and smells highlight the importance of ___________ __________in long-term memory.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is Retrieval cues.

Explanation:

Retrieval is a procedure of accessing some information which is kept in long-term memory. Through this process, we are bringing those memories out of the storage box and becoming consciously aware of them.

Retrieval cues evoke in memory retrieval. This enables the human to recall long-term memory quickly and easily. These stimulus bring your memory to your conscious.

The importance of encoding specificity in long-term memory is highlighted through real-world examples like locations, songs, and smells triggering vivid memories. This principle explains why sensory inputs closely associated with a memory can effectively trigger its recall.

Examples from your book describing real experiences of how memories, even ones from a long time ago, can be stimulated by locations, songs, and smells highlight the importance of encoding specificity in long-term memory. The encoding specificity principle, a key concept in understanding memory recall, emphasizes how information is encoded into memory along with specific details about the context or the emotional state at the time. This means that our ability to recall a memory is greatly enhanced when the retrieval cues present at the time of remembering closely match those present at the time of encoding. For instance, hearing a song that was playing during a significant event in our lives can trigger vivid memories of that event, thanks to the strong association between the sensory input (the song) and the memory itself.

A classic experiment demonstrating this principle involved participants memorizing words in a unique setting; those who were later tested on the word sets in the same location showed significantly better recall. This illustrates how physical context can serve as a powerful retrieval cue. Similarly, specific scents can evoke detailed memories due to their unique and specific nature, making them effective triggers for recall. Understanding the encoding specificity principle helps explain why techniques like the method of loci, which involve associating information to specific locations, are so effective for memory recall.

I NEED HELP ASAP!!
Teachers discuss a new child's situation and needs before s/he joins the group, and prepare materials and strategies to ensure _______.

Answers

Answer: I'm not quite sure, but my best guess is autonomy.

In hemolytic disease of the newborn:________ 1. antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and affect the fetus. 2. the mother frequently dies during childbirth. 3. antibodies from the fetus cross the placenta and affect the mother. 4. hemolysis of white blood cells may occur. 5. fibrin is hydrolyzed.

Answers

Answer:

1. antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and affect the fetus.

Explanation:

The hemolysis disease of the newborn occurs when a mother with Rh-negative conceives a baby whit an Rh-positive father triggering an immunological reaction in the baby if he/she inherits the Rh-positive factor from the father, the problem can develop if the baby´s red blood cells cross to the Rh-negative mother, the mother´s immune system sees the baby´s Rh-positive red blood cells as foreign and start to fight and destroy, as the moither´s antibodies destroy the red blood cells the baby becomes sick.

The national High Blood Pressure Education Program classification system for blood pressure of adults 18 years of age and older has various categories, including normal, pre-hypertension, and hypertension; which values are the minimum levels for stage 1 of hypertension?

Answers

Answer:

stage 1 of hypertension:

systolic: 130 - 139

diastolic: 80 - 89

Explanation:

According to the American heart association guide 2017 Blood Pressure Classification in Young Adults the systolic blood pressure (SBP) 130–139 mmHg and the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) 80–89 mmHg)

In what ways do our early caregivers influence our habits of thought, emotion, and behavior?

Answers

Answer:

yes and no

Explanation:

they do because the make sure you act great infront of other people and no because youre actions are not there's

Early caregivers influence habits of thought, emotion, and behavior through attachment styles and parenting practices.

Early caregivers play a significant role in shaping individuals' habits of thought, emotion, and behavior through the establishment of secure attachment styles.

Attachment Theory suggests that the care received in infancy influences future intimate relationships.

Research indicates that parenting practices impact social, emotional, intellectual development, and behavioral health during the early years.

Therefore, early caregivers shape thoughts, emotions, and behaviors through attachment styles and parenting practices during formative years, influencing later relationships and personal development.

In an experiment, hypnotized subjects are told to scratch their ear if they hear the word "psychology" mentioned later. The fact that they do so only if they think the experiment is still under way most clearly supports the theory that hypnosis involves:a. dissociation.
b. neuroadaptation.
c. role playing.
d. hypnagogic sensations.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is C. Role Playing.

Explanation:

Role Playing in psychology is used to enhance certain skills to handle difficult situations. In other words, role playing can be defined as changing one's behavior to adapt to a new role.

This theory was first introduced in 1941 by RW White. This man said that hypnosis is basically like a role that people are playing i.e. they are acting if they are being hypnotized.

The nurse is working for a hospital that holds an agreement with a local organ procurement organization (OPO). The patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3 and discussions have been held with the family about withdrawing life support. Which statement by the nurse best describes requirements that must be met to sustain Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Conditions of Participation?

a.

"I need to notify TransLife (OPO) of my patient's impending death."

b.

"I will contact the physician to obtain informed consent for organ donation."

c.

"The charge nurse will notify TransLife (OPO) once the patient has been pronounced brain dead."

d.

"I need the physician to evaluate my patient's suitability for organ donation."

Answers

Answer:

d.     I need the physician to evaluate my patient's suitability for organ donation.

Explanation:

Every patient that needs to donate organ needs to undergo series of evaluation test to determine the suitability of the patient's health towards the organs to be harvested. The healther the organ the better for it to be used for donation to a patient on the waiting list.

It is the duty of the nurse working in the hospital to ensure that the patient is suitable for organ donation before contacting the organ procurement organization (OPO) which his hosptial has an agreement with. The nurse can only do this through reaching out to the hosptal physicians for the patient's evaluation.

The new graduate nurse on the neurology unit reviews plans for caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure secondary to supratentorial surgery/head injury. Which of the following statements by the new graduate nurse requires correction by the preceptor?1. "I will give the patient a cold sponge bath if a fever occurs"2. "I will do as many procedures close together as I can."3. "I will hyperventilate the patient before and after suctioning"4. "I will be sure to keep the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees."

Answers

Answer:

2. "I will do as many procedures close together as I can

Explanation:

She requires correction of this statement because the treatment to be followed is not immediate but requires a follow-up of approximately 2 days, although she must take into account that the patient should be treated lightly in intensive care since she needs to perform several procedures but cannot be immediately subsequent as

1. Respiratory support

2. Drainage of cerebrospinal fluid

3. supply of

medications to reduce swelling.

4. Removal of part of the skull, especially in the first 2 days

Managers use a0 of there organization to help them plan and implement programs in their communities

Answers

Answer: Manager use "the structure" to plan and implement programs.

Explanation:

As a manager, it is their job to make sure everything runs smoothly. When a business contributes to the community the manager is put in charge of fundraisers, sponsoring school games, and/or helping families in community.

Using structure will help everything get done in a timely manner without hitting any snags or issues. If something does arise the manager will have the resources and knowledge to fix it in a timely manner.

Managers will work with other people in the community such as local business owners, teachers, parents, social workers, and law enforcement. The manager will be expected to attend community meetings so they can meet the people of the town and get to know them.

As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE ______ manner.

Answers

Answer:

As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE emotional manner.

Explanation:

Bipolar disorder causes:

Dramatic mood swings (from overly "high" and/or irritable to sad and then back again often with periods of normal mood in between)Severe Changes in energy and behaviour go along with these changes in mood.The periods of highs and lows are called episodes of mania and depression

Hence, As compared with healthy individuals, people with unmedicated bipolar disorder who are not currently experiencing any symptoms tend to perform cognitive tasks in a MORE emotional manner

An 85-year-old client residing in a nursing home reports to the LPN/LVN that even though he is eating an adequate, well-balanced diet and frequently drinks fluids, he continues to lose weight. Which of the following responses by the LPN/LVN is BEST?

a. "You may need to increase your fluid intake."
b. "Due to age, you have decreased function of the gastrointestinal tract."
c. "You are not eating enough food to maintain your weight."
d. "You need to completely chew your food before swallowing it."

Answers

Answer:

Option b. "Due to age, you have decreased function of the gastrointestinal tract."

Explanation:

As we begin to age or grow older as human beings, this tends to have an effect on the way gastrointestinal tract works or functions.

In older people the rate of digestion of foods tends to happen very slowly. The food moves slowly in the digestive system.

There is a reduced production in older people of enzymes required to react with the various classes of food been consumed thereby resulting in a poor or reduced production and absorption of the essential nutrients required by the body in other . This could lead to loss in weight in older people.

can someone plz help me w my recent? (jus click my pfp to see my questions)

Answers

Answer:

Yes let me take a look.

Explanation:

Answer:

Give me a picture.

Explanation:

Mental Incompetence Dorothy Drury suffered from dementia and chronic confusion. When she became unable to manage her own affairs, including decisions about medical and financial matters, her son Eddie arranged for her to move to an assisted-living facility. During admission, she signed a residency agreement, which included an arbitration clause. After she sustained injuries in a fall at the facility, a suit was filed to recover damages. The facility asked the court to compel arbitration. Was Dorothy bound to the residency agreement? 1. What element of a valid contract is at iss

Answers

Mental Incompetence Dorothy Drury suffered from dementia and chronic confusion. When she became unable to manage her own affairs, including decisions about medical and financial matters, her son Eddie arranged for her to move to an assisted-living facility. During admission, she signed a residency agreement, which included an arbitration clause. After she sustained injuries in a fall at the facility, a suit was filed to recover damages. The facility asked the court to compel arbitration.

Was Dorothy bound to the residency agreement? No, Dorothy was not bound to the residency agreement

Dorothy is suffering from Dementia and chronic confusion; Dementia occurs when thinking and social symptoms interferes with daily function of an individuals and Chronic confusion is a state in which there is a decreased capacity for intellectual thought processes which manifest as disturbances of memory ,behaviors and orientation.

Dorothy is mental incompetence, though there is a contract made on her behalf i.e the one made by her son while she was been admitted in the residency, there is not obligation for her to bound with the contact, the court will decided that she does not abide by the residency agreement since it was Eddie(Her son) who signed the agreement on her behalf has no authority, therefore she is not bound by the agreement.

1. What element of a valid contract is at is: Capacity

The element that constitute a contract to be valid must involve an individual who understand the nature, purpose , consequences of the contract and at the time of signing the contract and the individual must be lucid.

Dorothy is been judged mentally incompetent so it is not possible  for he to enter into a agreement, therefore any agreement she enter into based on her mental state is consider void.

A RUQ ultrasound has been ordered on a 63 year old male for abdominal pain and a palpable epigastric lesion felt on clinical exam. The patient states that he has had weight loss but he has being trying to lose a few pounds. As you are scanning the liver, you document an enlarged CBD. You following the CBD and acquire the image above. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Answers

Answer:

Cancer

Explanation: An enlarged CBD could mean alot of things for a patient of this age. What we need to consider in this case is the age and symptoms the patient exhibits. Weight loss and the abdominal pain are key here. Considering and enlarged CBD which is central to Bile which burns fat in our bodies, we need to run tests to see why the blockage which causes the duct to enlarge is present in the patients body. Check for inflamation and possibly carry out a biopsy of the liquid in the duct. Of course, Cancer is the big one here, but it could also be several factors, like Hepatitis, Gall stones and inflamation due to the blockage in the duct which means the liver is at risk.

Final answer:

The most likely diagnosis in this case is a choledochal cyst, which is a rare congenital abnormality causing dilation of the bile duct. A RUQ ultrasound can confirm the diagnosis by visualizing the enlarged common bile duct.

Explanation:

The most likely diagnosis in this case would be a choledochal cyst.

A choledochal cyst is a rare congenital abnormality in which the bile duct becomes dilated due to an obstruction or abnormal connection. This can lead to an enlarged common bile duct (CBD) and can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and a palpable epigastric lesion.

A RUQ ultrasound is an imaging test commonly used to diagnose choledochal cysts. It helps visualize the dilation of the CBD and any associated complications.

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write in your own words please
Describe 2 steps for warming up and 2 steps for cooling down.

Answers

Warming up and Cooling down steps

Explanation:

Warming up exercises prepares the body for strenuous physical activities. These increase the body flexibility, reduces injury risk and pain, increases oxygen intake and good blood flow, improved range of motion, reduces muscular tension.

The basic steps involved in warming are: Loosening of joints, stretching the muscles, pumping the heart, and practice movements.

Loosening joints warms up and mobilizes the joints and include upper and lower body rotations.  Upper body rotations include slow and controlled circling repetitive motions of the joints like wrists, elbows, and shoulder. Lower body rotations include leg balancing and rotation of knee and ankle joints in controlled repetitions. Stretching exercises of muscles, especially the dynamic stretches warms up the muscles and increases the flexibility. Sequential repetitive stretching targeting all body parts from head to toe should be done. Neck rolls, arm swings, side bends, rocking horse, lunges, leg swings etc are various types of warm up stretches.

Cooling down exercises brings back the body to its normal condition (reduces heart rate, muscle strain etc) after a strenuous exercise activity. These involve mainly cool stretches and slow movements like walking.

A slow leisure walking is the best cool down exercise to relax the body and mind Cool down stretches are static stretches like stretching of legs, chest, arms, and core of the body to relax the strained muscles of the body after a rigorous exercise session.

An individual arrives late at a meeting. Which explanation for being tracy is c/w self-serving bias? The individual will attribute being late to: A. An uncontrollable personality trait B. A situational variable C. A controllable personality trait. D. A stable variable

Answers

Answer:

B. A situational variable

Explanation:

Self service bias is a tendency in which individuals attribute positive things and tendencies to themselves but often attribute negative things to situations.

In the light of the above definition siting a situational variable as the cause of coming late is a typical example of self servicing bias.

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered

Answers

You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. Which type of consent is her agreement considered

A.) implied
B.)informed
C.)expressed
D.)minors

ANSWER- (C)

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A police officer asks residents to clean up litter, remove graffiti, and install better lighting in a nearby park that is known for extensive drug dealing. Such a request is characteristic of what type of policing

Answers

Answer:

problem-solving

Explanation:

Problem oriented policing is a policing approach that is very of a proactive. Here police officers develop strategies that focuses on preventing crime by working with the residents of a particular neighbourhood using not just traditional approach but any other approach in order to effect an effective policing.

A police officer asks residents to clean up litter, remove graffiti, and install better lighting in a nearby park that is known for extensive drug dealing is a typical approach of problem oriented policing.

Final answer:

The type of policing that involves residents in cleaning and maintaining their neighborhood to reduce crime is known as community policing and is related to the broken windows theory. It also aligns with zero-tolerance policies, although those have been subject to controversy due to potential negative impacts on marginalized communities.

Explanation:

A police officer asking residents to clean up litter, remove graffiti, and install better lighting in a nearby park to deter drug dealing is characteristic of community policing strategies aimed at reducing crime through environmental design and local engagement. This approach is in line with the broken windows theory, which maintains that visible signs of disorder and neglect result in an increase in crime.

Maintaining a clean and orderly environment through the removal of graffiti, litter, and the addition of better lighting can lead to positive spillovers such as higher property values, lower crime rates, and happier residents.

Advocates of this strategy, as well as of more controversial zero-tolerance policing, believe that such measures are effective in reducing crime. However, critics point out that they can also lead to negative consequences, such as the displacement of vulnerable populations and allegations of police harassment in communities of color.

In what chambers of the heart does pulmonary circulation begin and end

Answers

Final answer:

Pulmonary circulation begins in the right atrium and ends in the left atrium of the heart.

Explanation:

Pulmonary circulation begins in the right atrium of the heart and ends in the left atrium. It involves the flow of blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for oxygenation, and then back to the left atrium of the heart.

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Pulmonary circulation begins in the right ventricle of the heart and ends in the left atrium. This process is essential for oxygenating blood before it is distributed throughout the body.

Pulmonary Circulation in the Heart

Pulmonary circulation is a crucial component of the cardiovascular system, responsible for oxygenating blood. Here are the chambers of the heart where pulmonary circulation begins and ends:

Right Ventricle: The process begins here, where deoxygenated blood is pumped into the pulmonary arteries and transported to the lungs.Left Atrium: The process ends here, as oxygenated blood returns from the lungs via the pulmonary veins and is pumped into the left ventricle to be distributed to the rest of the body.

This circulation ensures that blood is well-oxygenated before it's circulated through the body, playing an essential role in maintaining overall health.

What would be the appropriate course of action related to exercise for a regular exerciser who has experienced chest pain and shortness of breath with mild exertion

Answers

Final answer:

The appropriate action for a regular exerciser experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath is to stop exercising immediately, remain calm, and seek medical evaluation. These symptoms can signify serious health concerns requiring immediate attention. Subsequent steps should be based on medical advice.

Explanation:

The appropriate course of action for a regular exerciser who has experienced chest pain and shortness of breath with mild exertion is to immediately cease any physical activity and seek medical evaluation. Such symptoms can indicate serious health issues such as cardiovascular problems or other conditions that require prompt attention. Engaging in further physical activity without a proper medical assessment can exacerbate the issue or lead to serious consequences.

Upon experiencing these symptoms, it's crucial to:

Stop all forms of exercise immediately.Maintain a calm demeanor and try to relax.Seek medical advice or visit emergency services without delay.

Following a medical evaluation, healthcare providers will offer guidance based on the underlying cause of the symptoms. This may include modifications to the exercise regimen, specific treatments for any diagnosed conditions, and advice on any necessary lifestyle adjustments to ensure safety during physical activity.

The HPA axis explanation states that short term stress can be beneficial. However, prolonged exposure to stress results in the HPA axis remaining active. This can be unhealthy because ________.

Answers

Answer:

Prolong exposure to stress causes a continuous production of cortisol, which can lead to depression and fatigue.

Explanation:

HPA axis is the hypothalamic–pituitary–gonadal axis. HPA axis is often taken as a body;s stress system, which controls the amount of cortisol and other stress hormones.

Prolong exposure to stress, increases the cortisol production in body. Prolong stress can also cause certain changes to the neurons located in paraventricular nucleus, ultimately resulting in sustained activation of the axis. Long term activation of the axis causes negative feedback mechanism and ultimately causes fatigue, exhaustion, headache and depression etc.  

Final answer:

Prolonged stress keeps the HPA axis active, resulting in continuous secretion of cortisol, which can lead to fatigue, depression, weakened immune system, and increased risk of heart disease.

Explanation:

The HPA axis explanation states that short-term stress can be beneficial because it helps us respond to potentially dangerous events by activating the HPA axis, which leads to the secretion of epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol. However, this can be unhealthy because prolonged exposure to stress results in the HPA axis remaining active, which continues the production of cortisol. This increased cortisol production can exhaust the stress response system, leading to negative health consequences like fatigue and depression, as well as impaired attention, memory, and self-control. Additionally, chronic stress can weaken the immune system and increase the risk of heart disease due to long-term cortisol exposure, which can cause structural and functional changes in the body.

The nurse is instructing a patient regarding self-management of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The patient has gastric ulceration as a comorbid condition. Which statement by the patient needs correction?

Answers

Answer:

Electrolyte solutions should be taken during meals, because it dilutes the solution by allowing it to mix with the food, which prevents irritation and damage to the gastrointestinal tract. Administration of demeclocycline blocks the effect of antidiuretic hormone on the renal tubules, resulting in more dilute urine. Chewing sugarless gum and ice chips decreases thirst. Diluting the electrolyte solution before administration prevents gastrointestinal damage.

Explanation:

Completed Ques;

1.

"I should take demeclocycline as prescribed."

2

"I should chew sugarless gum and ice chips."

3

"I should drink the electrolyte solution after meals."

4

"I should dilute the electrolyte solution before administration.

Answer:

"I should drink the electrolyte solution after meals

Explanation:

SIADH is due to release of large concentration of hormone  ADH into the blood streams, resulting in over re-absorption  of  ''free fluid''( that is without dissolved solutes)  from the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules into the blood. This raises the water potential of the blood,diluting it, and therefore  depleting it of needed minerals, especially sodium .

To make up for the depleted minerals especially sodium, electrolyte fluids should be administered. However,because of gastric ulcer co- morbidity, when electrolyte fluid is taken  directly or after meals; it interacts with the stomach  epithelial cells. Specifically,Potassium causes irritation of stomach linings, bloating, nausea, vomiting,and other complications which may aggravate the ulceration.

Therefore the patient need to be corrected that, the electrolyte fluid should be taken within meals so that as it mixed with the food, it reduces direct effects and  reaction( as listed above)   of  the electrolytes e.g potassium and other ions on the stomach linings, which may aggravate the ulceration.

Elaine has episodes of mania that alternate with episodes of depression. These episodes occur regularly. For Elaine's disorder to be considered rapid cycling, she must have _____ episodes of mania within a year.

Answers

Answer:

For Elaine's disorder to be considered rapid cycling, she must have ‘four or more ‘episodes of mania within a year.

Explanation:

Rapid cycling is a term used when a person with bipolar disorder experiences four or more mood swings (episodes) within a twelve-month period. An episode may consist of depression, mania, hypomania, or a condition known as a mixed state in which depression and mania are co-occurring.

Other Questions
why did the colonies need militias? Which of these excerpts from The Time Traveler's Guide to Elizabethan England is related from the second-person point ofview? How much charge can be added to each of the plates before a spark jumps between the two plates? For such flat electrodes, assume that value of 3106N/C of the field causes a spark. Rework problem 23 from section 2.4 of your text involving congressional committees. Assume that the committee consists of 6 Republicans and 5 Democrats. A subcommittee of 4 is randomly selected from all subcommittees of 4 which contain at least 1 Democrat. What is the probability that the new subcommittee will contain at least 2 Democrats? Gear-up Inc., an apparel brand, differentiates its products by manufacturing jeans that last longer than those of other brands. The fabric is durable and does not wear out even after years of regular use. This attracts customers despite Gear-ups high prices. Which of the following elements of product differentiation is Gear-up primarily providing? Group of answer choices Aesthetics Quality Convenience Quantity There are 3 numbers: 5,The mean of the two smallest numbers is 4 and the mean of all three numbers is 9.What is the mean of the two largest numbers? A comprehensive risk management program that addresses all of an organization's risks, including hazard risks, financial risks, strategic risks, and operational risks is called a(n):______________. A circular copper wire is put in tension under a weight of 7000N. What is the ratio of its diameter after and before the load is applied, if the initial cross section of the wire is 0.01m2 and its Poisson ratio is 0.3 The movers apply a force of 430 N to push a piano up a 2.0 m long ramp. How much work has been done when they reach the top of the ramp?428 WattsB215 Joules If we assume that there is no fixed manufacturing overhead and the variable manufacturing overhead is $10 per direct labor-hour, what is the estimated finished goods inventory balance at the end of July? \ The electron gun in an old TV picture tube accelerates electrons between two parallel plates 1.6 cm apart with a 20 kV potential difference between them. The electrons enter through a small hole in the negative plate, accelerate, then exit through a small hole in the positive plate. Assume that the holes are small enough not to affect the electric field or potential.a)What is the electric field strength between the plates?b)With what speed does an electron exit the electron gun if its entry speed is close to zero? Note: the exit speed is so fast that we really need to use the theory of relativity to compute an accurate value. Your answer to part B is in the right range but a little too big. hi:) anyone able to explain no.2 of what happens to particles of a solid that is heated until it melts? I dont understand it. Thanks ! 72 1/2 x 24 1/2 x 36 In competitive markets, a. markets are more likely to be in equilibrium. b. sellers are price setters. c. firms produce identical products. d. buyers can influence the market price more easily than sellers. 5.Consider a cylindrical flowerpot with a radius 6 cm and a height of 11.5 cm. Calculate the lateral surface area of the painted pot. According to feature integration theory, the color, orientation, and other features of objects are initially processed in the _________ stage of processing. In which type of business organization do the owners have the least input and decision-making on the day to day operations?MonopolyCorporationPartnershipSole Proprietorship Researchers have found that despite the number of color names in a language, the basic abilities to perceive color are unchanged. This finding would be troublesome for the theory of __________. What kind of crystalline solid is nickel (Ni)?OA. Molecular solidOOOB. Ionic solidC. Metallic solidD. Network solid The first terms of a geometric sequence are 0.778,-2.33,7,-21, and 63. What is the 6th term?