Fiber has been recommended in the diet for its possible benefits in reducing heart disease by lowering blood cholesterol. How is fiber thought to play its role in lowering blood cholesterol?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: fiber play an important role in lowering blood cholesterol by binding to cholesterol particles in the small intestines. Thus, preventing cholesterol to pass into the bloodstream. The indigestible fiber together with cholesterol pass out through the feces.

Explanation:

Fiber is a plant derived food that cannot be completely broken down by digestive enzymes in human body. Fiber aids proper bowel functions, improves heart health and function. They are of two types:

Soluble fiber

Insoluble fiber.

The soluble fiber is know to lower blood cholesterol. It can dissolve in water and create a gel-like uniformity in the digestive track. Researches have shown that taking ten to twenty-five grams soluble fiber per day can lower cholesterol by 18%. The soluble fiber bind cholesterol and prevent it from moving into the blood and circulating to other parts of the body and then, ejected out in feces.


Related Questions

An increase in the amount of ultraviolet light entering the atmosphere through holes in the ozone layer will most likely

Answers

cause an increase in the rate of certain mutations

In sweet pea, red flower color is controlled by two genes involved in the anthocyanin pathway, A and B. Both genes are required for expression, so that a recessive pair of alleles at either locus would result in a pink phenotype. If an AaBb plant were allowed to self-cross and you got only red and pink flowers, what dihybrid ratio would you expect in the offspring?

Answers

Answer:

The dihybrid ratio we expect in the offspring is 9:7.

Explanation:

This is an example of complementary gene interaction, which is the non allelic interaction or genes, where the prominent genes at heterozygous loci may complement each other by complementing recessive alleles at the respective loci.

So in this case of  complementary gene interaction, the individuals that are A-bb or aaB- or aabb will have the same set of observable features (phenotype) but only A-B- individuals will how the dominant phenotype.

Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the

Answers

Final answer:

Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the tragedy of the commons.

Explanation:

Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the tragedy of the commons.

The tragedy of the commons refers to a situation where a shared resource, such as public land, is overused and degraded due to the self-interest of individuals. In this case, each livestock owner wants to graze their animals on the public land without considering the long-term consequences of overgrazing.

This leads to the degradation of the land, loss of natural resources, and threats to the livelihoods of other livestock owners. It is important to implement sustainable management practices to prevent the tragedy of the commons from occurring.

Mutations that affect only the individual in which they occur are called _____ mutations; _____ mutations are passed from parent to offspring.

Answers

Answer:

Somatic; Germ line

Explanation:

Somatic mutations are the type of mutations that do not affect offspring or are not passed to the next generation. the occur mostly in the body cells/ somatic cells. Such mutations can be passed to daughter cells during mitosis but can not be passed to offspring via sexual reproduction. Germline mutations occurs in the germ line cells which gives rise to cells that are passed down to offspring. Germline cells gives rise to the sex cells that which are passed to offspring through the process of sexual reproduction involving the egg and the sperm.

Final answer:

Somatic mutations affect only the individual and cannot be passed to offspring, while germline mutations occur in reproductive cells and can be inherited by offspring. Effects of mutations can range from imperceptible to severe, potentially causing genetic diseases like cystic fibrosis or hemophilia if they are germline mutations.

Explanation:

Mutations that affect only the individual in which they occur are called somatic mutations; germline mutations are passed from parent to offspring. Somatic mutations occur in non-reproductive cells and cannot be transmitted to offspring. They may have little effect on the organism because they are confined to just one cell and its daughter cells. On the other hand, germline mutations occur in the sex cells, gametes, such as eggs and sperm. These mutations are heritable and can be passed down to offspring, who will have the mutation in every cell.

Some mutations do not result in any observable traits and are known as silent mutations. However, others, such as point mutations, which affect a single base pair, can have a range from no effect to very serious effects on an individual. Types of point mutations include transitions, transversions, insertions, and deletions. For example, cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and Tay-Sachs disease are diseases caused by specific germline mutations.

Normal leukocytes use several protective mechanisms in combating disease-causing microbes such as bacteria. Which of the following is NOT a method related to substance uptake by a white blood cell?
a. exocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. pinocytosis
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis

Answers

Answer:a; exocytosis

Explanation: leukocytes are blood cells which destroy foreign bodies such as bacteria.they have the ability to engulfing invading microorganisms thus they are said to be involved in defense and immunity.

Leukocytes are capable of engulfing foreign bodies through the processes of pinocytosis, phagocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis.

In endocytosis,the membrane of the cell transfers the foreign bodies into the cell.it does this by first trapping the foreign body to form a vesicle .the vesicle then pinches off on the other side of the membrane.

Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which the material is engulfed into the cell cytoplasm.

Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which droplets of fluids are engulfed into the cell.

Receptor-mediated endocytosis is when specific materials are engulfed due to the protein receptors on the cell membrane.

Exocytosis is the opposite of endocytosis and in this process , materials are removed from the cell by pinching of the cell membrane.

Since white blood cells need to engulf bacteria, exocytosis is not used.

Which vessels delivers lymph into the junction of the internal jugular vein and the subclavian vein?

Answers

i dont really know

:

What role does light energy from the sun serve in photosynthesis?


A
energizes electrons

B
splits carbon dioxide

C
splits water molecules

Answers

Answer:

B) splits carbon dioxide( mark me brainlest!)

Explanation:

In a nut shell , the light energy from the sun is converted into Chemical energy by the plants through the process of photosynthesis. The green pigment chlorophyll present in the leaves traps light energy from the sun . This light energy is used to convert water and carbon-dioxide into Glucose and Oxygen.

Final answer:

Light energy from the sun excites electrons in chlorophyll during photosynthesis and splits water molecules to replenish those electrons, playing a crucial role in converting sunlight into chemical energy.

Explanation:

The role of light energy from the sun in photosynthesis is multifaceted. Primarily, it serves to energize electrons within the chlorophyll molecules found in the photosystems. When chlorophyll absorbs light energy, the electrons become excited and jump to a higher energy level. These high-energy electrons are then passed on to the primary electron acceptor in the photosystem. Furthermore, light energy is also integral in the splitting of water molecules (H2O) into oxygen, hydrogen ions, and electrons during the process known as photolysis. This splitting is crucial as it replenishes the electrons that were excited and transferred from the chlorophyll molecules. The light-driven reactions of photosynthesis essentially initiate the conversion of sunlight energy into chemical energy, setting the stage for the synthesis of sugars in the following stages of photosynthesis.

A function of carbohydrates in the diet is to: enable chemical reactions. promote growth and repair of tissues. supply energy. maintain water balance.

Answers

Supply Energy

Explanation:

Carbohydrates, or saccharides, comes under biomolecules. The four significant classes of biomolecules are nucleotides, lipids, proteins and carbohydartes. Among these carbohydrates is more abundant.  It is also called "carbs," carbohydrates have a few jobs in living life forms, including energy transportation. They are the structural parts of insects and plants. Carbohydrates derivatives are engaged with blood clotting, the immune system, the reproduction, the development of disease.

Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. True False

Answers

Answer:

The statement is FALSE.

Explanation:

Hemoglobin is found in red blood cells and gives the body's blood red pigment. It is formed by the heme group and a protein group (globin). Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting oxygen from the respiratory organs to body tissues.

Final answer:

The statement is false. Hemoglobin is comprised of four globin protein subunits (not the protein heme) and four iron-containing heme groups, which collectively enable it to carry oxygen in the blood.

Explanation:

The statement that hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin is false. Hemoglobin is actually a protein molecule found in red blood cells known for its oxygen-carrying capacity. It is composed of two primary components: four globin polypeptide chains (two alpha and two beta chains) and four heme groups. Each globin chain surrounds a central heme group that contains iron. The iron within the heme groups is what binds oxygen, and it's also responsible for giving blood its red color. Each of the four heme groups in a hemoglobin molecule is capable of binding an oxygen molecule, allowing hemoglobin to transport oxygen efficiently from the lungs to body tissues and carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation.

Having an insufficient daily diet is called __________. A. agriculture B. supply and demand C. production D. malnourishment Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D

Answers

I promise to you I’m not lying the answer is D I just had this question

Having an insufficient daily diet is called malnourishment.

What do you mean by malnourishment?

Malnutrition, in all its forms, includes undernutrition (wasting, stunting, underweight), inadequate vitamins or minerals, overweight, obesity, and resulting diet-related noncommunicable diseases.

Moreover, there are two major types of malnutrition: Protein-energy malnutrition - resulting from deficiencies in any or all nutrients. Micronutrient deficiency diseases - resulting from a deficiency of specific micronutrients.

Therefore, common signs of malnutrition include: unintentional weight loss – losing 5% to 10% or more of weight over 3 to 6 months is one of the main signs of malnutrition. a low body weight – people with a body mass index (BMI) under 18.5 are at risk of being malnourished (use the BMI calculator to work out your BMI).

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When cells are going through rapid cell divisions during the first stage of animal development called "cleavage", which of the following phases of the cell cycle are lost? (Choose ALL correct answers) Group of answer choices

Answers

Early cleavage divisions in most embryos are also rapid. One reason for this is that cleaving cells have a modified cell cycle, in which the two gap phases, G1 and G2 are completely omitted, and the cells cycle rapidly between M and S phases. In addition, because the major cytoskeletal systems of the cells are largely devoted to mitosis (microtubules) and cytokinesis (microfilaments) during rapid cleavage division, there is typically an antagonism between periods of rapid cell division and cell movement. Thus as the embryo approaches gastrulation, there is a tremendous slowing in the rate of division (note the slope of the curve at the right).

During the cleavage stage of animal development, the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle are lost, allowing rapid cell division by skipping the phases of growth and preparation for DNA replication.

During cleavage, cells divide rapidly without growing in size, which means there is less need for the phases involved in growth and preparation for DNA synthesis or the checking of completed DNA synthesis and preparation for mitosis. Instead, the cell cycle is shortened to include just the S phase (Synthesis of DNA) and M phase (Mitosis), enabling a faster rate of cell division necessary for early embryonic development.

The complete question is:

When cells are going through rapid cell divisions during the first stage of animal development called "cleavage", which of the following phases of the cell cycle are lost? (Choose ALL correct answers) Group of answer choices

A. G2

B. S

C. M

D. G1

Prokaryotic organisms have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic organisms have many origins where replication occurs simultaneously. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this observation?
Prokaryotic DNA is much smaller than eukaryotic DNA.

Answers

Answer:

Prokaryotic DNA is much smaller than eukaryotic DNA.

Explanation:

Prokaryotes are microscopic and simple organism and their genetic material is very much smaller than eukaryotes. So as the DNA of prokaryotes is smaller therefore only one origin of replication is sufficient to replicate the DNA in them on time.

As eukaryotes have much larger DNA so one origin of replication is not sufficient to replicate the DNA of eukaryotes until the cell cycle completes, therefore, to complete the DNA replication at the time the DNA must have multiple origins of replication.

When researchers are measuring plant productivity, they usually harvest and measure above-ground biomass. But with grassland plants, it is common to find that most of an individual's biomass is in its root system. Why don't researchers measure below-ground biomass as well?

Answers

Answer:

Because of the fibrous root network of grasses.

Explanation:

Measuring below ground biomass of grass plants is technically impossible and difficult because of the fibrous root network different plants form with one another and within the soil. The network virtually makes it impossible to individually extract all the underground biomass of each grass.

Final answer:

Researchers measure above-ground biomass when measuring plant productivity because it is easier to measure and provides a good estimate of the plant's overall biomass. However, grassland plants have a significant portion of their biomass in their root system, which is not measured. Measuring below-ground biomass is challenging due to difficulties in accurately measuring the highly branched and spread out root system.

Explanation:

Researchers usually measure above-ground biomass when measuring plant productivity because it is easier to measure and provides a good estimate of the plant's overall biomass. Above-ground biomass includes the stems, leaves, and flowers of the plant, which are responsible for photosynthesis and the production of resources for other living things. However, it is important to note that in grassland plants, a significant portion of the plant's biomass is in its root system.

Measuring below-ground biomass can be challenging because it is difficult to accurately measure the root system without damaging it. Roots can be highly branched and spread out in the soil, making it hard to capture their full biomass. Additionally, digging up the soil to measure below-ground biomass can disturb the plant and the surrounding ecosystem.

By focusing on above-ground biomass, researchers can still get a good estimate of plant productivity and its contribution to ecosystem functioning and resource availability.

Which pair of events would directly result in a constant number of chromosomes in body cells from one generation to the next in sexually reproducing species?

Answers

Answer:

Meiosis and fertilization

Explanation:

The type of cell division that takes place in the sexually reproducing cells in meiosis.

Meiosis is the type of cell division which maintains the ploidy level in the new organism by forming cells with haploid or half the number of chromosomes.

The meiosis produces 4 haploid gamete cells which when fuses or fertilise with the gamete cell of the opposite sex again form a diploid organism. This type of cell division maintains a constant number of chromosomes.

Thus, meiosis and fertilisation are correct.

While testing for biological macromolecules in an unknown, you find that it reacts strongly with iodine and the solution immediately turns a very dark black. The macromolecule at hand must be:_________.

Answers

Answer: Carbonhydrate (Starch)

Explanation:starch is a polysaccharide ,made up of glucose monomers.starch is an insoluble carbonhydrate.it forms a main storage material for green plants.starch is a made up of two fractions namely; Amylose and amylopectin.

They both contain alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkages but amylopectin also contains branches of alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkages.

Starch gives a blue-black colouration with iodine.This is due to it's reaction with amylose.its structure is helically coiled and hence can trap iodine molecules.

This blue black colour changes on heating because amylose loses its structure on heating

What is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?

Answers

The provided question is incomplete as the options are not provided, however the options are as follows:

A.alternation of generations

B ovules

C. integuments

D. pollen

E. dependent gametophytes

Answer:

The correct answer is - option A. alternation of generation.

Explanation:

Angiosperms and gymnosperms both have alternation gymnosperms however the dominant phase in both are sporophyte. The basic idea of this type of life cycle is stays same.

Plant spores produces the gametes in gametophyte phase of alternation of generation and these gametes form zygote to produce the dominant sporophyte phase of this.

Thus, the correct answer is - a) alternation of generation.

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

Answers

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The primary function of the lymphatic system is to transport lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood cells, throughout the body. The lymphatic system primarily consists of lymphatic vessels, which are similar to the veins and capillaries of the circulatory system.

Answer:

The lymphatic system returns leaked fluids to blood vessels.

Explanation:

That's the answer on edge

Microevolution can be said to have taken place when a. a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies. b. a feature of an individual animal changes through use or disuse. c. a mutation occurs in a population. d. several mutations occur in a population. e. when a population has different forms of the same gene.

Answers

Answer is option "a"

Explanation:

A genetic draft changes in allele frequencies in a populace from age to age that happens because of chance occasions. To be increasingly accurate, genetic drift is changed because of "examining blunder" in choosing the alleles for the cutting edge from the genetic stock of the present age. Albeit drift occurs in population all things considered, its belongings will, in general, be more grounded in little populationHence, the right answer is option a " a population experience a shift in allele frequencies"

Answer:

a. a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies.

Explanation:

Microevolution: Evolutionary change within a species or small group of organisms, mainly over a short period/ in a short duration of period.

Microevolution :  taken place when a population experiences a shift in allele frequencies.

Examples of microevolution: Pesticide resistance, antibiotic resistance, herbicide resistance, and many others.

What is the most likely plant response to an attack by herbivores?

Answers

The options are:

A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss

B) early flowering to try to reproduce before being eaten

C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators

D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns

Answer:

The correct answer of this question is- C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators

Explanation:

In response to attacks by herbivores, plants produce chemicals that are toxic to the herbivores which can even kill them or some chemicals can spread in the air and can attract the predators of those herbivores that attack that plant species.

Plants produce secondary metabolites that play an important role in protecting the plant from predators because they can be toxic and antimicrobial for example flavonoids, alkaloids, saponins. Plants do not get harmed by these metabolites because they have their own detoxification method. So the correct answer is C.

The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:

A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss

B) early flowering to try and reproduce before being eaten

C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators

D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns

E) production of thicker bark and cuticle to make it more difficult to eat

Answer:

D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns

Explanation:

The plants are autotrophic organism which can produce food on their own therefore they become the producers of the food chain that is they are eaten by the primary consumers.

So to protect themselves the plants adapted to protect themselves and formed the needle-like structures called thorns by modifying their stem. The needle-like structure can injure or harm the herbivore when they try to eat them.

Thus, Option-D is correct.

Blood passes from the external iliac vein into what vessel?

Answers

Answer:

Inferior vena cava.

Explanation:

Blood flows from the external iliac vein into the inferior vena cava. it joins to the iliac vein to form the inferior vena cava.

Answer: inferior vena cava

Explanation: The internal iliac vein drains blood from the visceral organs in the pelvic region. The external iliac connects to the femoral veins. The internal iliac vein may double or lay lateral to the external iliac vein. Both veins join together to form the inferior vena cava.

please give brainliest!

You are studying a bacterium that utilizes a sugar called athelose. This sugar can be used as an energy source when necessary. Metabolism of athelose is controlled by the ath operon. The genes of the ath operon code for the enzymes necessary to use athelose as an energy source. You have found the following: The genes of the ath operon are expressed only when the concentration of athelose in the bacterium is high. When glucose is absent, the bacterium needs to metabolize athelose as an energy source as much as possible. The same catabolite activator protein (CAP) involved with the lac operon interacts with the ath operon. Based on this information, how is the ath operon most likely controlled?

Answers

Answer:

The ath operon is most likely controlled by the CAP and a repressor similar to the lac operon.        

Explanation:

The CAP senses the low concentration of glucose and activates the transcription of the ath operon for it to metabolize the athelose and obtain energy. When the glucose is in high concentrations, the ath repressor, which works as a  lac repressor, inhibits the transcription of the ath operon, it does this by binding to a part of the operon called operator getting in the ARN polymerase way and stoping the transcription. If there is glucose, the repressor binds to it and it is not bound to the operon allowing the transcription and metabolism of glucose.                                  

Answer: The control of an ATH OPERON has both negative and positive sides,they are as follows;

POSITIVE CONTROL OF AN ATH OPERON IS BY;

- Inactive activator ( not glowing w/o yellow square)

- Catabolite activator protein (cAMP)

- Active activator ( glowing w/ yellow square)

NEGATIVE CONTROL OF AN ATH OPERON IS BY;

- Active repressor( glowing w/o yellow square)

- athelose

- Inactive repressor ( not glowing w/ yellow square)

Explanation: The OPERON MODEL describes how bacteria controls the production of groups of enzymes.In operon model, synthesis of the RNA messenger coding for these enzymes is switched on or off by regulatory proteins.

Regulatory proteins bind to the operator to control expression of the operon while a repressor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription,in prokaryotes this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.

The fungi that produce penicillin, the fungi that we use to make bread, the fungi that we use to brew alcoholic drinks, and the fungi that we eat as truffles, all belong to the group of fungi known as:___________.

Answers

Yeast
(e.g fermentation is the process by which yeast converts glucose into alcohol and carbon dioxide, yeast also makes bread rise)

Answer:

Yeast

Explanation:

Yeast is an example of fungi. It is helpful in making alcohol as yeast is capable of fermenting sugar solution into alcohol this process is termed as Fermentation. It also helps to bake bread, dosas as it reproduces in flour dough and produces CO2 during respiration, it makes the dough soft and thus helps in the making of bread, idlis, etc.

Hope it helps you

Which of the following statements about seed plants is true Seeds are produced only by flowering plants (angiosperms) The sporophyte generation is more reduced in seed plants than in the ferns The gametophytes of seed plants are independent of the sporophytes All seed plant species are heterosporous The zygote of seed plants divides repeatedly to form the gametophyte

Answers

Answer:

d. All seed plant species are heterosporous.

Explanation:

All the seed plants produce two types of spores. Therefore, seed plants are always heterosporous. The types of spores produced by these plants are microspore and megaspore. Microspore produces male gametophyte and serves to carry the male gametes while the megaspore gives rise to the female gametophyte. When the male gametes of a microspore fertilize a female gamete, the zygote is formed. The fertilized ovule is converted into a seed. Therefore, the formation of two types of spores is required for seed formation.

Final answer:

The accurate statement is that all seed plants are heterosporous, producing two types of spores. Other statements listed are not accurate about seed plants. In seed plants, the sporophyte generation is dominant, while the gametophyte is dependent on it.

Explanation:

Among the statements given, the true statement about seed plants is: All seed plant species are heterosporous. Heterosporous means that the plant produces two types of spores: microspores, which will develop into male gametophytes, and megaspores, which will develop into female gametophytes. This is a common attribute of all seed plants.

Contrarily, it's not true that seeds are produced only by flowering plants (angiosperms) as seed formation also happens in gymnosperms. The sporophyte generation is not more reduced in seed plants compared to ferns; in fact, it is dominant and longer-lived. The gametophytes of seed plants are not independent from sporophytes; they are often protected and nourished by the sporophytic tissue. Finally, the zygote of seed plants divides repeatedly to form an embryo, not a gametophyte.

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What process is responsible for creating magnetic changes along mid-ocean ridges?
A. Reversal of Earth's magnetic field
B. Seafloor spreading
C. Ridge push
D. Slab pull

Answers

Answer:

The answer would be A. Reversal of Earths magnetic field

Explanation: This process is responsible because over time Earth's magnetic field changes, therefore it creates magnetic changes. It changes minerals in rocks and elements.

Answer:

Reversal of Earth's magnetic field (A)

Explanation:

Penn answer

If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?1. A and D2. B and D3. B and C4. D and E

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is 4. D and E

Explanation:

Organisms are divided into seven major levels of classification and these are Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. The highest level here is the kingdom and the smallest level is species.

If we move from kingdom to species the structural homology increase and when we move from species to kingdom structural homology and relatedness decreases.

Therefore as class is higher domain than order so the organism in order will show more degree of structural homology with each other than class therefore the correct answer is 4.

There are different levels on which each animal is classified and these levels are known as hierarchy levels.

These levels are as follows:-

Kingdomphylumclassorder and etc

These are the levels on which animals are placed that have same characters. These lower-level shares the same feature as they shared the same habitat.

According to the question, the correct option for the problem is 4 that is D and E as they belong from the lower hierarchy level.

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Which of the following is true about top predators? Select one: a. They include bacteria and fungi. b. Their removal increases biodiversity. c. They are likely to be herbivores. d. They are often keystone species. e. They are likely to be producers.

Answers

Answer:

d. They are often keystone species

Explanation:

Top predators in an environment are the largest predators and sits on the top (apex) of the food chain in an ecosystem which do not have any natural predators.

As the top predators relative to its abundance has disproportionately large effect on its natural environment, they are the keystone species most of the time.

Hence option d. They are often keystone species is the right  option.

Predators are often keystone species. Therefore, the correct option is D.

The highest trophic level in an ecosystem is occupied by apex predators, also known as apex predators. They differ from other species in that they have few or no natural predators. Keystone species are those that, with respect to their abundance, have the greatest impact on their ecosystem. Because of the potential ripple effects their existence and actions can have on entire ecosystems, apex predators often serve as flagship species. Their eradication could severely alter the population dynamics of other species and upset the balance of entire food webs.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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Manatees, aquatic mammals inhabiting Florida’s rivers and coastal waters, swim close to the surface and are frequently killed in collisions with boats. To address the problem, boat traffic in manatee-populated waters is being required to maintain very low speeds. Unfortunately, manatees are unable to hear low-pitched sounds and a boat’s sound lowers in pitch as the boat slows. Therefore, this approach may in fact make things worse rather than better.
Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the conclusion?
(A) The areas where boats would have to maintain low speeds were decided partly on the basis of manatee-population estimates and partly from numbers of reported collisions between manatees and boats.
(B) Because the water hyacinth that manatees feed on grows best in water that is nearly still, water hyacinth beds can be disturbed or damaged by fast-moving boat traffic.
(C) Over the last several decades, boat traffic in Florida’s coastal waters has been increasing almost continuously and now represents the greatest threat to the endangered manatee population.
(D) The sound of a boat engine generally travels much further under water than it does through the air.
(E) When experimenters exposed manatees to the recorded sounds of boats moving at various speeds, the creatures were unable to discern the sounds over normal-background noise.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B.

Explanation:

In the situation given in the question, it is stated that manatees can not hear low-pitched sounds of the slow boats and therefore this could cause more collisions and deaths.

The answer that can cast doubt on the conclusion, if true, is that the hyacinth that the manatees feed on grows best in water that is still, so it would make sense for the boats the slow down even though the risk of a collision with a manatee increases.

I hope this answer helps.

If calcium channels open in the plasma membrane, calcium ions enter the cell. If calcium channels open in the plasma membrane, calcium ions enter the cell. True False

Answers

Answer:

its True that it would enter the cell

Final answer:

It is true that calcium ions enter the cell when calcium channels in the plasma membrane open, which is important for cellular communication and responses like muscle contraction and neurotransmitter release.

Explanation:

The statement that calcium ions enter the cell when calcium channels in the plasma membrane open is true. This is a fundamental concept in cellular biology related to how cells communicate and respond to signals. Voltage-gated calcium channels are a type of gated ion channel that opens in response to changes in the cell's membrane potential. When a nerve impulse triggers the opening of these channels, calcium ions (Ca2+) rapidly enter the cell, leading to depolarization of the membrane. This increase in calcium concentration within the cytoplasm is crucial for processes such as muscular contraction and cellular signaling.

For example, the presence of calcium can facilitate the interaction between proteins like synaptotagmin and SNARE proteins, which are critical for the release of neurotransmitters at synapses. Moreover, other types of calcium channels can be activated by different mechanisms, including the binding of specific agonists or changes in electrical charge across the membrane, highlighting the diverse roles of calcium signaling in various cellular functions.

In trying to determine whether dna or protein is the genetic material, what are the things that differs between the two?

Answers

Answer/Explanation:

Genetic material is essential for the growth and reproduction of an organism and the continuity of life. If an organism cannot pass on the required instructions in order to make a copy of itself, it cannot continue to reproduce.

Think of DNA like a set of instructions. This DNA is transcribed (copied) to a message (RNA) that is then translated to a functional output (proteins). The proteins are what carries out all the essential functions in the cell. However, without DNA, the cell/organism would not have the necessary information in order to make the proteins.

The sequence of the DNA is what determines the sequence of the polypeptide chains that make proteins. These proteins carry out essential tasks in the cell, including catalysing reactions, signalling, performing structural tasks, and many more.

The DNA is also what is passed on to the next generation via cell division, in the formation of chromosomes. Chromosomes provide the daughter cells with the information to continue carrying out the functions necessary for survival via DNA encoding proteins.

Whichecological roles is/are played by at least some fungi?

Answers

Answer:

Predation, decomposition

Explanation:

Fungi is very much important for the environment and play an important role in balancing the environment because they play many ecological roles. All fungi are heterotrophs so they depend on others to get their food.

One of the most important roles played by fungi is of decomposers. Most of the fungi are saprophytes and they get their nutrition from dead and decaying organic matter. So by doing this, they help in nutrient cycle and bioremediation.

Some fungi also play the ecological role of predators and prey on amoebas, roundworms, and rotifers, animals, etc. Therefore correct answer is predation and decomposition

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