Answer:
C) Members of a breeding population should become more uniform in phenotype.
Explanation:
The blending hypothesis was the accepted theory during the time of Charles Darwin and the Gregor Mendel.
The blending hypothesis suggested that the traits which arise in the offspring is the intermediate form of the mother and father that is if short male crossed with a tall female then will result in the intermediate height of the offspring.
This theory has many limitations as the evidence does not support the theory and also the next generation formed will be more uniform than the previous generation.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________. A) it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation B) contractions would last as long as the refractory period C) tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action D) pacemaker cells would cease to spontaneously depolarize
Answer:
C. tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action.
Explanation:
The absolute refractory period of the cardiac muscle action potential refers to the time interval when the voltage gated sodium channels are inactivated. The absolute refractory period lasts ~180 msec. The action potential lasts 200-220 msec.
The refractory period of cardiac muscle is dramatically longer than that of skeletal muscle. This prevents tetanus from occurring and ensures that each contraction is followed by enough time to allow the heart chamber to refill with blood before the next contraction.
In order words, It is important for the cardiac muscle cells to have a longer refractory period, because if they were short like the skeletal muscles, the heart could enter tetanic contraction/summation which is when muscle is stimulated so rapidly that it does not have a chance to relax at all between stimuli.
The tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action. Thus the option C is correct.
What are tetanic contractions ?The tetanic contraction is the muscle that contraction is evoked when the motor nerve innervates the skeletal muscle and has an action potential at a very high rate.
At this stage, the motor unit has a max stimulated by the motor neuron and remains the same way for some time. An example is that of holding a heavy box.
Find out more information about the cardiac muscle.
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The inhabitants of the planet Mendel have three alleles for hair color: red (R), white (W) and blue (b). The R and W alleles exhibit codominance, and individuals with an RW genotype have pink hair. The b allele is recessive, so only individuals with a bb genotype have blue hair. If a red-haired Mendelian mates with a white-haired Mendelian, what are all the possible hair color phenotypes their offspring might theoretically have
Answer:
4 RW pink hair color
Explanation:
Let the allele for red hair color = R
Let the allele for white hair color = W
Let the allele for blue hair color = b
Since R and W exhibit co dominance it means none of both traits have the tendency or capability to masked the other .
As such individual with RW genotype = PInk hair color
Allele b is recessive and only individuals with the genotype bb exhibit the blue allele
Now; if a cross occurs between a red-haired Mendelian and a white-haired Mendelian
i.e
RR × WW
we have
R R
W RW RW
W RW RW
So we have the following offspring :
4 RW = 4 pink
So theoretically , the possible phenotypes results to 4 RW pink hair color
All of them will have pink hair,that is RW
When a homozygous red hair (RR) is crossed with a homozygous white hair (WW), all the offsprings will have pink hair(RW).
This is because self y pollination of the pink hair F1 generation offsprings produces a mixture of F2 generation offsprings bearing red(RR), pink(RW) and white (WW) in the ratio of 1:2:1.
This reappearance of the red hair and white hair offsprings in the F2 generation shows that the alleles (R) and (W) have remained unaltered in the F1 generation.
All the offsprings will have a phenotypic pink hair because the (R) and (W) are not dominant over each other.
The effect of each allele is modified by the presence of the other to produce a third phenotype (the pink hair offspring). This is known as incomplete dominance. Here, the way the alleles for hair are segregated and transmitted agrees with Mendel's proposals.
The observed phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 in the F2 generation instead of the typical Mendelian 3:1 ratio is due to the hetero zygote showing a hair colour of its own.
Incomplete dominance is the ability of two alleles to produce a heterozygous phenotype that is different from the two homozygous phenotypes
The Indian leaf butterfly has traits that allow it to resemble a leaf. The bright colors of the monarch butterfly indicates that the butterfly’s tastes bad and can be poisonous. How does the appearance of these butterfly’s help them survive
Answer:
(Indian Leaf Butterfly) CAMOUFLAGED
(Monarch Butterfly) CHEMICAL DEFENSE and COLOURFUL WARNING SIGNALS
Explanation:
The Indian leaf butterflies survives by camouflaging to deceive a potential enemy. They could also seek survival by blending to their presents environment such that a supposed enemy finds it hard to identify with their presence.
The monarch Butterfly are very colourful and are super in defending themselves through chemical means.
By chemical defense, they do well to feed on milkweed which is highly poisonous but they have their way of isolating themselves from the consumed poison.
They also send away predators using their colourful warning signals and bright colours. This colours informs predators that they contain poisonous contents.
When a predator bites a monarch Butterfly, it taste the poisons in the wings of the butterfly and let it go. But if peradventure a birds swallows a monarch, the experience of the taste of the poisons teaches the bird never to hunt a monarch Butterfly again
Which compound plays a pivotal role in both the first and last step of the TCA cycle? a. pyruvate b. oxaloacetate c. oxalate d. glycerol e. acetyl CoA
Answer:
Option b oxaloacetate is the right one.
Explanation:
There are major eight steps in TCA cycle. Oxaloacetate plays a pivotal role in first and eight steps of cycle.
Step 1. In the first step of the citric acid cycle, acetyl CoA joins with a four-carbon molecule, oxaloacetate, releasing the CoA group and forming a six-carbon molecule called citrate.
Step 8. In the last step of the citric acid cycle, oxaloacetate—the starting four-carbon compound-is regenerated by oxidation of malate. Another molecule of NAD+ is reduced to NADH in the process.
Which features is a significant difference in the function of dna polymerases versus rna polymerases?
Answer:
the ansier is
Explanation:
c adobina;
DNA polymerases require a primer and have proofreading functions, while RNA polymerases can initiate synthesis without a primer and use uracil-containing ribonucleotides. RNA polymerases are more complex in eukaryotes, involving different types for synthesizing various RNA molecules.
Explanation:A significant difference in the function of DNA polymerases versus RNA polymerases is found in their operational mechanics and biochemical requirements. DNA polymerases, such as DNA polymerase I in prokaryotes, require a primer to initiate DNA synthesis and possess 5'→3' exonuclease activity to remove these RNA primers. DNA polymerases also have proofreading abilities, enabling them to correct errors during DNA replication.
In contrast, RNA polymerases do not require a primer to begin transcription. Instead, they are capable of initiating RNA synthesis from scratch. Furthermore, RNA polymerases use ribonucleotide triphosphates (NTPs) that contain uracil, instead of thymine found in DNA. RNA polymerases in eukaryotes are also more complex than those in prokaryotes, with three main types (RNA polymerase I, II, and III) each made up of more than 10 subunits and needing a distinct set of transcription factors to initiate transcription.
E. coli grown in the presence of lactose, but absence of glucose, will use the enzyme beta-galactosidase to digest lactose. How are these cells different from cells which are grown in the absence of lactose and presence of glucose
Answer: Lac operon
Explanation: the same cells when grown in glucose media utilize the glucose as source if energy by blocking the activity of the enzyme beta- galactosidase. the operator site of the operon is blocked thereby preventing the activity of the collective functional genes.
E. coli utilizes beta-galactosidase to digest lactose via induction of the lac operon when grown in lactose without glucose. However, in the presence of glucose, where lactose is absent, the lac operon is repressed preventing the production of lactose-utilizing enzymes. This is due to the operon's regulation by a repressor and the presence of catabolite repression through the catabolite activator protein.
Explanation:E. coli cells grown in the presence of lactose but the absence of glucose will create beta-galactosidase to digest lactose because lactose induces expression of the lac operon, which encodes the necessary proteins for lactose utilization, including beta-galactosidase. However, when these cells are grown in the presence of glucose and absence of lactose, the lac operon is kept repressed by a repressor protein as glucose suppresses the lac operon's activity. The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the lac operon, preventing transcription of the operon's genes which include lacZ (encoding beta-galactosidase), lacY (lactose permease), and lacA (transacetylase).
Growth on glucose inhibits the induction of the lac operon due to the presence of catabolite repression by a mechanism involving catabolite activator protein (CAP) and cyclic AMP (cAMP). Once the glucose level drops, cAMP levels rise, allowing cAMP to bind to CAP, which subsequently binds to a site near the lac operon, facilitating RNA polymerase binding and initiating transcription of the operon when lactose is present.
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A twin study is conducted to examine the role of genetics and environment on the fondness of individuals for chocolate. Which of the following results would lead to the conclusion that genetic factors are important in the development of this trait?
a. Twins who have lived together are more similar on the trait than twins who have lived apart.
b. Twins who have lived apart are more similar on the trait than twins who have lived together.
c. Identical twins are more similar on the trait than fraternal twins.
d. Fraternal twins are more similar on the trait than identical twins
"Identical twins are more similar on the trait than fraternal twins" would lead to the conclusion that genetic factors are important in the development of this trait.
Option: C
Explanation:
Research performed on identical or fraternal twins are twin investigations. We seek to expose the significance for characteristics, phenotypes and diseases of environmental and genetic factors. Twin work is considered a key instrument in the domains of behavioral genetics and material, from biology to psychology.
Fraternal or dizygous twins each share around 50 % of their DNA, just like any other parent. Since the twins are born into the same family they share other factors of their surroundings. The existence of a given genetic or phenotypic trait in just one component of a pair of twins called discordance offers a valuable insight into influence on such a trait on climate.
Imagine that we mate two black Labrador dogs with normal vision and find that three of the puppies are like the parents, but one puppy is chocolate with normal vision and another is black with PRA (progressive retinal atrophy, a serious disease of vision). We can conclude that
Answer:
In the given case, both the parents exhibit black color with normal vision, however, the progenies from these parents exhibit black color with one exhibiting brown color, while one is black in color but exhibiting a condition associated with vision known as PRA. This indicates that both these parents are heterozygous and the brown color and PRA are the recessive traits.
The progenies showing black normal vision, brown normal vision and black with PRA, indicates that the alleles for these genes have got segregated autonomously of each other.
Answer:
the alleles for color and vision segregate independently during gamete formation
Explanation: i swear its right hope it hepls
You fall backeard and hit your head very hard on sharp rock.The blow to your head causes you to lose consciouness and stop breathing.You most likely hot what part of your brain?Cerebellum. Frontal lobe. Brain stem.
Answer:
Brain stem
Explanation:
The cerebellum is key to maintaining balance and coordination, not involuntary actions such as breathing.
The frontal lobe of the brain is responsible for things like emotions, memory, and language. Not breathing and consciousness. Plus, the frontal lobe is at the front of your brain, and you hit the back of your head.
But the brain stem is responsible for breathing, swallowing, heart rate, consciousness, and other involuntary actions your body does.
When you stifle a sneeze, you can damage delicate tissues because the pressure of the air that is not allowed to escape may rise by up to 45 kPa. If this extra pressure acts on the inside of your 8.4-mm-diameter eardrum, what is the outward force
Answer: The outward force is 5934.6N.
Explanation: Pressure is force per area. As the eardrum is a circular organ and has 4.2·[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]m of radius, the area of the organ will be:
Area = π·r²
Area = 3.14·(4.2.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex])²
Area = 13.2·[tex]10^{-2}[/tex]m²
To calculate force:
P = F/A
F = P·A
F = 45.[tex]10^{3}[/tex]·13.2·[tex]10^{-2}[/tex]
F = 5934.6N
The outward force is F=5934.6N.
The outward force would be 2.49 N
By definition, pressure is the ratio of force and area. In other words, the pressure exerted by a force on an object is the magnitude of the force divided by the area of the object on which the force is acting.
Mathematically;
Pressure = force/area
In this case,
pressure = 45 kPa (45,000 Pa)
diameter of eardrum = 8.4 mm (0.0084 m)
radius = 0.0042 m
area of eardrum = πr2
= 3.14 x 0.0042^2
= 0.0000554 m2
Force = pressure x area
= 45,000 x 0.0000554
= 2.49 N
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Where is dense connective tissue found on the surface of a long bone
Answer: In the diaphysis.
Explanation:
As early vertebrates transitioned from an aquatic lifestyle to terrestrial habits, major changes in structural and physiological characteristics facilitated their survival and expansion. It is likely that some of these traits are a result of:_________ a) changes in developmentally important genes, as in evo-devo the ability of some cells to incorporate environmental DNA, or eDNA, into its genome b) new Hox genes that reverse some steps in development c) transcription factors that originate outside of the developing embryo d) new interactions between cytoplasmic determinants and the nucleus
Answer:
Option-(A): The changes in developmentally important genes, as in evo-devo the ability of some cells to incorporate environmental DNA, or eDNA, into its genome
Explanation:
The term evolution gets to play the most important role when we evaluate the conditions faced by the different organisms when the shifted from the aquatic form of life towards the terrestrial as there were more to perform for there body system and it all just did not happened in a day or two but it took millions of years of evolution inside the living beings to make them able to live on land. As, the genome of the different species was greatly changed and thus there cellular structures were made to defend the body from any foreign object and make it able to survive on land as well, just because there is difference of oxygen level and other natural resources inside the different spheres and for that some of the changes inside the cellular structures were required to be done.
Tropomyosin is long enough to cover the active sites on _________ g- actin molecules.
Explanation:
Tropomyosin is a progression of long string-like polypeptides joined start to finish that matches every F actin strand, strengthens and solidifies the F dynamic strands, and capacities to either cover up or uncover the "dynamic sites" on each globular actin molecule.One single tropomyosin atom is sufficiently long to cover the dynamic restricting destinations on seven G-actin particles. These are where actin atoms tie with the thicker myosin particles.Why does synthetically produced RNase refold incorrectly if the reducing agent is removed before urea removal?
Explanation:
The high concentration of urea causes unfolding of protein and thus results in loss of function of a protein. The urea interacts with the protein and prevents the folding of a protein. During oxidation, the disulfide bonds that are required for proper functioning and stabilization of protein are formed, while in the presence of urea, the disulfide bonds are not positioned correctly. The protein oxidation results in covalent modification of a protein that results in the change of physical and chemical properties of a protein. The change of physical and chemical properties of protein after oxidation and in the presence of urea cannot be modified even after the removal of urea. Thus, protein does not fold properly.Hence the right answer is "disulfide bonds are not positioned correctly rather than week bonding interaction"
Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. an overdose of aspirin. b. a narcotic overdose. c. a respiratory infection. d. high blood glucose levels.
Answer:
C. Narcotic overdose
Explanation:
The narcotics cause respiratory depression as they decrease the response to the increased partial pressure of carbondioxide pCO2 , thus resulting in depression of the respiratory centre in brain and no hyperventilation occurs Hence option B is the right answer.
Hyperventilation is occurring in option A because aspirin overdose cause direct respiratory center stimulation resulting in respiratory alkalosis causing hyperventilation.
Hyperventilation is occuring in option C as most of the respiratory infections e.g pneumonia is associated with hyperventilation due to swelling and accumuation of fluid in lungs causing fast breath.
Hyperventilation also occurs in high blood glucose levels hence option D is also excluded.
Hyperventilation is associated with various conditions, but high blood glucose levels are not typically associated with it.
Explanation:Hyperventilation is a condition characterized by rapid and deep breathing, leading to an abnormal decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This can be associated with various conditions and factors, but high blood glucose levels are not typically associated with hyperventilation. However, an overdose of aspirin, a narcotic overdose, and a respiratory infection can all be associated with hyperventilation.
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An articulation in which bones are joined by ____________ is called a synchondrosis. Functionally, all synchondroses are ____________ and thus are classified as ____________ . The ____________ in children form synchondroses that bind the epiphyses and diaphysis of long bones. When bones stop growing, ____________ replaces the synchondrosis and it no longer exists. Other examples of synchondroses are the ____________ synchondrosis found between some cranial bones of the skull and ____________ , the articulations between each bony rib and its respective costal cartilage.
Answer:
1. hyaline cartilage
2. immobile
3. synarthroses
4. epiphyseal plates
5. osseous tissue
6. sphenoid-occipital
7. costochondral joints
Explanation:
Synchondroses is a cartilaginous joint that is attached by hyaline cartilage in the body that can be temporary or permanent. These bones are immobile as the are not freely mobile or movable so classified as the synarthroses.
The great example of such joints is epiphyseal plates. In children epiphyseal platees form Synchondroses that bind the epiphyses and diaphysis of long bones. Osseous tissue occurs and replace synchondrosis once it does not grow further. Two other examples are sphenoid-occipital costochondral joints.
Thus, the correct answers are :
1. hyaline cartilage
2. immobile
3. synarthroses
4. epiphyseal plates
5. osseous tissue
6. sphenoid-occipital
7. costochondral joints
Synchondrosis is an immovable joint formed by the presence of cartilage between bones. It is found in children's growth plates and other areas of the body. When bones stop growing, the synchondrosis is replaced by ossification.
Explanation:An articulation in which bones are joined by cartilage is called a synchondrosis. Functionally, all synchondroses are immovable and thus are classified as fibrous joints. The growth plates in children form synchondroses that bind the epiphyses and diaphysis of long bones. When bones stop growing, ossification replaces the synchondrosis and it no longer exists. Other examples of synchondroses are the spheno-occipital synchondrosis found between some cranial bones of the skull and costochondral joints, the articulations between each bony rib and its respective costal cartilage.
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(1) Cell membranes (plasma membranes) help organisms maintain__________ homeostasis by controlling what substances may enter or leave cells. (2) Some substances can cross a cell membrane through passive transport, while other substances can only cross a cell membrane through active transport. What is the difference between active and passive cellular transport?
Answer:
Explanation:
Active cellular transport:
It is the movement of molecules against the concentration gradient (from low concentration to high). Active transport requires expense of energy supplied by ATP.It is a rapid way to transport of large sized molecules.Passive cellular transport:
It is the movement of molecules along the concentration gradient (from high concentration to low).Passive transport does not require expense of energy. It is a slow process and small sized molecules get transprorted.The key difference between active and passive cellular transport is the use of cellular energy. Passive transport does not require energy and moves substances from high to low concentration. In contrast, active transport requires energy to move substances from low to high concentration.
Explanation:The difference between active and passive cellular transport lies in the use of cellular energy. Passive transport does not require energy from the cell. Examples of passive transport include diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated diffusion. Substances move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration until equilibrium is reached.
Active transport, on the other hand, does require energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate). This is because substances are moved against their concentration gradient, from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. An example of active transport is the Sodium-Potassium pump in nerve cells.
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A typical fire regime for a boreal forest might have fire re-occurring every
Answer:
A typical fire regime for a boreal forest might have fire re-occurring every 53 years.
Explanation:
The fires caused in the boreal region adds essential nutrients to the soil. Some tree species are even dependent on the heat from fire to disperse their seeds, and the natural burn cycle helps maintain a healthy forest ecosystem. On average, wildfires burn anywhere between 5 to 20 million hectares of boreal forest each year. In Russia, low to moderately intense surface-level fires return every 53 years; for Canada, the return interval is roughly 180 years.
The cell cycle is the Select one: a. series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide. b. period of time between the birth and the death of a cell. c. time from prophase until cytokinesis. d. time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis.
Answer:
A) series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide
Explanation:
Cell cycle refers to the sequential events which take place during the division of one parent cell to daughter cells.
Since the cell divides continuously in the multicellular organism therefore these events are repeated over and over again that is the same steps are repeated a thus is known as cyclic events.
The cell cycle takes place into two phases: the interphase during which the cell prepares itself for nuclear division and the karyokinesis during which the nucleus divides.
Thus, Option-A is correct.
In a phospholipid bilayer, the __________.a. phosphate groups are hydrophobic. b. fatty acid tails are ionized. c. fatty acid tails are hydrophilic. d. proteins are located only between the two layers. e. phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm.
Answer:
Option-E
Explanation:
The phospholipid bilayer is the layer which forms the outer membrane of the cell.
The phospholipid layer is amphipathic as it contains both the hydrophilic and hydrophobic portions.
The phospholipid is composed of the glycerol attached to phosphate groups which form head or hydrophilic region and the 3 fatty acid tails which form the hydrophobic portion.
The head or hydrophilic portion is arranged in the layer facing the outer external portions and the inside of the cytoplasm as the lipid layer exist in the bilayer.
Thus, Option-E is correct.
_______________ hormones include steroids and bind to ____________ receptors.
Explanation:
Steroid hormone, any of a gathering of hormones that have a place with the class of substance mixes known as steroids; they are discharged by three "steroid organs"— the adrenal cortex, testicles, and ovaries—and during pregnancy by the placenta. All steroid hormones are gotten from cholesterol. They are moved through the circulatory system to the cells of different objective organs where they do the guideline of a wide scope of physiological capacities.What is the ploidy of the zygote produced by fertilization
Answer:
The ploidy of the zygote produced by fertilization is diploid.
The ploidy level of a zygote that is produced by fertilization is diploid.
A zygote is the initial cell formed when two gametes, an egg (female gamete) and a sperm (male gamete) fuse during the process of fertilization. It is the earliest stage of development in sexually reproducing organisms.
After fertilization, the zygote contains the complete set of chromosomes, half from each parent. It carries the genetic information that determines the characteristics of the offspring. The zygote undergoes rapid cell division through a process called cleavage. It results in the formation of an embryo.
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When two plates form a subduction zone, which plate will subduct?
A. The continental plate
B. The less dense plate
C. The denser plate
D. Both plates are equally likely to subduct.
Answer:
C. The denser plate
Explanation:
The denser plate of the two (usually the oceanic plate) will subduct down into the mantle. I remember learning this in Geology 101 last year!
In subduction zone, the denser plate subduct under the less dense plate. Option C is correct.
Subduction Zone:
It is an area where one tectonic plate thrust over the other at the rate of several centimeter per year. These are the seismogenic zone, where earthquake occur frequently.
In the subduction, denser tectonic plate is recycled in the mantle with slow rate because less dense plate float over the mantle more than the dense plate.
Therefore, when two plates form a subduction zone, the denser plate will subduct into the mantle.
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A scientist studies cellular respiration. He measures the rate of cellular respiration in people doing different activities. Which activity will increase cellular respiration the most?
Answer:
Vigorous physical exercise
Explanation:
The question is incomplete and the options are not available anywhere therefore the most appropriate answer would be the physical exercise.
The cellular respiration is the process which oxidises the substances in the food especially the carbohydrates, proteins and fats. This oxidation form the energy molecule called ATP which is used during the various process.
The cellular respiration increase in the body when the body has to require a large amount of energy especially during the moderate to hard or vigorous physical work. Increased respiration provides ATP.
Thus, Vigorous physical exercise is correct.
It has been suggested that men in many cultures tend to marry women younger than themselves because men are genetically predisposed to seek female features associated with youthful fertility. This suggestion BEST illustrates:a. social learning theory.
b. behavior genetics.
c. Freudian psychology.
d. an evolutionary perspective.
This suggestion BEST illustrates: an evolutionary perspective.
Explanation:
It has been observed that older men tend to marry younger women and women prefer to marry older and taller men. This could be thought of as a evolutionary perspective because by selecting such mates they make them socially more fit. Because when men marry younger women they tend to stick to the single relationship as per their psychological nature. Again when women marry older men they ensure their safety.
Final answer:
The tendency for men to marry younger women due to attraction to youthful fertility is best explained by an evolutionary perspective (d), which is concerned with behaviors that increase the chances of gene propagation. Evolutionary psychology shows that both sexes have developed particular mate preferences that are advantageous for reproductive success. Sociobiologists emphasize the role of genetic and physical traits as indicators of a suitable mate.
Explanation:
The suggestion that men in many cultures tend to marry women younger than themselves because of a genetic predisposition to seek features associated with youthful fertility best illustrates an evolutionary perspective. This perspective is based on the idea that behaviors and preferences have developed over time to increase the likelihood of passing on genes to the next generation. Men are predisposed to seek multiple relationships with younger women to improve their inclusive fitness, while women tend to select partners who can provide and protect resources, which often correlates with higher socioeconomic status and older age. Evolutionary psychologists have found that preferences for traits such as youth and attractiveness in mates generally align with the needs of reproductive success. This is because such characteristics are indicators of good health and fertility. Men may value physical traits that suggest potential reproductive capacity more than women, who may prioritize the capacity of a mate to provide resources and protection. Sociobiologists and evolutionary psychologists also consider how physical characteristics and genetic traits influence mating strategies and preferences. These biological factors, such as symmetry and sex prototypicality, are seen as evidence of genetic fitness and the ability to produce healthy offspring. Simultaneously, women's preferences are also shaped by cultural factors that emphasize qualities such as love and kindness, which can provide social security and emotional support.
If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?1. A and D2. B and D3. B and C4. D and E
D and E
Explanation:
As we move from a higher rank to a lower rank in the taxonomic hierarchy, the degree of similarities increases.i.e. the degree of similarities increases from kingdom to species. Species contain the individual who are most similar and can interbreed among themselves.
Since, A , B and C belong to same class while C, D and E belong to same order, the degree of similarity between C,D and E will be more than that of the degree of similarity between A, B and C.
Again since C belongs to the class of A and B ,it will be more distant from D and E.
Thus D and E will be more similar than D and C or E and C.
Proper folding of proteins is essential for their biological activity. In general, the functional conformation of a protein is the conformation with lowest energy. This means that if an unfolded protein is allowed to reach equilibrium, it should assemble automatically into its native, functioning folded state. Why then is there a need for molecular chaperones and chaperonins in cells?
Explanation:
In order to the protein fold into the tertiary and, by consequence, the operational structure, an energy barrier has to be broken. The lowest Gibbs energy is achieved when the protein is in the native state. But, by looking the a free energy diagram of a protein, the transformation of a misfolded to a native state has to be performed by a catalyzation process using chaperone or a chaperonin, depending of the organism.
11) algae → water flea → small fish → big fish Use the food chain to answer the question. What would MOST LIKELY happen to the population of the water flea if the algae decreased? A) It would increase. B) It would decrease. C) It would not change. D) It would first increase, then decrease.
Answer: Option B) It would decrease
Explanation:
Since algae is a producer, while water flea is a primary consumer; a decrease in algae infer a shortage of food for the water flea, which therefore begins Intra-specie competition that could lead to starvation and death among the water flea specie.
Two members of the excavate clade that can cause disease are:______. a. euglenids and kinetoplastids. b. dinoflagellates and apicomplexans. c. loboseans and plasmodial slime molds. d. cercozoans and foraminiferans. e. diplomonads and parabasalids.
Answer:
Two members of the excavate clade that can cause disease are diplomonads and parabasalids
Explanation:
The excavate clade comprises of unicellular organisms which are eukaryotic. This group contains free-living organisms as well as organisms which form symbiotic relationships.
The diplomonads can be described as a group of flagellates which are considered to be parasitic. Some of them are even parasites to the humans.
The parabasalids are a group of flagellated protists within the supergroup Excavata. These organisms also form parasitic relationships.
The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following except
OPTIONS:
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) the venae cavae.
C) the spleen.
D) lymph nodes.
E) lymph.
Answer:
B) the venae cavae.
Explanation:
The lymphatic system is an organ system that consists of a network of lymphoid tissues, lymphatic vessels and organs, which perform functions such as removal of toxins and unwanted materials, as well as production of immune cells that helps primarily in fighting against infection.
Lymphatic vessels, the spleen, lymph nodes, and lymph are all part of the lymphatic system.The venae cavae are two large vessels that empty deoxygenated blood received from all parts of the body into the right atrium. They are not part of the lymphatic system.