During cellular respiration, the bonds of food molecules are broken, so energy can be released to fuel other cellular processes. In order for this to occur, which of the following statements must be true?
A.
The new compounds that are formed must be more complex than the food molecules that were broken down.
B.
New compounds with lower-energy bonds must be formed when the high-energy bonds in food molecules are broken.
C.
New compounds with higher-energy bonds must be formed when the low-energy bonds in food molecules are broken.
D.
The energy in the new compounds that are formed must be equal to the energy in the bonds of the food molecules.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Chemical potential energy is stored in glucose's carbohydrate bonds, and these bonds can be broken to fuel the production of ATP. Energy in ATP can then be used to perform cellular work.

Explanation:

Letter:B

Answer 2
Final answer:

During cellular respiration, high-energy bonds in food molecules are broken to form new compounds with lower-energy bonds, like ATP. The energy released during this process powers various cell functions. The correct option is B.

Explanation:

In the process of cellular respiration, the correct option is B: New compounds with lower-energy bonds must be formed when the high-energy bonds in food molecules are broken. This is because energy is released when high-energy bonds in glucose or other food molecules are broken during cellular respiration. The energy that is released is then used to synthesize ATP, a molecule with lower-energy bonds. ATP can then be used by the cell for energy-demanding processes. ATP serves as the 'energy currency' of the cell, providing a ready source of energy that powers numerous cellular functions.

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Related Questions

what organisms undergo cellular respiration?​

Answers

All living organisms except some bacteria and yeast.

Various organisms undergo cellular respiration, including animals, plants, fungi, and most bacteria.

Cellular respiration is a fundamental process in which cells convert glucose and oxygen into energy (ATP) while producing carbon dioxide and water as byproducts.

In animals, cells in tissues and organs carry out respiration to power their physiological functions.

Plants perform cellular respiration in addition to photosynthesis, utilizing oxygen during the night and in non-photosynthetic tissues.

Fungi, like animals, rely on cellular respiration for energy production. Even many single-celled organisms, such as bacteria, perform cellular respiration to extract energy from nutrients.

This process is vital for life, providing the energy needed to sustain various biological activities.

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Which setting would allow you to observe a specimen with the highest possible magnification?​

Answers

The setting which would allow us to observe a specimen with the highest possible magnification is the Objective 10x Ocular 10x.

Explanation:

To observe a specimen with the highest possible magnification is the magnification needed to be the maximum. To gain such a magnification, magnification power of objective and magnification power of ocular or eye lens will be required together at max being the product. Because,

Magnification of object = magnification by ocular lens x magnification by objective lens.

Thereby, among the option, when the magnification power of objective lens is 10X and that of ocular lens is 10X, together will produce a magnification of 100X.

Final answer:

The highest possible magnification to observe a specimen can be achieved using the oil immersion objective lens with a magnification of 1000X and a resolution of 0.2°m.

Explanation:

To observe a specimen with the highest possible magnification, you should use the oil immersion objective lens on a light microscope. This lens can achieve a total magnification of 1000X, which means objects appear 1000 times larger than they are. A resolution of 0.2°m is the practical limit due to the diffraction of light waves, but the oil immersion objective allows for the observation of small structures such as bacteria, which are difficult to see clearly without this enhancement.

When preparing to use the oil immersion lens, you should first sequentially increase the objective magnification up to 40x. Once you focus on the target area, you can then swing the objective halfway to 100x magnification and add a drop of immersion oil to the area of analysis before finally focusing the specimen at the full 1000x magnification using the oil immersion objective.

What cavities are in the head, but are not included within the major cavities?

Answers

Answer:

Dorsal cavity

I hope it is correct for you!!!!!!!!!

Final answer:

The paranasal sinuses are cavities in the head that are separate from the major cavities like the cranial and spinal cavities.

Explanation:

The cavities in the head that are not included within the major cavities are the paranasal sinuses. These are air-filled spaces located within the bones of the skull and face, including the frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and maxillary sinuses. The paranasal sinuses are lined with mucous membranes and help to warm and humidify the air we breathe.



Some functions of the paranasal sinuses include reducing the weight of the skull, resonating the voice, and providing a buffer zone for facial trauma.



Therefore, the paranasal sinuses are cavities within the head that are separate from the major cavities such as the cranial and spinal cavities.

The recessive sex linked gene (h) prolongs The blood clotting time resulting in genetically inherited disease The blood clotting time resulting in genetically inherited disease called hemophilia.

Answers

a) If II2 is a carrier (heterozygous Hh), there is a 50% chance of having a hemophiliac child, as she could pass on the recessive allele (h) to her offspring.

b) The chance of having a hemophiliac boy is 50%, as II2 can pass on either the normal allele (H) or the recessive allele (h) to the child.

c) The probability of her first child being phenotypically normal is 50%, as she can pass on either the normal allele (H) or the recessive allele (h) to her child.

d) This indicates that she is either homozygous dominant (HH) or a carrier (Hh).

(a) To determine the probability of the first child being a hemophiliac when individual 1-1-2 (II2) marries a normal man, you need to know the genotype of II2.

If II2 is a carrier (heterozygous Hh), there is a 50% chance of having a hemophiliac child, as she could pass on the recessive allele (h) to her offspring.

(b) If the first child is a hemophiliac, it indicates that II2 is a carrier (Hh). If II2 has another child with a normal man, the chance of having a hemophiliac boy is 50%, as II2 can pass on either the normal allele (H) or the recessive allele (h) to the child.

(c) If II4 has children with a hemophiliac man, you need to know the genotype of II4.

If II4 is phenotypically normal, it means she must be a carrier (Hh).

The probability of her first child being phenotypically normal is 50%, as she can pass on either the normal allele (H) or the recessive allele (h) to her child.

(d) If the mother of 1-2 (II2) is phenotypically normal, it means she does not express the hemophilia trait.

This indicates that she is either homozygous dominant (HH) or a carrier (Hh).

How do animals and other heterotrophs get carbon

Answers

Animals combine oxygen chemically with hydrogen atoms that they remove from their food—that is, from organic materials such as sugar, protein, and amino acids. Animals release water as a waste product from the oxygen respiration. Animals, like all heterotrophs, use organic materials as their sole source of carbon. - (www.britannica.com)

Deletion can happen as a gene mutation or as a chromosomal mutation. What is the difference?

Answers

Answer:

Chromosomal mutations: produce changes in the number or structure of chromosomes (they include deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations). Deletion: involves the loss of all or part of a chromosome.

Final answer:

Deletions describe the loss of a chromosome segment, often resulting in many genes missing, and represent a chromosomal mutation, while gene mutations refer to smaller-scale alterations affecting specific gene sequences within the DNA.

Explanation:

The difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation lies in the scale of the genetic alteration. A gene mutation, also known as a point mutation, involves a change in a single base pair or a few nucleotides within the DNA sequence, affecting a single gene. This is considered to be a micro-level alteration. On the other hand, a chromosomal mutation results in changes at the chromosome level, such as deletions where a large segment of a chromosome is lost, which may involve several to hundreds of genes, or duplications, where a section of the chromosome is repeated.

Chromosomal mutations can have significant consequences such as developmental delays, as illustrated by trisomy 21, which causes Down Syndrome. Other examples include inversions, where a segment of a chromosome breaks off, flips, and reattaches, and translocations, where segments between non-homologous chromosomes are exchanged. These large-scale alterations often impact multiple genes and can influence the overall structure and function of the chromosomes, leading to more profound effects on an organism compared to most gene mutations.

Read the observation, question, and hypothesis. Then choose the independent variable from the list
Observation Bread seems to turn moldy faster in summer than in winter
>
Question: Do hotter summer temperatures turn bread moldy faster?
Hypothesis Bread turns moldy faster at higher temperatures.
The independent variable is
bread
mold.
summer
O
temperature,

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer:

D temperature

Explanation:

LII-ralli
Which statement best explains how enzymes speed up chemical reactions?

Enzymes use light energy to speed up chemical reactions.

Enzymes gain heat from chemical reactions.

Enzymes change shape during chemical reactions.
activation energy of a reaction.

Answers

Answer:

Enzymes change shape during chemical reactions.  activation energy of a reaction.

Explanation:

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by reducing the activation energy of the reactants. The substrate fits in the active site on the surface of the enzyme. The enzyme change shape during chemical reaction by the formation  of an enzyme-substrate complex.

Answer:

Enzymes lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction

isted in the Item Bank are some key terms and expressions associated with the categories seen in the Venn Diagram. To find out more information about items, some have more details available when you click on them. Drag and drop each item onto the proper area of the diagram. If an item describes more than one category, be sure to place it in the overlapping space.

ITEM BANK: Move to Bottom
CO2 + H2O reactantsChemical reactionConverts glucose to ATPDoes not require oxygenEnergy involvedFermentationGlucose produced by
autotrophsLight energy converted to
usable chemical energyMaximum ATP productionOxygen is a reactantUses oxygen to produce ATP

Photosynthesis
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Photosynthesis & Aerobic respiration
Photosynthesis & Anaerobic respiration
Aerobic respiration & Anaerobic respiration
All


Answers

Explanation:

Photosynthesis

CO2 + H2O reactants Glucose produced by autotrophs Light energy converted to usable chemical energy

Aerobic respiration

Uses oxygen to produce ATP Maximum ATP production Oxygen is a reactant

 

Anaerobic respiration

Does not require oxygen Fermentation

Photosynthesis & Aerobic respiration

Photosynthesis & Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic respiration & Anaerobic respiration

Converts glucose to ATP

All

Chemical reaction Energy involved

Photosynthesis is a chemical reaction that fixes inorganic carbon into a complex molecule which stores converted light energy within its bonds. Cellular respiration is a complex process that starts in the cytoplasm. Glucose is split there for energy production. In oxygen-rich environments, eukaryotes may carry out aerobic respiration, while anaerobic respiration occurs in oxygen-poor ones.

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Final answer:

The Venn diagram should be filled by categorizing appropriate terms under Photosynthesis, Aerobic Respiration, and Anaerobic Respiration. Some items are unique to each category, while others overlap due to their relevance to multiple categories.

Explanation:

The Venn Diagram mentioned in the question seems to be designed to classify some phrases and terms under three states: Photosynthesis, Aerobic Respiration, and Anaerobic Respiration. Some of these elements from the item bank are exclusive to one state, while others can be associated with more than one state. Photosynthesis, for instance, would have 'Light energy converted to usable chemical energy' and 'CO2 + H2O reactants' associated with it. In the case of Aerobic respiration, phrases such as 'Uses oxygen to produce ATP', 'Converts glucose to ATP', and 'Oxygen is a reactant' would be a fit. For Anaerobic respiration or Fermentation, 'Does not require oxygen' and 'Glucose produced by autotrophs' would apply. Items such as 'Energy involved' and 'Chemical reaction' could be placed in the overlapping area as they are common to all.

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How is protein synthesis different from DNA replication?

Answers

Answer: In protein synthesis, an mRNA strand serves as a template while in DNA replication, a DNA strand serves as a template. Protein synthesis occurs in the ribosome while DNA replication occurs in the nucleus.

Explanation: DNA replication is a process by which a double stranded DNA molecule is copied into two identical daughter DNA molecules while protein synthesis is a process by which proteins are made from an mRNA molecule. In DNA replication, a DNA strand serves as a template while in protein synthesis, an mRNA strand serves as a template. DNA replication occurs in the nucleus while protein synthesis occurs in the ribosome. Another name for protein synthesis is translation.

which statement correctly compares the thickness of earths layers



Answers

The statement that correctly compares the thickness of layers of Earth is that Earth’s lithosphere is thinner than its asthenosphere.

Explanation:

The thickness of the asthenosphere is nearly 660 kilo metres and that of lithosphere thickness is nearly 100 kilo metres. therefore it is very clearly evident that the lithosphere is thinner that asthenosphere.

Not only that, lithosphere is nearly 6 times thinner than that of thickness of asthenosphere. The oceanic crust of Earth is thinner than mantle of the Earth. The outer core of the Earth is thinner than the mantle and the lithosphere is thicker than continental crust of the Earth.

Which term best describes the temperature and weather conditions of an organism's environment

Answers

Answer:

Abiotic factors can be described as the non-living components of an ecosystem. Biotic factors can be described as the living components of an ecosystem.

Abiotic factors include all the non- living components such as the weather, climate, temperature, soil, water of an area.

Biotic components include all the living organisms like the plants, animals, microorganisms of an ecosystem.

Hence, abiotic factors best describe the temperature and weather conditions of an organism's environment.

Final answer:

The term that describes the temperature and weather conditions of an organism's environment is 'climate'. Climate and temperature significantly affect the physiology, metabolism, and survival of organisms, leading to various adaptations. Animals may be ectotherms, whose body temperature varies with the environment, or endotherms, who maintain a constant body temperature.

Explanation:

Climate is the word that best conveys how hot or cold an environment is for an organism. The long-term, dependable atmospheric conditions of a particular region are referred to as the climate. It may have a big effect on how organisms behave and survive. A biome's climate is identified by its regular seasonal temperature and rainfall ranges. Unlike weather, which describes the state of the atmosphere over short time frames, climate represents patterns over longer periods.

Temperature, an aspect of climate, is critical to organisms as it affects their physiology and metabolic functions. Many living organisms can only survive within a specific range of temperatures, mainly due to limitations in enzyme activity and metabolic processes. Some organisms have adapted to tolerate significant fluctuations in temperature. For instance, certain animals can hibernate, going into a state of lowered metabolism and body temperature to survive in cold conditions. Similarly, some bacteria, referred to as extremophiles, can survive in extremely high-temperature conditions such as those found in geysers.

Moreover, animals can be divided into ectotherms and endotherms based on how they deal with environmental temperatures. Ectotherms, such as reptiles, do not internally regulate their body temperature, which varies with the environmental temperature. Endotherms, like mammals, use internal physiological mechanisms to maintain a fairly constant body temperature, regardless of environmental temperatures.

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why bother with the control plants if they are not going to be sprayed with gibberellic acid

Answers

Gibberellic acid is a natural growth hormone present in plants which helps plants to control growth naturally. Spraying additional gibberellic acid helps to stimulate plant growth. So even if it is not sprayed externally, the natural acid present in the plants still controls the growth.

Explanation:

Gibberellic acid (gibberellin) is naturally found in growing apical regions like the shoots, new young leaves, flowers. In the shoots, it helps to increase the inter-node length and thereby increases elongation of a plant through apical growth. They control the growth by acting as chemical messengers.

Farmers usually spray gibberellic acid during seed germination to accelerate plant growth, budding processes, increase foliage and flowering.  Spraying farms with bioactive gibberellins have led to a huge increase in plant growth leading to the green revolution.

Species A and B are found in the same ecosystem. What could be inferred from the data shown in the graph below?

Answers

Answer:

Species B is the predator of species A.

Explanation:

The graph illustrates a predator prey relationship.

A predator can be described as an organism that eats other organisms while the prey is the animal that is killed and eaten by the predator. Both the predators and the preys usually co-exist in the same ecosystem. The relationship between the predator and the prey affect the population of the organisms in all ecosystem; it determines the mortality of preys and the birth of new predators.

A chain reaction in fission nuclear reactions results in neutrons produced.

Answers

A chain reaction in fission nuclear reactions results in more neutrons being produced.

What is a nuclear chain reaction?

A nuclear chain reaction can be defined as a series of nuclear fissions which occurs when the neutrons released produces an additional nuclear fission in an average of one or more atomic nucleus.

This ultimately implies that, neutrons are used to trigger or initiate fission nuclear reactions in a nuclear chain reaction.

In conclusion, we can deduce that a chain reaction in fission nuclear reactions results in more neutrons being produced.

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A model of a specific event during meiosis is shown with various possible combinations. Which statement correctly cites evidence
from the model to support the idea that meiosis increases genetic diversity?

A- Chromosomes can coil during meiosis, creating a combination of alleles
that are new.
B- Chromosomes can mutate randomly during meiosis creating new
phenotypes in the daughter cells.
C-Chromosomes can replicate during meiosis, producing additional DNA with
which to pass on to the daughter cells.
D-Chromosomes can align in metaphase I in multiple possible arrangements
in a process called independent assortment.

Answers

Answer:

D) Chromosomes can align in metaphase I in multiple possible arrangements in a process called independent assortment.

Explanation:

Answer:

D

Explanation:

I had the same exact question and i just got it right.

the combination of phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen bases in DNA or RNA

Answers

Answer: The combination of phosphate, sugar, and nitrogen bases in DNA or RNA is called a nucleotide.

Explanation: Nucleotides are building blocks of RNA and DNA. In RNA, nucleotide are made up of ribose sugar, a nitrogenous base which can be adenine, uracil, cytosine and guanine; and a phosphate group. The nucleotides in RNA are called ribonucleotides. The nucleotides in DNA are called deoxyribonucleotides and they contain a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base which can be adenine, thymine, cytosine and guanine.

What are the chances of a given gamete receiving your mom's chromosome #1.

Answers

A gamete is randomly getting a copy of a chromosome from its mother and father. This means that gamete will get #1 from the mother and the next chromosome will be a pure chance of getting chromosome #2 from mother or father.

Explanation:

Meiosis is the process that separates the two chromosomes and giving one copy of each to the gamete. This is the reason why egg and sperm together are forming zygote which is diploid.The main advantage of sexual reproduction is that each clone is different. Each and every egg is different from each other. This is the same in the case of sperm too.  At the end of meiosis, males will have 1 cell with 4 sperms all are different in nature, but in females, it will one egg because, during cell division, one cell will hog the cytoplasm.

Translation
Match each part of the picture with its corect label on the right. Then answer the question
et Pro
I mRNA
2 TRNA
3. codon
4. anticodon
5. lone amino acid
6. growng polypeptide
Z large rbosomal subunit
8. small ribosomal subunit
UC
5 DACCCUAGÜCGGUAAAAAAAAA

Answers

A- growing polypeptide       B- Lone amino acid

C-  tRNA                                      D- Anticodon

E- mRNA                                F- Small ribosomal subunit

G- codon                             H- Large ribosomal subunit

Explanation:

Methionine (start codon) , leucine, methionine, arginine, aspartic acid, glycine, glycine, leucine, histidine, stop codon

Three types of RNA that takes part in the translation are:

mRNA: It is formed by the process of transcription. The DNA strand is copied as mRNA with help of RNA Polymerase. The mRNA strand is single- stranded and consists of codons which code for amino acids for the protein synthesis. Not full sequence of mRNA codes for amino acid chain there are non-coding regions called introns which are removed during splicing and only exons code for the amino acid sequences.

tRNA: It brings the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain by reading the codons from the mRNA. It has anticodon which helps in bringing the correct amino acid coding to mRNA sequence.

rRNA: rRna plus protein and ribosome makes up rRNA. The ribosomes are called protein factory,  because growing polypeptide chain is formed here. They are responsible for reading the correct amino acid bonding to form polypeptide. They are having two subunits smaller and bigger depending on their sedimentation rate by centrifugation.

In eukaryote,s protein synthesis occurs in the ribosomes which are present in the cytoplasm of the cell.

B. All the three nucleotides that code for amino acid are important because any base difference in amino acid will change the protein formed due to amino acid difference.

The question is about matching and identifying terms related to protein synthesis, as well as translating an mRNA sequence into an amino acid sequence.

In the given question, the student is asked to match each part of the picture with its correct label and then answer the question based on the provided information.

The labels include terms related to protein synthesis, such as mRNA, tRNA, codon, anticodon, growing polypeptide, large ribosomal subunit, and small ribosomal subunit.

The provided mRNA sequence, DACCCUAGÜCGGUAAAAAAAAA, represents a series of codons that can be translated into an amino acid sequence.

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Which is the shortest period of the cell cycle?

Answers

Answer:cytokinesis

Explanation:

Answer:

cytokinesis

Explanation: look at the cell cycle

Which of the following explains why antibiotics will not work against a viral infection?
A). Viruses replicate at such an accelerated rate that antibiotics are unable to control colonization and growth.
B). Viruses create highly resistant endospores that preserve their genetic material against antibiotics.
C). Viruses are not cellular and do not contain the lipid and protein markers targeted by antibiotics.
D). Viruses exchange genetic material with nearby bacteria that have become resistant to antibiotics.

Answers

Answer:

I think its C. Viruses are not cellular and do not contain the lipid and protein markers targeted by antibiotics.

Explanation:

Viruses are not considering living and are different to bacteria; they have a different structure and a different way of surviving. Viruses don’t have cell walls that can be attacked by antibiotics. Antibiotics basically attack the cell wall of bacteria or attach to markers on cell wall of bacteria to trigger some deadly reactions in bacteria which causes them to die. Viruses don't have cell wall instead they are surrounded by a protective protein coat.

Unlike bacteria, which attack your body’s cells from the outside, viruses actually move into, live in and make copies of themselves in your body’s cells.  Viruses can't reproduce on their own, like bacteria do, instead they attach themselves to healthy cells and reprogram those cells to make new viruses.

Therefore, I strongly believe it's C.

what is an action potential and how do the nociceptors trigger it

Answers

Answer AND Explanation:

Stimulation of the membrane causes it to become highly permeable to sodium ions, which diffuse rapidly to the inside due to the concentration gradient. The inside of the membrane becomes positively charged and the outside negatively charged. The membrane is then said to be depolarized. This constitutes the action potential. The reverse of the polarity of the membrane causes the beginning of repolarization.

In guinea pigs, the allele for a rough coat (R) is dominant over the allele for a smooth coat (r). A heterozygous guinea pig (Rr) and a homozygous recessive guinea pig (rr) reproduce and have 10 offspring. Explain how all 10 offspring can have smooth coats.

Answers

All the 10 offsprings have recessive smooth coats because all the progeny are formed by recessive r allele and resulted is smooth coat. It was because one of the parents was heterozygous.

Explanation:

Rough coat R is dominant over the allele for smooth coat r

Heterozygous guinea pig Rr is crossed with homozygous recessive guinea pig rr

So from the Punette square

      r     r

R  Rr    Rr

r   rr    rr

There are chances of occurrence of 50 % each of heterozygous rough and dominant recessive smooth coats.

From the result obtained in actual, all the offspring have smooth coats because all of these offsprings have receive recessive allele from their parent and have become homozygous recessive.

Final answer:

Inheritance of smooth coats in all offspring from a heterozygous (Rr) and homozygous recessive (rr) guinea pig mating is due to each offspring inheriting the recessive 'r' allele from both parents, which is statistically improbable but possible.

Explanation:

In guinea pigs, the allele for a rough coat (R) is dominant over the allele for a smooth coat (r). When a heterozygous guinea pig (Rr) reproduces with a homozygous recessive guinea pig (rr), their offspring can inherit one allele from each parent. The offspring could either be heterozygous (Rr) with a rough coat or homozygous recessive (rr) with a smooth coat. If all 10 offspring have smooth coats, it is likely because each offspring randomly received the recessive 'r' allele from the heterozygous parent and the recessive 'r' allele from the homozygous recessive parent, resulting in a genotype of rr, which expresses the smooth coat phenotype.

A heterozygous individual has a 50/50 chance of passing on the dominant or recessive allele. In this case, all offspring receiving the 'r' allele from the heterozygous parent would have smooth coats, as the 'rr' genotype expresses the recessive phenotype. However, it is statistically improbable for all offspring to inherit the same allele unless other factors are influencing inheritance or a very small sample size creates a misleading result.

TRY IT
Explain How the Organelles in a co
the Organs in Your Body
Write a paragraph comparing the organelles in a
cell to the organs in your body.
DONE

Answers

Answer:

Organs make up the larger parts of an organism and are made up of tissues. Organelles are structures which are found inside a cell which carries out a specific life process.

Organelles are microscopic whereas organs are macroscopic.

Organelles form cells, cells will form tissues and tissues will form organs.

Organelles are found in all eukaryotes where as organs are mostly present in just plants and animals.

Examples of organelles include nucleus, Endoplasmic Reticulum, ribosomes, vacuole etc. Examples of organs include heart, kidney, liver, brain, lungs.

Which strand of mRNA would be made during transcription using the DNA
strand shown below?
AGC GCT
O A. UCG CGU
O B. TCG CGA
O C. UCG CGA
O D. AGC GCT

Answers

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

In mRNA, there isn't a Thymine nitrogen base. There is a "new" nitrogen base called Uracil, which takes its place. So in transcription, A=U and C=G.

In mRNA, there isn't a Thymine nitrogen base. There is a "new" nitrogen base called Uracil, which takes its place. So in transcription, A=U and C=G.

What is mRNA function and structure?

Messenger RNA (mRNA) is a single-stranded RNA molecule that is complementary to one of the DNA strands of a gene. The mRNA is an RNA version of the gene that leaves the cell nucleus and moves to the cytoplasm where proteins are made.

Thus, option "C" is correct.

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Plants in the phylum Coniferophyta are _____.

flowering

fruit-producing

gymnosperms

angiosperms

Answers

Answer:

Gymnosperms

Explanation:

Conifers have cones which hold their seeds. They don't produce fruits or flowers.

You sample the number of turkey oak seedlings in a
burned and unburned forest. You find 10 seedlings in
the burned forest and 90 in the unburned forest. If
the seedlings were randomly distributed in the two
forests, then the numbers of seedlings in each forest
would be the same. How many seedlings would you
expect in each forest if they were randomly
distributed?

Answers

Answer:

           [tex]\large\boxed{\large\boxed{\text{You would expect 50 seedings in each forest}}}[/tex]

Explanation:

1. Number of turkey oak seedlings in the burned forest (given): 10 seedlings

2. Number of turkey oak seedings in the unburned forest (given): 90 seedings

3. To find the total number of turkey seedings you must add the seedings found in the burned forest and the seedings found in the unburned forest:

Total number of turkey seedings: 10 seedings + 90 seedings = 100 seedings.

4. If the seedlings were randomly distributed in the two forests, then the numbers of seedlings in each forest would be the same (given)

How many seedlings would you expect in each forest if they were randomly

distributed?

Since it is stated that the numbers of seeding in each forest would be the same, then you must divide the total number of seedings by 2:

100 seedings / 2 = 50 seedings

Which means that you would expect 50 seedings in each forest if they were radomly distributed.

This Venn diagram compares Schleiden and Schwann.
Where would this phrase belong on the diagram?

Studied animals

In both X and Y
In Z
In X
In Y

Answers

This phrase belong in Y on the diagram.

D. In Y

Explanation:

The Venn Diagram represents the work of Scientists, Schleiden and Schwann. Schleiden worked in the year 1838 and Schwann in the year 1839. Both Scientists studied cells and used microscope for carrying out the experiments. Schleiden was a Botanist and thus studied plant cells. Schwann was a Zoologist and thus studied animal cells.

Both of them contributed in proposing cell theory. Thus, Y marked region shows Schwann studied animals. The X region shows the study of Schleiden on plants. Z is the intersection area which shows studies of both the Scientists.

Answer:

D, In Y

Explanation:

clearly it was investigated on 2939

Which of the following is one of the four conditions necessary for natural selection to occur in a population? Fewer organisms are born than the habitat can support Mutation does not occur Organisms have identical characteristics Variation is inherited

Answers

Variation is inherited is one of the four conditions necessary for natural selection to occur in a population

Explanation:

Natural selection is a process in which organisms pass on the heritable trait to their offspring and they adapt to the environment leading to evolution.

Natural selection  will occur if the large population is there in which a random mutation has occurred and some organisms in the population have inherited varied characters and passed on these useful characters to the progeny.

Natural selection depends on the environment, random mutation and genetic variation.

Rainforest deforestation is contributing to _______.

Answers

Answer:

Global Warming/ decline in Global Biodiversity

Explanation:

Deforestation causes a lot of negatives that we're experiencing right now.

Answer:

Rainforest deforestation is contributing to Desertification

Explanation:

Deforestation is the removal of trees in a forest without replacing them back, this process over time leads to desertification.

Other Questions
Tickets for a school carnival cost 10$ for adult and 5 for children. last Saturday carnival sold 170 tickets worth a total of $1200 . How many adults and childeren attended the carnival when would you use a negative number to describe a real world amount? Give an example. A house hunter on Long Island estimates that 20% of the available houses in her price range are in acceptable condition. Furthermore, she has time to look at only one house each week. What is the probability that she will find an acceptable house in the first two weeks that she looks (round off to second decimal place)? Which of the following options could represent a possible set of interior angles of a triangle?60, 150 and 15015, 35, and 4035, 65, and 8045, 105, and 120 A large disaster cleaning company estimates that 30 percent of the jobs it bids on are finished within the bid time. Looking at a random sample of 8 jobs that it has contracted, calculate the mean number of jobs completed within the bid time. Qu tipo de situacin hay en Guantnamo? property lease by the U.S. from Cuba indefinitely an agreement that either party can end at any time a bay and surrounding territory controlled by the U.S. Cuba has permission to pass through the bay a U.S. Naval Base that's a topic of controversy Evaluate (3x-1) + 2 when x = 5 XYZ Company was considering moving its operations to a less-developed country. As part of the decision-making process, the executive managers of the company stood in the shoes of the current employees and asked themselves how it might feel to lose their jobs as a result of the proposed action. The executive managers of XYZ Company were demonstrating? How many kilocalories are in a chicken quesadilla that has 28 grams of protein, 40 grams of carbohydrate, and 30 grams of fat? Group of answer choices Durkheim uses the term ______ to describe the disorientation and anxiety members of a society experience when they no longer have shared beliefs, values, and standards for conduct. 4. What determines muscle strength? A number that indicates the degree and direction of the relationship between variables is called a(n) _____. Simile for mountain the force is the sum of all the forces that act upon an object What is the area of this trapezoid? 86 in 112 in 148 in 184 in Trapezoid A B C D with parallel sides D C and A B. Point F and E are on side D C. Point F is connected to point A by a dotted segment. Point E is connected to point B by a dotted segment. A B E F is a rectangle. D F is 3 inches. E C is 6 inches. E B is 8 inches. A B is 14 inches. Allied control of Italy was important because it meant that: A.Germany lost one of its main allies. B. All German aircraft factories were destroyed. C. Germany was cut off from oil supplies. D. All of these choices are correct. Was Monsa musa a hero or villain World heritage sites are recognized because they are examples of QUESTION 10The park manager wants to conduct a survey to determine how people like the park facilities. Which would give her the most representative sample for the survey?conducting the survey at the softball diamondconducting the survey at a shopping mallconducting the survey as visitors leave the parkconducting the survey at the playground How would you solve 8(6-k)+2k -15-(-3k) ( please show each step)