Answer:
Type of radioactive decay which has occurred is an alpha decay.
Explanation:
Type of radioactive decays:
Alpha decay is defined as the decay process in which alpha particle is released. In this process, a heavier nuclei decays into a lighter nuclei. The alpha particle released carries a charge of +2 units and a mass of 4 units.Beta decay is defined as the process in which beta particle is emitted. In this process, a neutron gets converted to a proton and an electron. The released beta particle is also known as electron.Gamma decay In this process, an unstable nuclei releases excess energy by a spontaneous electromagnetic process and gamma -radiations are emitted. These radiations does not carry any charge and are electrically neutral.Why is scarcity the basis of all economic decisions? Describe how the role of the government in a society influences the three economic questions. (Site 1)
Answer:
Scarcity is the basis of all economic decision because it will not go away. No matter what there will always be scarcity. It is impossible for the government to provide everything for their people. There are costs for every economic choice the government makes. There is a limit on what we need to produce product whether it is time, money or effort. The government decides the budget of something to be produce. They decide how to make things a certain way. And they choose the how the resources are beneficial to the environment. Scarcity will always be here so we have to learn to make decisions with it.
Explanation:
I put this on edge and got it right
Scarcity is the basis of all economic decision because it will not go away. No matter what there will always be scarcity.
What is the impossible task of the government?It is impossible for the government to provide everything for their people. There are costs for every economic choice the government makes. There is a limit on what we need to produce product whether it is time, money or effort. The government decides the budget of something to be produce. They decide how to make things a certain way.
They choose the how the resources are beneficial to the environment. Scarcity will always be here so we have to learn to make decisions with it. Goods and services are produced through natural resources, which are mostly scarce. In this way, economic theory aims to rationalize the production and distribution of these goods and services to satisfy the demands of society.
Therefore, Scarcity is the basis of all economic decision because it will not go away. No matter what there will always be scarcity.
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When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of:___________.A) cancer.B) cell constraint.C) density-dependent inhibition.D) cell division repression.E) growth factor desensitization.
Answer:
The arrest of the division that occurs when animal cells that are growing in a Petri dish and form a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish is an example of density-dependent inhibition (option C).
Explanation:
The animal cell must divide in order to form a tissue or repair it in case of being damaged, counting on regulation mechanisms that allow an adequate and sufficient growth.
Density-dependent inhibition is a mechanism for controlling cell growth that limits cell reproduction to a certain point. When cells are cultured, they can be seen to grow by covering the bottom of the Petri dish, but their division ceases when they occupy the available space. This implies that the agglomeration of cells prevents them from continuing to divide.
The amount of nutrients needed for cell culture growth limits this growth, since cell division depends on the amount of resources available to support a given cell population, which explains the density-dependent inhibition.
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Density-dependent inhibition is the reason why animal cells stop dividing when they form a single layer in a petri dish.
Explanation:The arrest of division in animal cells grown in a petri dish once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish is an example of density-dependent inhibition.
This means that the cells stop dividing when they come into contact with each other, as the close proximity of other cells signals to them that there is no more space for growth.
This mechanism helps maintain tissue homeostasis and prevents cells from overcrowding, which can lead to disorderly growth and potentially cancerous conditions.
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Biodiversity hotspots: Select one: a. house only 10% of all species of vascular plants. b. are home to nearly 20% of the world's population. c. are all located in tropical regions. d. contain few endemic species. e. all of these choices are correct
Answer:
The correct answer: B. are home to nearly 20% of the world's population.
Explanation:
Biodiversity hotspots are regions with important levels of biodiversity (meaning there are a lot of species on it) that are threatened by human habitation.
For a region to be considered a biodiversity hotspot, it must contain at least 1500 species of endemic vascular plants (this means that these species are unique to that place) and has to have lost around 70% of its primary vegetation. Unfortunately, many species are in biodiversity hotspots, as they are home to 20% of the world's population.
Biodiversity hotspots are all around the world, not just in tropical regions.
Answer:
B. Home to nearly 20% of the world's population.
Explanation:
According to Myers edition of hotspot maps, it must contain at least 0.5% or 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70% of its primary vegetation. Biodiversity hotspots host their diverse ecosystems on just about 2.4% of the planet's surface.
In summary, biodiversity hotspot is defined as a biogeographic region that is a significant reservoir of biodiversity. The term biodiversity hotspot specifically refers to 25 biologically rich areas around the world that have lost at least 70% of their original habitat. It was estimated in 1995 that more than 1.1 billion people, nearly 20% of world population, were living within the hotspots, an area covering about 12% of Earth's terrestrial surface.
Coral bleaching, which causes high coral mortality, has been occurring widely in coral reefs. Coral bleaching actually refers to the death of symbiotic dinoflagellates living within the corals. Why does coral bleaching cause the corals to die
Explanation:
Coral bleaching, which causes high coral mortality, has been happening broadly in coral reefs. Coral bleaching really alludes to the death of symbiotic dinoflagellates living inside the corals. Dinoflagellates give supplements from the results of photosynthesis which are fundamental for zooxanthellae endurance. Coral reefs are vital to the science of our planet, however in the previous scarcely any decades, they have endured a serious decay because of an assortment of common and anthropogenic unsettling influences. Natural effects of coral blanching and related mortality Bleached corals are probably going to have diminished development rates, diminished regenerative limit, expanded powerlessness to maladies and raised death rates. Decreases in hereditary and species assorted variety may happen when corals pass on because of dying.Coral bleaching causes corals to die by disrupting the symbiotic relationship between the corals and the algae within them. The algae provide the corals with food through photosynthesis, so when they are expelled, the corals lose their source of nutrition and eventually die.
Explanation:Coral bleaching is a serious issue threatening the survival of coral reefs, primarily caused by rising ocean water temperatures due to climate change and human activities. The phenomenon of bleaching occurs when corals, stressed by the heat, expel the symbiotic dinoflagellates, known as zooxanthellae. These zooxanthellae are crucial as they provide the corals with essential nutrients through the process of photosynthesis, having a mutualistic relationship with the coral polyps. Without these dinoflagellates, the corals lose their vibrant colors and, more significantly, their main source of energy, leading to mortality if the stress conditions persist.
Further exacerbating the situation, increased levels of atmospheric CO2 are absorbed by ocean waters, causing a decrease in pH and leading to ocean acidification. This acidification hampers the coral's ability to perform calcification, which is necessary for building their calcium carbonate skeletons. Without the ability to maintain their skeletons, the corals become weak and more susceptible to death. The decline of coral reefs has a profound impact on marine biodiversity, ecosystem services, and the economies that rely on them.
For which of the following types of microbes would a microbiologist employ living host cells to support their growth? View Available Hint(s) For which of the following types of microbes would a microbiologist employ living host cells to support their growth? Campylobacteria capnophiles obligate intracellular organisms, such as chlamydias, rickettsias, and viruses normal skin bacteria
Answer:
obligate intracellular organisms, such as chlamydias, rickettsias, and viruses
Explanation:
Obligate intracellular organisms are those living organisms that cannot reproduce outside their host cells. They require intracellular resources of the host in order to live normally and reproduce.
As a result, these type of organism cannot be cultured using ordinary culture media in the laboratory. They will require special intracellular-like resources in order for them to be successfully cultured in the laboratory.
What are the two groups that are adapted to anaerobic conditions and contain modified mitochondria that lack dna?
The Diplomonads and Parabasalids are the two groups that are adapted to anaerobic conditions and contain modified mitochondria that lack DNA.
Explanation:
The existence of a mitochrondrial-remnant organelle and nonfunctional, named a mitosome distinguishes diplomonads. Parabasalids are distinguished by a semi-functional mitochondria termed as hydrogenosome; they are made up of parasitic protists, including Trichomonas vaginalis.
Diplomonads function in anaerobic circumstances, and use alternate pathways to generate energy, like glycolysis. Growing cell of the diplomonad has two identical nuclei and utilizes multiple locomotive flagella. Trichomonas vaginalis, a parabasalid that induces a human sexually transmitted infection, uses these pathways to pass via the urogenital tracts of males and females.
Why are we more vigilant about zoonotic diseases for the gametogenesis lab?
Let's add the missing piece of information:
In this part of the lab we'll be taking some reasonable precautions to make sure that we don't allow undue contact between cat/dog parasites and the interior of our bodies.
Why are we more vigilant about zoonotic diseases for the Gametogenesis lab?
[Please remember to wash your hands!]
- The samples are fresh (they were very recently a part of a living organism.)
- The samples are from warm-blooded animals which have similar diseases to ours
- The samples are from mammals, so their parasites are closer evolved to us
- We are using sharp tools and razor blades, making access into our bloodstream potentially easier
All answers indicates the need for necessary precautions in the course of the experiment.
Explanation:
A zoonosis (plural zoonoses, or zoonotic diseases) is an infectious disease which originated from bacteria, viruses, or parasites that moves from non-human animals (mainly vertebrates) to humans. Major contemporary diseases like Ebola virus disease and salmonellosis are zoonoses.
Zoonoses have varying forms of transmission. In direct zoonosis the disease is mainly transmitted from other animals to humans via media e.g. air (influenza) or via bites and saliva (rabies).
Transmission could also be through an intermediate species (known as a vector), that serve as host for the disease pathogen as it is not affected by the diseases presence.
The need to be vigilant in the course of the lab experiment to avoid infection and transmission from one Hunan to another.
Answer:
Diseases which are spread from animals( higher animals )other than man to human being are called zoonosis. They are caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites in theses animals, and through bites, domestication, droplets contacts, farming, and hunting are passed to human. Some are also transmitted as vectors.
Statistically, they represented 61% of thousands of pathogens known to have infected human.
Answers.
Therefore during process of Gametogeneis and other experiemntal procedures in the laboratory, a lot of vigilance is needed because,
→In most cases to guarantee the experimental success, they are needed fresh to be used in the laboratory, thus careful measures not to have contact with the possible infected fluid and blood of these animals is needed.
→Human shared the almost same physiological make up with these animals, thus it is easy for human to also serve as host for the same pathogens that they harbour, thus during lab.preparations necessary protection to guide against these should be taken
→Experimental procedures may involved laceration, and which involved blood spillage and contacts.Therefore necessary measures is needed to avoid unnecessary cuts which may lead to infections transmission and possible contamination.
Explanation:
D
________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. ________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. Dendritic cells Melanocytes Merkel cells Squamous cells Basal cells
The cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system are called dendritic cells. Dendritic cells are specialized antigen-presenting cells that play a crucial role in initiating and regulating immune responses.So option a is correct.
Dendritic cells are a type of antigen-presenting cell (APC) that are essential for the initiation and regulation of immune responses. They are widely distributed throughout the body, including the skin, where they are referred to as Langerhans cells. In the skin, dendritic cells, specifically Langerhans cells, are found in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. They have long, branching extensions called dendrites, which resemble the branches of a tree. These dendritic extensions are crucial for capturing and processing antigens.
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________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. Dendritic cells
Melanocytes Merkel cells
Squamous cells
Basal cells
Final answer:
Langerhans cells are part of the immune system and are found in the epidermis. These dendritic cells take up antigens and present them to the immune system. Melanocytes produce melanin, while Merkel cells respond to touch, and squamous and basal cells have other functions related to skin integrity and regeneration.
Explanation:
The cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system are known as Langerhans cells. These dendritic cells are located within the stratum basale layer of the epidermis and act as sentinels to protect the skin. Langerhans cells are responsible for taking up antigens, which are molecules that induce an immune response, and presenting them to T cells, a crucial function in the body's defense system.
As for the other cells mentioned, melanocytes are responsible for producing the pigment melanin which protects the skin from UV light, while Merkel cells respond to light touch and are connected to nerve endings in the dermis. Squamous cells, or keratinocytes, make up about 90% of the epidermal cells and are involved in creating a barrier against environmental damage. Lastly, basal cells are found in the stratum basale and are responsible for the production of new keratinocytes.
Four of the five processes listed below will disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Select the exception. a. natural selection b. genetic drift c. punctuated equilibrium d. non-random mating e. migration
Answer:
B, C, D, and E
Explanation:
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is defined as the model that explains the relationship between phenotypic and genotypic frequencies relationship, using the five assumptions of:
No mutationNo migrationNo selectionRandom matingInfinite populationAnswer:
natural selection, genetic drift, non-random mating, and migration (option A, B, D, and E)
Explanation:
In the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle, the frequencies of alleles and genotypes remain the same in a population, from generation to generation, with no net change in allele or genotype frequencies. This means, no evolutionary change is occurring in the population. However, for this principle to hold, the following conditions must be present, which are:
There must be random mating, that is every individual of the population has an equal chance of mating with any other member the population There must be no net mutation The population size must be large enough to reduce the probability of the allele frequencies to change by genetic drift caused by random fluctuations, as common in a small population size Absence of migration of individuals into the population or outside the population Absence of natural selection which can cause some phenotypes to be selected against othersTherefore, the 4 processes, out of the 5 processes listed, that can disrupt Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in a population are natural selection, genetic drift, non-random mating, and migration (option A, B, D, and E)
A punctuated equilibrium would not, as the population is said to be stable or become stable over a long period of time with little evolutionary change in the course of life.
Glucose is the primary fuel for cellular respiration. Which molecules can also be used by cellular respiration to generate atp?
Besides glucose, cellular respiration can use starch, sucrose, galactose, lactose, mannitol, fats, and the carbohydrate portion of amino acids for ATP generation.
Explanation:While glucose is the primary fuel for cellular respiration, other molecules can also be utilized to generate ATP. In addition to glucose, substances like starch, sucrose, galactose, lactose, and mannitol can be used in glycolysis. Fats and the carbohydrate portion of amino acids from proteins can also serve as fuel for cellular respiration. These compounds are metabolized within various pathways in the cell such as glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. The ability of the cell to use alternative sources for ATP synthesis is critical for organisms to maintain energy balance and adapt to varying nutritional availability.
Which fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants?
Answer:
Because fungi like animals are heterotrophs
Explanation:
When farming, overgrazing, climate change, and/or seasonal drought change farmland into land that cannot support plant life, it is called
a. desertification.
b. depletion.
c. deforestation.
d. monoculture.
Answer:
a. desertification.
Explanation:
Desertification can be defined as encroachment of deserts to areas that were not originally deserts which leads to loss of biological productivity. desertification is caused by some factors which are
Climate Changehuman activitiesloss of moisturedrought.When the above mentioned factors farming, overgrazing, climate change, and/or seasonal drought set in then it changed farmland into land that cannot support plant life.
When farming, overgrazing, climate change, and/or seasonal drought change farmland into land that cannot support plant life, it is called a. desertification. option A
What is Desertification?Desertification is the process through which grasslands and shrublands in drylands, also known as arid and semi-arid lands, decline and eventually vanish. A form of land deterioration known as desertification occurs when biological production in drylands decreases as a result of a combination of natural and human-caused factors, turning productive areas arid.
Desertification is a form of land degradation that takes place in arid regions. It has an impact on the ability of the land to provide ecosystem services, including food production and biodiversity hosting, to name the most well-known ones.
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A 60-year-old G4P4 woman presents with a two-year history of urine leakage with activity such as coughing, sneezing and lifting. Her past medical history is significant for vaginal deliveries of infants over 9 pounds. She had a previous abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine fibroids. She is on vaginal estrogen for atrophic vaginitis. Physical exam shows no anterior, apical or posterior wall vaginal prolapse. Vagina is well-estrogenized. Post-void residual was normal. Q-tip test showed a straining angle of 60 degrees from the horizontal. Cough stress test showed leakage of urine synchronous with the cough. Cystometrogram revealed the absence of detrusor instability. The patient failed pelvic muscle exercises and was not interested in an incontinence pessary. Which of the following is the best surgical option for this patient?A. Retropubic urethropexyB. Needle suspensionC. Anterior repairD. Urethral bulking procedureE. Colpocleisis
Answer:
A. Retropubic urethropexy
Explanation:
Since it is stated that the woman has a two-year history of urine leakage and had a previous abdominal hysterectomy. These are indications of GSI i.e. Genuine Stress Incontinence, a condition in which increments of intra-abdominal pressure produce involuntary urine loss.
Both urethral hypermobility and Intrinsic Sphincteric Deficiency (ISD) are causes of stress urinary incontinence. Only Retropubic urethropexy is best for patients suffering from GSI due to both hypermobility and Intrinsic Sphincteric Deficiency (ISD). The other options can only address one or none of the specified causes.
Drag and drop the steps of digestion to order them from first to last step.
(order it as 1, 2, 3, etc.)
Answer:
1. the teeth in the mouth bite off a piece of food. the teeth continue to break the food into smaller pieces.
2. saliva rushes into the mouth and mixes with the broken down food.
3. the food travels down the esophagus.
4. the broken down food, called chime, enters the small intestine.
5. the remaining food passes into the large intestine. water is absorbed from the large intestine and the rest of the material is stored as solid waste until it is exerted from the body.
6. the muscles in the stomach churn the food and continue to break it down.
Hope this helps!
Drag and drop the steps of digestion to order them from first to last step. Absorbed into the bloodstream. The 4 primary styles of digestive structures in animals are monogastric, avian, ruminant, and pseudo-ruminant.
What is the digestive system?The digestive machine consists of the mouth, pharynx (throat), esophagus, stomach, small intestine, big intestine, rectum, and anus. It additionally consists of the salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas, which make digestive juices and enzymes that assist the frame digest meals and liquids.
the tooth withinside the mouth chew off a chunk of meals. the tooth keep to interrupt the meals into smaller pieces.Saliva rushes into the mouth and mixes with the damaged down meals.The meals travels down the esophagus.The damaged down meals, referred to as chime, enters the small gut.The last meals passes into the big gut. water is absorbed from the big gut and the relaxation of the fabric is saved as strong waste till it's miles exerted from the body.The muscle tissues withinside the belly churn the meals and keep to interrupt it down.Read more about the esophagus:
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Select the best description of the negative selection process of lymphocyte maturation.
A) teaching a lymphocyte to recognize "self" from foreign antigens
B) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells
C) removal of lymphocytes that fail to recognize "self" cells
D) allowing the survival of lymphocytes that cannot bind to MHC proteins
Answer:
B) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells
Explanation:
By negative selection, we mean to say that the lymphocytes which are reacting with self cells too strongly must undergo apoptosis otherwise they will cause auto-immunity which will lead to destruction of self cells.
Before negative selection, the naive lymphocytes undergo positive selection during which they are allowed to interact with MHC-I or MHC-II. This kind of selection is necessary so as to ensure that the selected lymphocytes have affinity towards MHC molecule for generation of effective immune response whenever it is required. All those cells that do not recognize self antigen undergo apoptosis because they are useless and the lymphocytes which recognize MHC moderately are selected for the next stage which is negative selection.
Once these lymphocytes have passed test for positive selection, they have to undergo test for negative selection. All those lymphocytes which are interacting very strongly with self antigen are rejected and finally undergo apoptosis.
Negative selection in lymphocyte maturation refers to the removal of lymphocytes that react with the body's own cells to prevent potential auto-immune diseases.
Explanation:The best description of the negative selection process of lymphocyte maturation is B) removal of lymphocytes that react with "self" cells.
During maturation, lymphocytes undergo a process whereby those that recognise and therefore would react to "self" antigens, are eliminated. This is a crucial part of immune system development because if these "self-reacting" cells were allowed to remain, they could potentially attack the body's own cells, leading to auto-immune diseases.
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Even in Darwin's time, the blending hypothesis was incompatible with observed facts. If the blending hypothesis were true, then what should one expect to observe over the course of generations?A) Phenotypic polymorphisms should increase.
B) Genetic variation should increase.
C) Members of a breeding population should become more uniform in phenotype.
D) Neutral variation should decrease.
E) Genetic polymorphisms should increase.
Answer:
C) Members of a breeding population should become more uniform in phenotype.
Explanation:
The blending hypothesis was the accepted theory during the time of Charles Darwin and the Gregor Mendel.
The blending hypothesis suggested that the traits which arise in the offspring is the intermediate form of the mother and father that is if short male crossed with a tall female then will result in the intermediate height of the offspring.
This theory has many limitations as the evidence does not support the theory and also the next generation formed will be more uniform than the previous generation.
Thus, Option-C is correct.
Joan goes to a therapist to learn how to become more assertive. The therapist uses a training technique in which he portrays a social antagonist and Joan portrays herself. Together, they act out the problem situation. This therapeutic technique is called ______.
Answer:
The correct answer is: role-playing.
Explanation:
Role-playing is a technique used in psychotherapy for the treatment of phobia.
Phobias are a learned response to a stimulus that must be unlearned in order to overcome it.
In role-playing therapy, the therapist acts as the person who the patient is afraid to confront, and then the patient responds with the techniques learned in the sessions.
Answer:
Joan goes to a therapist to learn how to become more assertive. The therapist uses a training technique in which he portrays a social antagonist and Joan portrays herself. Together, they act out the problem situation. This therapeutic technique is called role-playing
Explanation:
Role play is an educational technique in which people spontaneously act-out problems of human relations and analyse th eneactment with the help of the oher role players and observers. Educational roleplay asks each student to take the role of the person affected by an issue and studies the impacts of the issues on human life and the effects of human activities on the world around us from the perspective of that person.
Hence in the above scenario, Joan is using role-playing.
The following data were obtained from pour plates used to test the effectiveness of a food preservative. Two samples of cottage cheese were inoculated with bacteria; the preservative was added to one sample. After incubation, samples of the cottage cheese (control) and samples treated with the preservative (experimental) were diluted and plated on nutrient agar. Calculate the number of bacteria. Was the preservative effective
Answer:
The colony-forming unit includes the fungal or the bacterial cells and can be used for the cell counting. The colony forming unit is used for the viable cells.
The cfu/ ml can be calculated as follows:
cfu/ml=(no. of colonies × dilution factor)/volume of culture plate
In control:
We have given, the no. of colonies=160
, dilution factor=400 and volume=1ml
The cfu of the control is
cfu/ml(control)=(160 × 400)/1=64000 cfu/ml
For the experimental data,
We have given the no. of colonies=32
, dilution factor=200 and volume=0.1 ml
.
cfu/ml=32 × 200/0.1=64000 cfu/ml
.
Since, the cfu of the control and the experiment is equal, the preservative is of no use.
To determine the effectiveness of a food preservative, the number of bacteria can be calculated by counting the colonies on the pour plates. By comparing the number of colonies in the control and experimental samples, the effectiveness of the preservative can be determined.
Explanation:The number of bacteria can be calculated by counting the number of colonies on the pour plates. The control sample represents the growth of bacteria without the preservative, while the experimental sample represents the growth of bacteria with the preservative. By comparing the number of colonies in each sample, you can determine the effectiveness of the preservative. If the experimental sample has significantly fewer colonies than the control sample, it suggests that the preservative is effective in inhibiting bacterial growth.
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What are the small channels which connect osteocytes within an osteon?
Answer:
Haversian canals
Explanation:
Osteoblasts are the cells which form a mature bone and the osteocyte cells which helps in the resorption and deposition in the cell. The osteocytes are also involved in calcium removal and help remove the skeletal deformations.
The outer side of the bone is connected with each the blood vessels and the nerves through which osteocytes are also connected is known as the Haversian canals. The Haversian canals are the tubes which are microscopic present in the bone.
Thus, Haversian canals are correct.
Answer: Haversian canals
Explanation:
The haversian canals are the microscopic tubules or tunnels in the cortical bone of the nerve fibers that have few capillaries. These canals helps to provide the oxygen and nutrition to the bones. The haversian canals forms a channel within the osteon or bone cells which keeps the bone cell together.
These haversian canals helps in communication within the cells that occur through connections called as canaliculi.
What cellular components are responsible for small molecule transport within the cytoplasm?
A.
flagella
B.
mitochondria
C.
proteins
D.
chromosomes
E.
vesicles
Reset
A photosystem consists of what structures?
Answer:
is B
Explanation:
A photosystem consists of two closely linked components that are as follows:
The antenna complex. The reaction center. What is Photosystem?Photosystems may be defined as pigment-containing protein complexes that possess reaction centers that convert radiant energy into chemical energy. These systems are considered the functional units for photosynthesis.
Photosystems are typically found in the thylakoid membranes. There are two types of photosystems known till now. They are photosystem I (PSI) and photosystem II (PSII).
Photosystem I works on the wavelength of 700 nm, while photosystem II works on the wavelength of 680 nm.
The antenna complex is formed by hundreds of pigment molecules that capture photons and transfer the harvested light energy. While the reaction center possesses Chlorophyll a molecule in a matrix of protein.
When this excitation energy finally reaches chlorophyll a that is present at the reaction center, electron transfer begins through an electron transport chain.
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Vibrio cholerae is the bacterium responsible for cholera, a GI tract infection. Normally, it takes the ingestion of over one million bacterial cells to cause infection, but the consumption of antacids signficantly lowers this number. What does this tell you about the likely classification of V. cholerae in terms of pH preference?
Answer:
In terms of pH preference, Vibrio cholerae is classified as an alkaliphile.
Explanation:
Every microorganism like bacteria needs a favorable pH (optimum growth pH) for their growth. Based on the pH preference, microbes are classified into three types: neutrophiles, acidophiles, and alkaliphiles.
Generally, most of the bacteria are neutrophiles. Neutrophiles grow best at pH close to 7 (neutral pH). Escherichia coli, salmonella, staphylococci, etc are examples of neutrophiles. Acidophiles grow best at pH less than 5.55 and lactobacillus, sulfolobus, ferroplasma, etc are examples of acidophile bacteria.
Alkaliphiles grow best between a pH of 8 and 10.5. Natronobacterium, Bacillus firmus, etc are examples of alkaliphiles. The consumption of antacids prevents the growth of vibrio cholerae, the pathogenic agent which causes cholera. So, it belongs to the alkaliphiles group, where it grows best at the pH of 8 and can survive the alkaline environment having pH values up to 11.
Systematists have used a wide variety of traits to reconstruct the phylogenies of particular groups of organisms. Which one of the following traits produces a good estimate of phylogeny?
1. molecular traits
2. gross morphological traits
3. behavioral traits
4. biochemical traits
5. all of the above traits combined
Answer:
5. all of the above traits combined
Explanation:
Phylogeny has to do with the study of evolutionary relationships among living organisms based on the premise of the theory of organic evolution that states that all living organisms came from a common ancestor.
Phylogeny incorporates molecular, morphological, anatomical, biochemical and behavioural traits in order to arrive at a phylogenetic tree that represents ancestral lineages.
Hence, the correct option is option 5.
Answer:
5-All of the above
Explanation:
A phylogenetic tree is a diagram that shows the evolutionary relationships between various biological organisms. During the construction of the phylogenetic tree systematists observe different types of traits, such as:
Derived traits-A trait found in the present organism, but was absent in the ancestor organism.Ancestral trait- A trait that the present organism inherited from their ancestral organism.Orchid seeds are tiny, with virtually no endosperm and with miniscule cotyledons. If such seeds are deposited in a dark, moist environment, then which of the following represents the most likely means by which fungi might assist in seed germination, given what the seeds lack?
a. by transferring some chloroplasts to the embryo in each seed
b. by providing the seeds with water and minerals
c. by providing the embryos with some of the organic nutrients the fungi have absorbed
d. by strengthening the seed coat that surrounds each seed
Explanation:
Fungi might assist in seed germination by providing the embryos with some of the organic nutrients the fungi have absorbed
Fungi is an eukaryote which digests food externally and absorbs nutrients directly through its cell walls Fungi absorb nutrients through following three ways:By decomposing dead organic matter: obtains its nutrients from non-living organic matter, usually dead and decaying plant or animal matter, by absorbing soluble organic compoundsBy feeding on living hosts:fungi live in or on other organisms and get their nutrients from their hostLiving mutualistically with other organisms: mutualistic fungi live harmlessly with other living organisms;fungal component absorb water and minerals and provide them to algal component which uses them to make foodIn dark,moist environment nutrient availability is less hence fungi helps in providing orchid seeds the nutrients which it has absorbed
For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogenous base of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogenous bases. Thus, labeling the nitrogenous bases would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work?
Answer:
Explanation:
The aim of the Hershey and Chase experiment was to show that DNA and not proteins are the genetic material.
Proteins are made up of amino acids which also has a nitrogenous base. Since the whole point of the experiment was to differentiate between the two i.e. show which one is the genetic material, it would be impossible to differentiate between DNA and proteins if the nitrogenous base was labelled.
In the example of adrenaline signaling used in the animation, suppose each amplification step produces hundredfold active molecules. How many total modified protein target molecules result from a single activated signal receptor? A. 300 B. 900 C. 10,000 D. 1,000,000 E. 100,000,000
Answer:
Option D. 1000000
Explanation:
Adrenaline signaling occurs when the the hormones clings to the cell surface of the Adrenaline receptor.
The total modified protein target molecules resulting from a single activated signal receptor is 1,000,000 and this results in the consumption of 100 molecules of Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and 1,010,000 molecules of Adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
What is the importance of manipulation and control in the experimental method?
Which organs plays a role in water balance regulation?
Answer: The kidneys can regulate water levels in the body; they conserve water if you are dehydrated, and they can make urine more dilute to expel excess water if necessary.
You bite into a cookie. Of the choices provided, what is the fourth step in the pathway from the time tastants enter the mouth to the termination point in the brain. Group of answer choices
Explanation:
The tongue contains little knocks called papillae, inside or approach which taste buds are arranged. In the tongue's taste buds, the taste receptors get tangible information by means of two significant systems – depolarization and synapse discharge. Admission of salty nourishments drives more sodium particles to enter the receptor, causing the said systems. The equivalent is valid with admission of sharp nourishments (hydrogen particles) and sweet nourishments (sugar atoms), the two of which result to the end of K+ channels upon their entrance. From the axons of the taste receptors, the tangible data is moved to the three taste pathways by means of the parts of cranial nerves VII, IX and X. The chorda tympani of CN VII (facial nerve) conveys the taste tangible contribution from the tongue's foremost 66%. At that point, the remainder of the taste sensations from the throat, sense of taste and back tongue are transmitted by the parts of CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and CN X (vagus nerve). From these cranial nerves, taste tangible information goes through the nerve fiber neurotransmitters to the lone tract, the ventral posteromedial thalamic cores , and the thalamus. In these three areas, there are grouped neurons which react to a similar taste (sweet, sharp, salty or bitter).The thalamus transfers the data to the essential gustatory cortex situated in the somatosensory cortex. The essential gustatory cortext is the place the impression of a specific taste is handled.Glycogen is stored mainly in which tissues
Answer:
In humans, glycogen is made and stored primarily in the cells of the liver and skeletal muscle.
Insulin converts blood sugar to glycogen and stores it in Liver
Glycogen is primarily stored in the liver and muscles.
How is glycogen storedIn the liver, glycogen serves as a reservoir of glucose that can be released into the bloodstream to maintain normal blood glucose levels between meals. In muscles, glycogen functions as a source of energy during exercise or physical activity.
The liver has the highest glycogen storage capacity among all tissues, allowing it to store and release large amounts of glucose as needed. Muscle glycogen, on the other hand, is primarily used to provide energy for muscle contraction during exercise.
Other tissues in the body can also store small amounts of glycogen, but the liver and muscles are the major sites of glycogen storage.
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