Answer:
hydrogen bonded basesExplanation:
DNA can be visualized as a ladder in which the parallel rungs ("steps") would be hydrogen bonded bases
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N 9 Viruses use the host's machinery to make copies of themselves. However, some human viruses require a type of replication that humans do not normally do. For example, humans normally do not have the ability to convert RNA into DNA. How can these types of viruses infect humans, when human cells cannot perform a particular role that the virus requires?
Answer:
This is because the Viron has in its genome a specialized code for synthesising any missed enzyme for replication that is lacking in the host cell.
An example is the replication of the human DNA cells by the Immunodeficiency virus(HIV) . Human cells only have enzymes for copying DNA templates, and lacks the enzyme to convert the HIV RNA genome to human DNA.However these viruses have in its genome; code for synthesising its own RNA polymerase enzymes that copies or transcribed the human DNA to HIV RNA.
This ability of the viral cell to code for the host's enzyme has a therapeutic effect. Drugs can be targeted at the viral polymerase enzymes to reduce the replication and therefore toxicity in the host cells.
Explanation:
Which term describes the individual in a pedigree whose phenotype was first brought to the attention of a medical researcher?
A. Proband
B. Allele
C. Progeny
D. Sibship
Answer:
Proband
Explanation:
In medical genetics, a proband is used to refer to the first person or individual in a pedigree whose phenotype is first brought out to attention of a medical researcher or the first affected family member to seek medical attention for a genetic disorder.
A proband can be male or female.
Proposito will refer to the male proband and it is denoted by a shaded square whereas proposita is a female proband denoted by a shaded circle.
Collect a large array of colorful poisonous and non-poisonous mushrooms; also capture a mushroom-eating animal, such as frog. Present a hungry frog with a choice of mushrooms that have been dyed or painted a drab poisonous and non-poisonous mushrooms color versus others treated with a solution that is identical to the dye or paint used but uncolored. Record which mushrooms the animal eats. Repeat the test with one more animal and the same mushrooms.
Answer:
Many mushrooms are extremely colorful. One hypothesis is that the colors serve as a warning to prevent animals from eating mushrooms, much like the bright yellow and black stripes on wasps help to deter potential predators. Design an experiment capable of testing this hypothesis.
Explanation:
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Durkheim uses the term ______ to describe the disorientation and anxiety members of a society experience when they no longer have shared beliefs, values, and standards for conduct.
Answer:
Durkheim uses the term _anomie_ to describe the disorientation and anxiety members of a society experience when they no longer have shared beliefs, values, and standards for conduct.
Explanation:
David Émile Durkheim was a French sociologist who established the academic discipline of sociology which is commonly called as the principal architect of modern social science.
Anomie is
"the condition in which society provides little moral guidance to individuals". (See attached image for more clarity)
In a study of native Alaskans and Greenland Inuits, it was found that these populations have a high per capita fish consumption and some of the lowest rates of heart disease in the world. The investigators postulated that fish oils in the diet reduce the risk of death from heart disease; their postulate would be considered to be a(n)_________________
Answer:
Hypothesis
Explanation:
A hypothesis is simply defined as the idea or an explanation that can be tested by conducting experiments and studying it.
The above-given condition can be considered as a hypothesis, because several studies have been made on the fish oils that reflected the advantages of it, thereby helping in the medical diagnostics.
According to the research studies, it has been found that the oil obtained from the fishes are used as supplements and these help in the reduction of risk factors that are associated with cardiovascular events such as heart attack. It has also been found that the supplements comprising Vitamin D decrease the chances of developing cancer in human bodies.
Darker skin is more prevalent in high-UV areas. Dr. Jablonski proposed a hypothesis to explain the selective pressure for darker skin in these environments. On what evidence did she base this hypothesis?
Answer:
In environments with a high level of UV radiation darker skin protects against the harmful effects of UV radiation. According to the evidence, melanin is found in the upper layer of the skin human and absorbs UV radiation, which protects cells against the harmful effects of UV light. The genetic determine the type of melanin and the amount of melanin present in the cells of an individual. Ultraviolet radiation causes damages DNA and disrupts normal chemical reactions in cells. These processes are greatly mitigated by eumelanin that is abundant in dark skin. This condition also gives protection of folate metabolism against deficiencies caused by strong UV radiation, there is evidence from epidemiological studies that indicates an association between dark pigmentation and a lower rate of neural tube defects due to lower decomposition rates folate.
ATP is required for the contraction of a sarcomere and thus a muscle fiber. At death, the production of ATP ceases and the ATP stores in a cell are quickly used up. The cell's membranes become permeable to calcium and calcium enters the cytosol of the cell and attaches to troponin, removing tropomyosin from the actin active sites. Myosin attaches to the actin active sites and the muscle contracts for several cycles until the ATP stores are depleted. The muscles are then unable to relax. This postmortem contraction of the muscles is called rigor mortis. Rigor mortis is ultimately caused by a lack of ATP that would, if present, (1) allow calcium to be pumped out of the cytosol and into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and (2) __________.
Answer:
2. Break down the myosin-actin bridge and cause relaxation. ATP replaces ADP to cause this relaxation. ADP causes the continuous binding of action to myosin thus preventing relaxation. It's action continues in rigor motifs. But ATP presence helps to breaks this link and enhance Relaxation
The first stage of cellular respiration glycolysis is an anaerobic process. During glycolysis glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid. How is glycolysis kept functioning in cellular respiration?
Answer:
Oxidation of NADH by electron transport chain ensures a continuous supply of NAD+ for glycolysis.
Explanation:
To continue the process of glycolysis, cells must have a continuous supply of NAD+ which is required during one of the reactions of the payoff phase of glycolysis. Two molecules of NADH are formed per glucose molecule during glycolysis. The NADH gives its electrons to the terminal electron acceptors (O2) via electron transport chain. This ensures that the process of glycolysis is continued in cells to breakdown the glucose into pyruvate.
Glycolysis is the first step in the breakdown of glucose in cellular respiration, providing energy to the cell. It is an anaerobic process that takes place in the cytoplasm. Glycolysis generates two molecules of pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH molecules.
Explanation:Glycolysis is the first pathway used in the breakdown of glucose to extract energy in cellular respiration. It is an anaerobic process that takes place in the cytoplasm of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Glycolysis starts with glucose and ends with two molecules of pyruvate, generating a net gain of two ATP and two NADH molecules.
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules can be further processed through aerobic respiration in the mitochondria. If oxygen is not available, fermentation can occur to convert pyruvate into other substances. Glycolysis is essential for providing energy to the cell, especially in situations where oxygen is limited.
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During exposure to elevated glucose, a yeast cell's membrane glucose transporters will rapidly increase so the cell can import glucose. Which would represent the signal for the yeast cell?
Answer:
Answer is glucose.
Explanation:
Glucose is very important to the yeast cell. Because, it is known to be the energy and carbon source to the yeast cell.
Apart from the importance mentioned, the glucose also act as a signaling molecule.This means that , it can regulate the physiology aspects of the yeast cell.
It should be noted that, a signaling molecule can be described as a molecule capable of transmitting information between or among the cells.
This geologic era is known as the age of aquatic plants and animals. a. Precambrian b. Mesozoic c. Cenozoic d. Paleozoic 2. Which answer choice most aptly describes metamorphic rocks
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
The Paleozoic Era refers to the time, from about 540 million years ago to 250 million years ago. During this era, there occurred drastic changes on earth. was a time of great change on Earth.
Life first originated in water, and with time the evolutionary process occurred and gave rise to the formation of numerous varieties of living species that dwelled in both the land as well as in water.
During this Paleozoic era, the primitive aquatic plants appeared, which were gradually widely spread over the large seas and oceans. There also occurred marine organisms such as trilobites, for the first time during the Cambrian period of the Paleozoic era. By the Ordovician period, these aquatic plants and animals were abundant, due to which it was commonly referred to as the age of aquatic plants and animals.
By the end of this era, there occurred a heavy mass extinction event, that wiped out almost 75-80% of all the living species on earth.
The Paleozoic era most aptly describes the metamorphic rocks as mot of the metamorphic rocks found on earth belongs to this era.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
At 5 pm, there were 20 bacterial cells in a test tube. Knowing that the generation time is 6 minutes, how many bacteria do you expect there will be in the test tube at 5:30 pm? Bacteria reproduce by binary fission, in which one bacterium becomes two bacteria.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
120 Cells 640 Cells 1280 Cells 56 Cells.Answer:
640 Cells
Explanation:
The bacterial cell divides by the process of binary fission which divides a parent bacterial cell into two daughter cells.
In the given condition, the generation time or the average time between the two generations is 6 minutes. When he analyzed the population at 5 pm, he found 20 bacterial cells.
At 5.30 pm, the bacterial cell will have 640 cells as
1. After every 6 minute the population doubles
2. The minute's difference between 5 pm to 5.30 pm is 30 minutes.
3. Since 1 generation time-6 min therefore 30 minutes will have = 30/ 6 = 5 generation.
4. The bacterial cell will be calculated using formula
[tex]2^{number of generations}[/tex] x an initial number of bacteria in a population, therefore, [tex]2^{5}[/tex] x 20 = 640 bacterial cells.
Thus, 640 Cells is the correct answer.
The major function of the cell wall is to Choose one: A. serve as a barrier to prevent entry of molecules into the cytoplasm. B. constrain bacterial cell growth. C. serve as a rigid barrier to prevent cell lysis. D. allow for bacterial motility.
Answer:
C. serve as a rigid barrier to prevent cell lysis
Explanation:
The cell wall of bacteria is mainly made up of peptidoglycan and of plant is made up of cellulose. It is present outside the cell membrane. The cell wall is a rigid layer that provides structural and mechanical support to the cell and helps in defining the shape of the cell.
It protects the cell from mechanical stress and prevents the cell from osmotic lysis or cell bursting. The cell wall of bacteria is common to target for many antibiotics because the animal cell does not contain a cell walls. Therefore the correct answer is C.
The larger value obtained when more glucose carriers were present corresponds to an increase in the rate of glucose transport. Explain why the rate increased. How well did the results compare with your prediction?
The rate of glucose transport increased due to the presence of more glucose carriers, which facilitated the transport of glucose into the cell. The results of the experiment should align with the prediction of increased transport rate.
Explanation:The rate of glucose transport increased when more glucose carriers were present because there were more transport proteins available to facilitate the movement of glucose across the cell membrane. These transport proteins, known as glucose carriers or glucose transporters, bind to glucose molecules and transport them into the cell.
By increasing the number of glucose carriers, the rate of glucose transport can be enhanced because there are more carriers available to transport glucose. This increases the efficiency of glucose uptake by the cell.
The results of the experiment should compare well with the prediction that an increase in the number of glucose carriers would lead to an increase in the rate of glucose transport. If more carriers were present, there would be a greater capacity for glucose transport, resulting in a higher rate of transport.
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Neostigmine is an indirect-acting anticholinesterase drug that is used to treat urinary retention by: Multiple Choice1. increasing the release of the antidiuretic hormone.2. stimulating the hypothalamic thirst centers.3. inhibiting the release of the antidiuretic hormone.4. stimulating bladder contractions.
Answer:
Option D, stimulating bladder contractions.
Explanation:
Neostigmine has a amine structure due to which it can cross the blood brain but once it gets absorbed it is secreted rapidly.
Disabled Urinary retention is a scenario in which the bladder never gets full. Neostigmine leads to accumulation of acetylcholine which triggers concentration based contractions in the urinary bladder. The muscarinic receptor on the urinary bladder contracts the bladder and the contraction gets stronger with passage of time
Hence, option D is correct
The DNA segment that carries information for building one protein or polypeptide chain is called a(n) ________.
Answer:
The correct answer is a gene
Explanation:
The DNA segment that carries information for coding one protein or polypeptide is called a gene. According to one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, each gene is responsible for making a single chain of the polypeptide.
Originally it was said that one gene codes for one enzyme but later it was found that some gene also codes for non-enzyme proteins and single polypeptide chains. So after this research, the theory was modified and one gene-one polypeptide theory came. Therefore the right answer is gene.
A human ova that contains 23 chromosomes joins a human sperm that contains 23 chromosomes, resulting in a zygote that has 47 chromosomes. The process that creates this is called______________
Answer:
fertilization.
Explanation:
During fertilization, male and female gametes are fused to form a zygote. The male gametes in humans are called sperms. Sperms are formed by meiosis in sperm mother cells and have a haploid number of chromosomes (n=23). Similarly, the female gamete in humans is an egg which is a product of meiosis and is haploid (n=23). The fusion of these two haploid cells occurs in the oviduct of females in humans and form the diploid zygote with 2n=46. This process is called fertilization.
The process, which creates 47 chromosomes in the given question is known as non-disjunction.
Non-disjunctionIt is a phenomenon in which the pair of homologous chromosomes has failed to separate at the time of cell differentiation, such that both the chromosomes go to one of the daughter cell and none to the other one.
It results in errors in chromosome number like trisomy 21 also known as Down syndrome.
Trisomy is characterized by an additional chromosome, that is, an individual with trisomy possess 47 chromosomes in place of 46.
Thus, the process is known as non-disjunction.
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Coal is used to produce energy. The harmful gases produced by coal are cleaned up by a method which needs a large amount of limestone. Predict and explain the long term effect on the environment of obtaining and using limestone.
Wet Scrubbers use limestone to clean the large amount of gases produced by combustion of coal.
Explanation:
It is true that coal produces energy but combustion of coal leads to the production of harmful gases that affects the environment and also causes global warming. Wet scrubbers also known as flue gas desulfurization systems, removes sulfur dioxide, a significant cause of acid rain, by spraying flue gas with limestone and water.
The mixture reacts with the SO2 to form synthetic gypsum, a component of drywall. Long term use of Limestone can affect the conditions of ground water.
The body's internal environment is separated into compartments by barriers, including epithelial barriers, which may or may not allow for the movements of molecules from one compartment to the next. Which of the following terms most accurately describes these membranes? Semipermeable or selectively permeable
Answer:
Semi Permeable or selectively permeable
Explanation:
The multicellular organisms are made of the cells which contain the cell membrane. The cell membrane is composed of the phospholipids and the protein molecules which provides important properties to the membrane.
The membrane acts as the semi-permeable or selectively permeable membrane as it selects the molecules to be passed through it into and out of the cell.
In the given question, the property of the barrier which may or may not allow the molecules to pass through it is due to the selective nature of the membrane and thus the membrane is selectively membrane.
Thus, Semi-Permeable or selectively permeable is correct.
For a given gene in a population, there are two alleles, A and a. The frequency of the dominant homozygote, AA, is 0.50; the frequency of the heterozygote, Aa, is 0.20; and the frequency of the recessive homozygote, aa, is 0.30. What is the frequency of the recessive a allele?
Answer:0.548
Explanation:
In a population the genotype frequency =p2+2pq+q2=1
gene frequency =p+q=1
Where p is the homozygous allele(A)
q is the recessive allele(a)
Pq represent the heterozygote allele
Given that p2=0.50
2pq=0.20
q2=0.30
To get q=√0.30
q=0.548
The gene frequency for homozgous reccessive allele a is 0.548
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. A population of frogs inhabits a lake. If the resource availability of the lake changes, the population may to use the resources that are available. As a result, the population would exhibit .
Populations of frogs may exhibit ecological plasticity by shifting distribution patterns in response to changes in resource availability in a lake.
Explanation:Populations are dynamic entities consisting of all species living within a specific area. When the resource availability of a habitat changes, the population of frogs in a lake may adapt to use the available resources. This adaptation is known as ecological plasticity, which refers to the ability of a population to adjust its behaviors and characteristics in response to environmental changes. The population may exhibit a shift in its distribution pattern and become more randomly distributed in the lake in response to lower energy flowing into the pond. This shift from clumped to random distribution is a way for the population to optimize its use of limited resources.
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What is one way in which microbiologists can distinguish different bacteria that are similar in morphology and staining characteristics?
Answer: Biochemical testing
Explanation:
The biochemical testing is the method which is used to differentiate the bacterial species which is similar in morphology and staining conditions.
The microbiologists previously used gram staining but this technique is not much specific. Now the modern technique is biochemical testing which uses different testing method for more specific testing of the bacterial species.
Biochemical tests includes hydrogen sulfide production, citric acid utilization, methyl red, fermentation.
Helen Fisher suggests that "through evolution humans have developed a set of neurochemicals that drive an 'evolutionary trajectory of loving'." Which of the following is a neurochemical that she sees as important in human sexuality?1. lactose2. dopamine3. pyrethrin4. melanin
Answer:
2. dopamine
Explanation:
Dopamine is one of the neurochemicals involved in the transmission of signals between the neurons of the brain. It is usually referred to as “the feel good” “happy” hormone that is released when stimulated by engaging in a pleasurable experience or activity. Dopamine controls the emotional and mental processes of humans. It is important in sexuality of human as it is responsible for the pleasurable feelings of satisfaction we experience.
During which phase would penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, be most effective?
Answer:
Explanation:
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Penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, would be most effective during the bacterial cell's growth and division phase, which is known as the "log" or "exponential" phase.
During this phase, bacteria actively replicate and grow, leading to the synthesis of new cell wall material to accommodate the increasing cell size. Penicillin targets the enzymes responsible for building the bacterial cell wall by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking.
In the log phase, bacteria are most vulnerable to antibiotics that disrupt cell wall synthesis because they are actively producing and modifying their cell walls. When penicillin is introduced during this phase, it interferes with the construction of the cell wall, causing the bacteria to weaken and eventually burst due to the osmotic pressure imbalance. Other phases, like the stationary phase or the lag phase, have reduced metabolic activity and may exhibit antibiotic resistance mechanisms, making penicillin less effective. Therefore, targeting the log phase ensures the highest efficacy in combating bacterial infections with penicillin.
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Which structure receives information from the hair cells of the inner ear and conveys that information to the brain's auditory system?
Answer:
Cochlea
Explanation:
This is comprised of fluid filled spiral canals separated by a movable membrane. These allow transmission of sound vibrations to reach the sensory hair cells. The cochlea is coiled and long to increase the surface area for attachment of sensory hair cells.
The structure that receives information from the hair cells of the inner ear and conveys it to the brain's auditory system is the cochlea.
Explanation:The structure that receives information from the hair cells of the inner ear and conveys that information to the brain's auditory system is the cochlea. When sound waves cause fluid waves in the cochlea, the bending of hair cells stimulates the auditory nerve, which carries the auditory information to the brain.
Auditory perception is not a one-way street. The brain can also send signals back to the cochlea, resulting in the modification of the outer hair cell length. This alters the hair cells' response to certain sound frequencies, demonstrating our auditory system's sophisticated modulation capabilities.
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What activity does cell 1 undertake to contribute to the body's defense against injury and infection? synthesis of protein fibers used to rebuild damaged tissue phagocytosis of foreign materials secretion of chemicals that trigger inflammation differentiation to form red blood cells?
Answer:
Phagocytosis of foreign materials.
Explanation:
The immune cells of the body helps to fight against infections and kill the pathogens. The different immune cells are white blood cells including eosinophils, lymphocyte and macrophages.
Macrophages are the immune cells that has the ability to eat the cells and phagocytose the pathogens. The macrophages plays an important role in the immune system as they reach at the site of the infections and injury and phagocytose the foreign materials.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Cell 1, a white blood cell, contributes to the body’s defense against injury and infection through phagocytosis (engulfing and destroying foreign materials) and secretions of chemicals to trigger inflammation. They however do not directly differentiate to form red blood cells.
Explanation:The activity that cell 1, commonly known as a white blood cell or leukocyte, often undertakes to contribute to the body's defense against injury and infection is phagocytosis. This important function involves engulfing and destroying foreign materials, such as pathogens. It's an integral part of the body's immune response. These cells also participate in the secretion of chemicals that trigger inflammation. This helps to isolate the affected area and prevent the spread of pathogens while attracting more white blood cells to the area to fight off the infection. Differentiation to form red blood cells is not a direct function of leukocyte cells but of stem cells in the bone marrow.
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his geologic era is known as the age of aquatic plants and animals. a. Precambrian b. Mesozoic c. Cenozoic d. Paleozoi
Answer:d.Paleozoic Era
Explanation:
Paleozoic Era is hallmarked by climate, animals & plants.
This Era includes the Ordovician Period, Silurian Period and the Devonian Period.
The Silurian Period is one during this era where aquatic plants and animals evolved.
Work done in Louisiana’s coastal wetlands is an example of ____.
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a. a hot spot
b. an ecoregion
c. a habitat island
d. conservation
e. ecological restoration
Work done in Louisiana's coastal wetlands is an example of an conservation
Which vegetation type found in the Russian Federation represents a cold-resistant, coniferous forest?
Answer: Taiga.
Explanation:
Taiga is a very cold forest, it is found in the Northern Hemisphere below the South of the Arctic circle. It doubles as the driest and coldest forest in the world, it is also known as the boreal forest, composed of evergreen trees with scaled leafs and also leafs that bears cones and are needle like. This forest experience long winters.
The Taiga forest in Russia is about 5800km which happens to be the largest in the world, this area is completely covered by ice, even the soil in this region is permanently frozen.
If a solute is moving through a phospholipid bilayer from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the assistance of a protein, the manner of the transport must be:_____________
a. active transport
b. facilitated diffusion
c. simple diffusion
d. any of above, depending of the solute
e. solutes cannot cross phospholipids
Answer:
D because it depends on the size of solute
Explanation:
the particles moving from higher concentration to lower concentration
Reaction rates
1. Suppose that the enzymes that catalyze the dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions that build and break down organic compounds are sensitive to temperature. They operate most quickly at 30°C and become slower as the
2. At 20°C the enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of polysaccharides functions at 1 reaction every 20 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis reactions of a very long polysaccharide molecule for 120 microseconds, into how many segments would this long polysaccharide be cut?
3. At 20°C the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of triglycerides functions at 1 reaction every 25 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes dehydration synthesis reactions for 450 microseconds, bonding fatty acids to glycerol, what is the maximum number of complete triglycerides that could be formed if no fatty acids were bonded to glycerol at the beginning of the reactions?
4. At 25°C the enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fatty acids from triglycerides functions at 1 reaction every 6 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis reactions for 96 microseconds, what is the maximum number of glycerol molecules that could be stripped of all of their fatty acids?
5. At 25°C the enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of proteins functions at 1 reaction every 3 microseconds. If this enzyme catalyzes hydrolysis reactions of a very long polypeptide molecule for 27 microseconds, how many segments would the polypeptide be cut into?
Answer:
1. These enzymes operate most quickly at 30°C and become slower as the temperature is lower, and also when is higher.
2. Six fragments
3. Eighteen complete triglycerides
4. Sixteen glycerol molecules
5. Nine peptides
Explanation:
Question 1. it's known that at low temperatures the movement of particles is slower, and being 30°C the optimal temperature for these enzymes to work, below 30°C these enzymes will work slower. As these enzymes are also temperature-sensitive, at higher temperatures they tend to denature, and will work slower as temperature increases, and will stop when are totally denatured
For questions 2 to 5, we divide the reaction time in any of the group of enzymes involved in catalysis, between the 1 reaction time to obtain the performance ratio. That means number of fragments, segments, or molecules rendered after hydrolysis, or synthesis, in the respective given sort of catalysis.