Decide whether the rates are equivalent.
$16 for 4 pounds
$1 for 4 ounces

Answer:31.625

2 7/8 8 times 9 =25.875 +(2.875 times 2) =31.625

Answer:

6C

Step-by-step explanation:

Final answer:

By subtracting the 4°C decrease from the initial temperature of 2°C, it is determined that the temperature on Sunday was -2°C.

Explanation:

The question involves a basic mathematics operation related to temperature changes. The temperature on Saturday was 2°C, and on Sunday, it became 4°C colder. To find the temperature on Sunday, you simply need to subtract 4°C from Saturday's temperature:

Saturday's temperature: 2°C

Temperature decrease: 4°C

Sunday's temperature: 2°C - 4°C = -2°C

Thus, the temperature on Sunday was -2°C.

Answer:

Option D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Recall that the wider the confidence interval, the greater the variability.

In other words, wider confidence interval will have bigger sample standard deviation.

For option A, the width is |48-42|=6

For option B, the width is |50-40|=10

For option C, the width is |55-35|=20

For option D, the width is |45.5-44.5|=1

Therefore the team in option D has the smallest sample standard deviation.

As for the confidence level, it is just telling us the extent to which we confidence that, the parameter is within the interval

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The right answer is [{-5,-6]}

Explanation: I got it right on my test

Answer:

[{-5,-6]}

Step-by-step explanation:

"All real numbers greater than 0" best describes the range of the function after it has been reflected over the y-axis ⇒ 3rd answer

Step-by-step explanation:

The form of the exponential function is [tex]f(x)=a(b)^{x}[/tex], where

∵ [tex]f(x)=2(\frac{1}{4})^{x}[/tex]

- Compare it with the form above

∴ a = 2 ⇒ initial value

∴ b = [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] ⇒ decay factor because its between 0 and 1

∵ The domain of the function is the values of x

∴ The domain of the function is {x : x ∈ R} ⇒ all real numbers

∵ The range of the function is values of y

∴ The range of the function is {y : y > 0}

∵ Reflection over the y-axis change the sign of x

∴ The image of f(x) is [tex]y=2(\frac{1}{4})^{-x}[/tex]

- That means, all x-coordinates of the points on the graph

   opposite in signs, but that does not effect the domain

   because the domain is all real numbers

∵ There is no change of the sign of y

- That means reflection over y-axis does not effect the range

∴ The range of the function after reflection is the same as the

    range of f(x)

∴ The range of the image of f(x) is {y : y > 0}

"All real numbers greater than 0" best describes the range of the function after it has been reflected over the y-axis

Learn more:

You can learn more about the reflection in brainly.com/question/4057490

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Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

edge 2020

Answer:

The x axis is horizontal (sideways) while the y axis is vertical (up and down)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

49.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Round up, since the 8 [tex]\geq[/tex] 5

Answer:

[tex]\frac{51}{8}[/tex] cups.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that the ingredients for making chocolate cookies are [tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex] cup of brown sugar, [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex] cup of white sugar, [tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex] cup of butter, [tex]\frac{11}{8}[/tex] cup of flour, and [tex]\frac{5}{2}[/tex] cup of chocolate chips.

Now, we have to calculate the total number of cups of ingredients needed in making chocolate cookies.

So, it will be given by

[tex](\frac{3}{4} + \frac{1}{4} + \frac{3}{2} + \frac{11}{8} + \frac{5}{2})[/tex] cups

= [tex]\frac{3 \times 2 + 1 \times 2 + 3 \times 4 + 11 + 5 \times 4}{8}[/tex] cups

= [tex]\frac{51}{8}[/tex] cups. (Answer)

Answer:

Option A) -2(a+7b) is correct

Therefore -2(3a+6b)+(4a-2b)=-2(a+7b)

The equivalent expression to the given expression is -2(a+7b)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given expression is -2(3a+6b)+(4a-2b)

To find the equivalent expression to the given expression :

-2(3a+6b)+(4a-2b)

=-2(3a)-2(6b)+4a-2b ( apply the distributive property a(x+y)=ax+ay )

=-6a-12b+4a-2b

=-2a-14b ( adding the like terms )

=-2(a+7b) ( taking common term -2 outside  )

Therefore -2(3a+6b)+(4a-2b)=-2(a+7b)

The equivalent expression to the given expression is -2(a+7b)

Therefore option A) -2(a+7b) is correct

so the right option is A.

HOPE THIS WILL HELP U.

IF MY ANS WAS HELPFUL, U CAN FOLLOW ME.

Answer:

y.

Step-by-step explanation:

y  is common to both terms so the GCF is y.

Factoring we get:

y(3y - 4).

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3y^2 = 3 * y *y

4 y = 4 * y

GCF = y

3y^2 -4y = y*(3y - 4)

Answer:

y = - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

Here m = - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] and c = 4, thus

y = - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + 4 ← equation of line

Answer:

The slope-intercept form is y=mx+b y = m x + b , where m m is the slope and b b is the y-intercept. Using the slope-intercept form, the slope is 2 2 . The equation of a perpendicular line to y=2x+9 y = 2 x + 9 must have a slope that is the negative reciprocal of the original slope.

Missing: 6t= ‎| Must include: 6t=

For this case we have that each pencil box has 5 pencils, so:

[tex]\frac {152} {5} = 30.4[/tex] pencil boxes, this can be rounded to 31 pencil boxes.

On the other hand, if we have each pencil cost $2 then:

[tex]152 * 2 = 304[/tex]

Thus, the 152 pencils cost $304

Answer:

31 pencil boxes

152 pencils cost $304

Answer:

75

Step-by-step explanation:

45*1/3=15

15*5=75

Answer: 75 problems

Step-by-step explanation:

3/5 of an hour is the same as 3/5 x one hour.

one hour is the same as 60 minutes , this means that 3/5 of an hour is the same as :

3/5 x 60 = 36 minutes

This means that , the teacher graded 45 problems in 36 minutes. then in 1 minutes ;

The teacher will grade 45/36 problems

so in 60 minutes ;

the teacher will grade 45/36 x 60 = 75 problems

Answer:

23.9

Step-by-step explanation:

A circle has a diameter of 7.6 feet. Which measurement is closest to the circumference of the circle in feet?

TRUST ME

Answer:

V = one-third pi (4 squared) (7) feet cubed

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of cone v = 1/3×π(r²h)

r = 4 and h = 7

V = 1/3 × π(4²×7)

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation:

[tex]28v^3+16v^2-21v-12[/tex]

To find, the factors of [tex]28v^3+16v^2-21v-12[/tex] = ?

∴ [tex]28v^3+16v^2-21v-12[/tex]

[tex]=(4\times 7)v^3+(4\times 4)v^2-(3\times 7)v-(3\times 4)[/tex]

= [tex]4v^2(7v+4)-3(7v+4)[/tex]

= [tex](7v+4)(4v^2-3)[/tex]

= [tex](7v+4)[(2v)^2-\sqrt{3}^2][/tex]

Using the algebraic identity,

[tex]a^{2}-b^{2}=(a+b)(a-b)[/tex]

= [tex](7v+4)(2v+\sqrt{3})(2v+\sqrt{3})[/tex]

∴ The factor of [tex]28v^3+16v^2-21v-12[/tex] = [tex](7v+4)(2v+\sqrt{3})(2v+\sqrt{3})[/tex] or [tex](7v+4)(4v^2-3)[/tex]

Answer:

5 x 5 = 25 and 5 + 5 = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

You multiply 5 Five times.

So you get 5,10,15,20,25!

The answer is 25

You add 5 two times.

So you get 5 plus 5!

5,6,7,8,9,10!

The answer is 10

Hope this helped!

~Oreo!!

Answer:

5x5=25

5+5=10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

See diagram and explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

A number on the right is greater than a number on the left on the number line.

Mark numbers 2 and 3 on number line (number 3 is to the right from number 2, because 3 > 2).

Divide the unit segment  between numbers 2 and 3 into 8 equal parts (this segment is the unit segment because the distance between 3 and 2 is 1).

Each such part represents [tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex] of the segment.

Mark the number [tex]2\dfrac{1}{8}[/tex] next to the right from 2 (you have to take 2 and 1/8).

Answer:

  C = (4, 4.75)

Step-by-step explanation:

Point C will divide segment AB into the ratio 3:5, matching the respective rates of travel. Then the location of point C can be found from ...

  C = (5A +3B)/(3+5)

  C = (5(1, 1) +3(9, 11))/8 = (5 +27, 5 +33)/8 = (4, 4.75)

The point where Anna and Mary meet is (4, 4.75).

Answer:

4, 4.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a^2-9ab+3ab^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Solved on paper so i can't show work but I did it properly i swear

Answer:

if you found this off edge its Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The lengths of side A is 22.4 and B is 11.9.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

If side A is twice as long as B and C is 25 using the Pythagorean Theorem.

Now, to find the lengths of side A and B.

Let the side B be [tex]x.[/tex]

So, the side A be [tex]2x.[/tex]

Side C = 25.

Now, to solve by using Pythagorean Theorem:

A² + B² = C²

[tex](2x)^2+(x)^2=(25)^2[/tex]

[tex]4x^2+x^2=625[/tex]

[tex]5x^2=625[/tex]

Dividing both sides by 5 we get:

[tex]x^2=125[/tex]

Using square root on both sides we get:

[tex]x=11.18.[/tex]

B rounding to the nearest tenth =  11.9.

Now, to get A by substituting the value of [tex]x[/tex]:

[tex]2x\\=2\times 11.18\\=22.36.[/tex]

A rounding to the nearest tenth =  22.4.

Therefore, the lengths of side A is 22.4 and B is 11.9.

To find the inverse function f−1(x) for f(x)=√(2x−6), we first express f(x) as y, swap x and y, remove the square root by squaring both sides, solve for y, and substitute -4 into the new expression. This calculation reveals that f−1(-4) is 11.

To find the value of f−1(-4) for the function f(x)=√(2x−6), we need to find the value of x such that f(x) equals -4. Here is how to find the inverse function:

To find f−1(-4), substitute -4 into the inverse function:

y = ((-4)² + 6)/2

y = (16 + 6)/2

y = 22/2

y = 11

Therefore, f−1(-4) = 11.

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To find f−1(−4) for the function f(x) = √(2x − 6), solve for x in terms of y, square both sides, solve for x, and then substitute the value to find that f−1(−4) equals 11.

To find the value of f−1(−4) for the function f(x) = √(2x − 6), follow these steps:

Solve for x in terms of y by setting y = f(x):
y = √(2x − 6)

Square both sides to eliminate the square root:
y2 = 2x − 6

Solve for x:
x = (y2 + 6) / 2

Replace y with x to get f−1(x):
f−1(x) = (x2 + 6) / 2

Now, find f−1(−4):
f−1(−4) = (−42 + 6) / 2 = (16 + 6) / 2 = 22 / 2 = 11

Thus, the value of f−1(−4) is 11.

Answer:

-10 (g + 2) thus a:)

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify the following:

-9 (g + 2) - (g + 2)

-9 (g + 2) - (g + 2) = -10 (g + 2):

Answer: -10 (g + 2)

Answer: the best answer is 3(-3a-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Rate of the plane in calm air is  90 miles/hr and rate of the wind of wind is 10 miles/hr

Step-by-step explanation:

Average speed of plane in with wind = 400 /4 = 100 miles/hr

Average speed of plane against wind = 400/5 = 80 miles/hr

Consider the speed of plane in wind be  x miles/hr and speed of plane against wind  be  y  miles/hr

As such speed of plane in wind would be  x + y miles/hr and speed of plane  against wind would be  x - y miles/hr . i.e

x+y = 100

x-y = 80

by solving these two equation, we get

2x=180

x= 90 miles/hr

y=100-90

y= 10 miles/hr

hence, Rate of the plane in calm air is  90 miles/hr and rate of the wind of wind is 10 miles/hr

Final answer:

To determine the probability of drawing one red bead and one white bead from a bag, calculate the probability of each sequence (red then white, white then red) occurring and add them together. The result is that the probability that one bead of each color is taken is 4/11.

Explanation:

To find the probability that one red bead and one white bead are taken from a bag containing 7 red beads and 4 white beads (11 beads in total), we follow these steps:

Calculate the probability of drawing one red bead first and then one white bead.

Calculate the probability of drawing one white bead first and then one red bead.

Add the probabilities from step 1 and 2 together to find the total probability of drawing one bead of each color.

The probability of drawing one red bead first is 7/11 since there are 7 red beads out of 11 total beads.

After drawing a red bead, there are now 10 beads left in the bag, with 4 being white. So, the probability of drawing one white bead next is 4/10.

Multiplying these two probabilities gives us the probability of this particular sequence occurring: (7/11) * (4/10) = 28/110, which reduces to 2/11 when simplified.

We do a similar calculation for the reverse sequence, where a white bead is drawn first followed by a red bead. The probability for the first white bead is 4/11, and for the red bead after that, it's 7/10 since one white bead is already taken.

Multiplying these probabilities gives us: (4/11) * (7/10) = 28/110, which also simplifies to 2/11.

Finally, to find the total probability we add the probabilities of both sequences together: 2/11 + 2/11 = 4/11.

So, the probability that one bead of each color is taken is 4/11.

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

u could simplify it to 1/2 pls give brainliest answer

Answer: 1/2 and if you mean multiplying 4/8 because 2 ÷ 2 = 1 and 4 ÷ 2 = 2, and if you mean multiplying 2 • 2 = 4 and 4 • 2 = 8 so those are two answers.