Answer:
Darwin is known as the father of evolution and explains the theory of the natural selection. He explains the relationship between the evolution and the natural selection.
According to Darwin the population with more reproductive power has high chance of fitness and adapt in the environment. This is because the large number of individual in the population shows large variation with the variation in the fitness when subjected to the process of natural selection.
Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered, how many appear to be especially important in mental disorders?
Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered 4 appear to be especially important in mental disorders.
Explanation:
The signal from one neuron is passed to another neuron with the help of a neuron transmitter. The signal that is produced by one neuron must be responded by another neuron. The receptor of neuron are bounded by the neuron transmitters.
Pre synaptic neurons are those that helps in releasing the neuron transmitters. Postsynaptic neurons are those that are helpful in receiving these neuron transmitter signals. The signals that are also released by neurons in the direct that are in reverse to the above mentioned steps. In metal disorders 4 neuron transmitters are considered to be very important.
The dominant gene for round red blood cells is S and the recessive gene for sickle-shaped red blood cells is s. Based on their genotypes, which set of parents has the most likely chance of producing a child with sickle-cell disease?
a. SS mother and Ss father
b. Ss mother and SS father
c. Ss mother and Ss father
d. SS mother and SS father
Answer:
b
Explanation:because the recessive closet to the to the gene that causes is that
An athletic woman has just discovered she is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant. From the list of her usual sports and activities, which activity should be discussed in further detail since it is contraindicated during pregnancy?
Answer:
Activity and sports during pregnancy should be limited, should avoid exercises with high risk involved
Explanation:
These below mentioned activities are not suggested during 6th to 8th weeks pregnant period, they are as follows
Holding the breath while exercising may affect both the child as well as the mother, since both the fetus as well as the mother need constant supply of oxygen.Avoid twisty motions.Maintain the sense of balance and not risking any sort of trauma to the abdomen.Avoid the exercise when feel fatigued.Exercise to the back side of the body is not suggested during the second trimester.Final answer:
An athletic woman who is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant should be cautious about engaging in high-impact or contact sports due to the risk to herself and the developing fetus. It's crucial to avoid harmful substances and consult a healthcare provider for advice on safe physical activities during pregnancy.
Explanation:
An athletic woman who has just discovered she is 6 to 8 weeks pregnant should be particularly cautious about the sports and activities she engages in during pregnancy. Among her usual activities, those with a high risk of impact falls, or abdominal trauma should be discussed in detail for potential contraindications. Activities like contact sports, high-impact aerobics, and extreme sports are generally considered risky. A pregnant woman must avoid toxins and engage in healthy behaviors that encourage normal fetal growth and development. Substances such as alcohol, illegal drugs, and certain medications can severely harm the embryo or fetus, especially during the first eight weeks after fertilization when the major organs are forming.
In conclusion, understanding the implications of specific exercises and sports during pregnancy can help ensure both the mother's and the unborn child's safety and well-being. Consulting a healthcare provider for personalized advice is always recommended for pregnant women wanting to continue their athletic pursuits.
most cells that have become transformed into cancer cells have which of the following when compared to normal, healthy cell?
Answer:
Explanation: Normal cells stop growing (reproducing) when enough cells are present.cancer cells will continue to grow even when there are enough cells present. This continued growth often results in a tumor (a cluster of cancer cells) being formed.
Cancer cells don’t interact with other cells as normal cells do. cancer cells dont respond to signals from other cells. Normal cells are either repaired or die (undergo apoptosis) when they are damaged or get old. Cancer cells are either not repaired or do not undergo apoptosis.
Normal cells secrete(release) substances that make them stick together(cluster) in a group. Cancer cells fail to make these substances, and can “float away to a distant region in the body.
cancer cells dont have the ability to spread metastasize.
Cancer cells dont exhibit maturity because they produce at a faster rate before each cell matures
Cancer cells have the ability to hide that is re-occur after it has shown to be gone.
Suppose there is a mutation in a lamininbinding integrin gene that causes a loss of function in thecytoplasmic domains of the integrin. Which of the following would you expect to observe as a result ofthis mutation?A.Tissues would be weakened because the integrin could no longer associate with microfilamentsin adherens junctions.B.The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to the laminin.C.Cell adhesion to laminin would decrease, but lamininmediated gene expression would remainthe same.D.The integrin would function normally because the cytoplasmic domain is not responsible forbinding to laminin.
Answer: The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to laminin. (Option B)
Explanation: Mutation (i.e change/alteration in the genetic sequence) in a laminin binding integrin gene causes a loss of laminin based functions in the cytoplasm.
The integrin will only bind to laminin in the cytoplasm, because there is alteration in the DNA sequence which codes for initiation of action in the cytoplasm.
Describe a situation from the news or recent history where scientists were called upon to provide explanations of events and offer possible solutions to problems.
Answer:
Scientists obtain a great deal of the evidence they use by observing natural and experimentally generated objects and effects. Much of the standard philosophical literature on this subject comes from 20th century logical empiricists, their followers, and critics who embraced their issues and accepted some of their assumptions even as they objected to specific views. Their discussions of observational evidence tend to focus on epistemological questions about its role in theory testing. This entry follows their lead even though observational evidence also plays important and philosophically interesting roles in other areas including scientific discovery, the development of experimental tools and techniques, and the application of scientific theories to practical problems.
The issues that get the most attention in the standard philosophical literature on observation and theory have to do with the distinction between observables and unobservables, the form and content of observation reports, and the epistemic bearing of observational evidence on theories it is used to evaluate.
Explanation:
Answer:
climate change, as the year goes on the globe gets warmer and warmer and it's not slowing down. Thanks to scientists, they have done years of research to help to make the earth more eco friendly to stop the rise in climate change.
How do the external structures of the respiratory system coordinate with the internal structures of the respiratory system in the process of respiration?
Answer:
The co-ordinate efficiently and effective...
Explanation:
Well...it is a type of antagonistic mechanism based of Dalton's Law for PArtial Pressures. We take in O2 and Exhale CO2 very effectively because the partial pressure of oxygen is higher outside and lower inside lungs and vice versa for CO2. when the Air with 21% O2 content enter the lungs, the Alveoli that are special sacs filled with air absorb some of it through their membranes and by a process called membrane diffusion of gases. The Air with 16% O2 content is exhaled out by the antagonistic action of lungs and Diaphram muscles combined.
A cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is A) HCO3-. B) Cl-. C) Ca++. D) Na+. E) K+.
Potassium ions (K+) have a greater concentration inside a neuron's cytosol than in the interstitial fluid outside of the neuron. The resting potential of the neuron is maintained through a greater concentration of Na+ ions outside the cell, with the sodium-potassium pump regulating ion levels by pumping two K+ ions into the neuron for every three Na+ ions pumped out.
Explanation:The correct answer to this question is E) K+. Potassium ions (K+) are more abundant in the cytosol of a neuron as compared to the interstitial fluid outside the neuron. To maintain the resting potential of the neuron, there is a higher concentration of K+ inside the neuron and a higher concentration of Na+ ions outside the neuron. This is maintained by the sodium-potassium pump, which pumps two K+ ions into the cell for every three Na+ ions it pumps out.
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The cation that is more abundant in the cytosol of a neuron than in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is K+ (potassium ion).
Explanation:The cation that is more abundant as a solute in the cytosol of a neuron than it is in the interstitial fluid outside the neuron is K+ (potassium ion).
At resting potential, sodium ions (Na+) are more highly concentrated outside the cell in the extracellular fluid, while potassium ions (K+) are more highly concentrated near the membrane in the cytoplasm or intracellular fluid. This is maintained by sodium-potassium pumps in the cell membranes, which actively transport three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions in, creating a net negative charge inside the cell.
Therefore, the correct answer is E) K+.
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The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines.True / False.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
The bone of the pelvic girdle which has four bony projections is termed as ilium.The four bony projections present on the ilium are called as iliac spines.The iliac spines acts as points where the muscles and ligaments can attach. The four projections are :Anterior superior iliac spineAnterior inferior iliac spinePosterior superior iliac spinePosterior inferior iliac spineOut of these four spines it is the anterior superior iliac spines that are palpable and are felt while putting hands on the hips.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The anterior superior lilac spine can be palpable with hands on the hips
Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense?
a. a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell
b. two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides
c. a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell
d. two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides
Answer:
The correct option is D. (Two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides)
Explanation:
The plasma membrane creates a barrier between the interior part of the cell and the cytoplasm. It is consisting of proteins and phospholipids and bi-layered in nature. Phospholipids are known as the main component of the plasma membrane.
Phospholipids are composed of alcohol and fatty acids and they are arranged in a specific manner. Each phospholipid molecule contains a water-hating tail that is hydrophobic in nature and a water-loving head which is hydrophilic in nature and the polar heads face the outside.
Final answer:
The correct arrangement is two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides, forming a phospholipid bilayer that acts as a barrier, maintaining the integrity of the cell. The correct option is d.
Explanation:
The correct phospholipid arrangement that makes the most sense, given that water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, is d. The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer. In this structure, the hydrophilic (water-loving) polar heads of the phospholipids face the aqueous environments of the cell's interior and exterior, while the hydrophobic (water-fearing) non-polar tails face inward, away from the water, creating a nonpolar region between both layers. This arrangement is critical because it allows the plasma membrane to act as an effective barrier to separate cellular contents from the external environment, maintaining the integrity of the cell in its water-based surroundings.
The nurse has entered a client's room and observed that the client has removed the mattress from the bed and is closely scrutinizing the spaces in the bed frame. Which statement is most likely to elicit an explanation of the client's behavior?
Answer:
a) "It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?"
Explanation:
In order to elicit an explanation with the patient, the nurse has to ask a question that is polite. To which a positive response will be given.
The statement "It looks like you're searching for something. Is that right?" will make the patient see the nurse wants to help him hence he will give a positive answer.
The other statements such as:
"What are you looking for in the bed? There's nothing hidden there." "Are you having any delusions or hallucinations right now?" "What's wrong with your bed?"Are rude and they will only make the patient get agitated and no explanation will be given.
_______ is located in the anterior neck produces key hormones for metabolism
Answer:
THYROID GLAND
Explanation:
Thyroid gland functions in metabolisms by activities of thyroid cells.This cells withdraws Iodine from metabolites and combine it with amino acid tyrosine for productions of Thyroid hormones:
ThyroxineT3,(20%)
TriiodothyronineT4(80%). This production is under the influence of Thyroid stimulating hormones,regulated by the pituitary gland,
T3 and T4 increase calorinogenesis, (liberation of heat from digestion to supply energy,and oxygen consumption of the heart.)
Deficiency of thyroid hormones are goiters, hypothyroidism, and hyperthyroidism
Swabbing the surface of your skin anywhere on your body and culturing that sample in the lab is likely to result in the growth of millions of bacterial cells on the culture plate, even if you practice good hygiene. True / False.
Answer: True
Explanation:
There is something called Skin flora. This refers to a group of microorganisms that reside on the skin. Staphlococcous aureus and Staphlococcous epidermidis are common examples. The Skin flora protects the skin from pathogenic organisms.
Proteins are made by:_____________ organelles RNA Ribosomes in plants only Ribosomes in plants and animals in the nucleus of plant and animal cells
Answer: Ribosomes in plants and animals
Answer:
Proteins are made by: Ribosomes in plants and animals
Explanation:
Have a Great day!!
Which viral genome is likely to require an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase for transciption upon viral entry?
Answer:
(-) sense single-stranded RNA
Explanation:
Negative sense refers to viruses that use the negative sense single stranded RNA as their genetic material.
It is essential for the negative viral strand is complimentary to the mRNA so it is converted to a positive RNA by RNA polymerase.
Negative sense single stranded RNA virus require an RNA dependent RNA polymerase for transcription. This is because it essential in encoding proteins by catalyzing the complimentary RNA strand to the given RNA tempelate.
Question 6 You cross a true-breeding red-flowered snapdragon with a true-breeding white-flowered one. All of the FI are pink. What does this say about the alleles for the parental traits? (Concept 14.3) a. Pink is dominant, while red and white are recessive. b. Red is completely dominant. c. Both red and white are pleiotropic. d. Red and white are codominant. e. Red shows incomplete dominance over white.
Answer:
E (Red shows incomplete dominance over white)
Explanation:
This portrays a monohybrid cross involving a single gene coding for flower colour in snapdragon plants. According to the question, a purebreeding red flowered (homozygous) plant is crossed with a purebreeding white flowered (homozygous) plant to produce an all pink flowered offspring. This phenomenon is called INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE.
Mendel, in his experiments, discovered that an allele can mask the expression of another in a heterozygous state. He called the allele that masks DOMINANT allele while the allele that is masked RECESSIVE allele. However, exceptions like INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE, has occurred in the sense that an allele does not completely mask the expression of its allelic pair, instead an intermediate phenotype, which is a combination/blending of both parental phenotypes is produced.
In this case, the red flowered snapdragon (RR) does not completely cover up the expression of white flower (rr), hence a hybrid/heterozygous offspring is produced that combines the phenotypic characteristics of both parents to form an intermediate flower colour (pink). Hence, it can be said that Red flower is incompletely dominant over white flower or no allele/trait is dominant or recessive to another.
The planet Mercury is closer to the sun than the planet Venus. However, temperatures on Venus are hotter than temperatures on Mercury. Why would this be the case?A) Mercury has a thicker atmosphere than Venus that blocks heat from the sun.B) Mercury spins more quickly than Venus, so its surface cannot heat up as quickly.C) Venus has a thicker atmosphere than Mercury that traps heat from the sun.D) Venus is cooled by high concentrations of water vapor in its atmosphere.
Answer:
The answer is B to my own knowledge
Bacteria of the genus Mycobacterium are difficult to stain because of the waxy material associated with their unique cell walls. Which of the following stains is used to stain Mycobacterium?a. Gram stain
b. Acid-fast stain
c. Counterstain
d. Endospore stain
e. Simple stain
Assuming independent assortment, an individual of genotype SsYyAa would produce gametes of genotypes (in their correct proportions) _____. See Section 14.3 (Page 297) .
Answer:
1/8 SYA, 1/8 SYa, 1/8 SyA, 1/8 Sya, 1/8 sYA, 1/8 sYa, 1/8 syA, 1/8 sya
Explanation:
The given genotype is heterozygous for three genes. Considering that all the genes assort independent of each other, the given genotype will form a total of 2^3= 8 types of gametes in equal proportion. During gamete formation, two alleles of a gene (S and s, Y and y, A and a) would separate from each other randomly. This would form a total 8 different types of gametes with the following genotype:
1/8 SYA: 1/8 SYa: 1/8 SyA: 1/8 Sya: 1/8 sYA: 1/8 sYa: 1/8 syA: 1/8 sya
Childbirth in mammals would be an example of endocrine-controlled negative feedback, because the production of oxytocin during childbirth results in additional oxytocin being synthesized by the posterior pituitary gland.
a.trueb.false
Answer:
The answer is option a. False.
Explanation:
Childbirth in mammals is not an example of endocrine-controlled negative feedback mechanism. In negative feedback mechanism one of the end product controls the activity of the pathway to stop further release of the product. In the example, the production of oxytocin during childbirth resulted in further synthesis and secretion of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.
Childbirth in mammals is an example of endocrine-controlled positive feedback mechanism.
Omnivores: _________a. subsist on dead matter and waste products of other organisms. b. may exist at any trophic level. c. feed primarily on primary producers. d. are never found in the first trophic level. e. always exist at the third trophic level.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Omnivores is one of the classification of animals based on their feeding pattern characterized by their ability to feed on both other animals (flesh) and plant materials. They can behave like carnivores and also like herbivores in terms of what they feed on. Due to this property they possess, they can be found in any trophic level except the first trophic level.
Omnivores can never be found in the first trophic level because they are also consumers, and that role of beginning energy flow in a food chain by obtaining energy from sunlight belongs to autotrophs called PRIMARY PRODUCERS. Omnivores can now because of their ability to feed on plants and animals, exist from the second trophic level upwards.
Omnivores can exist at any trophic level and consume both plants and animals. Option b is correct.
Explanation:Omnivores are heterotrophs that consume both plants and animals. They include pigs, brown bears, gulls, crows, and humans. Some omnivores eat more plants than animals, while others eat more animals than plants. They can exist at any trophic level and are not restricted to the third level. Therefore, the correct answer is b. may exist at any trophic level.
Omnivores are indeed versatile in their diet and can exist at various trophic levels within an ecosystem. Unlike strict herbivores that primarily consume plants or strict carnivores that primarily consume other animals, omnivores have a mixed diet, including both plant and animal matter. This adaptability allows them to occupy different niches and play diverse roles in food webs.
Omnivores can be found at various trophic levels, from primary consumers that feed on plants to secondary or tertiary consumers that may also consume other animals. This adaptability and flexibility in diet contribute to the ecological success of omnivores, as they can exploit a wider range of available food resources in their environment. Examples of omnivores include bears, humans, and certain bird species.
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In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?
The allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). A man heterozygous for dimples marries a women who is also heterozygous for dimples. What is the mans genotype and the woman genotype .
Man's genotype is Dd and women's genotype Dd.
Man's phenotype= dimple
woman's phenotype =dimple
Explanation:
Dimples are usually considered a dominant trait, this means that the presence of a dominant allele will pass the trait of the dimple to the progeny.
Dimples are dominant traits that are said to be irregular as the trait appearance is affected by other genes also.
The allele dominant for dimple will pass the trait and those with recessive allele will have no dimple is the logic.
Johann Sebastian Bach, renowned for his huge repertoire of musical compositions in the sixteenth century, was also, as a boy, an outstanding singer in the soprano range until he was about sixteen. That boys become men is axiomatic, and the change in voice is a characteristic of _______
Answer:
sexual dimorphism
Explanation:
Dimorphism means having two different forms, therefore sexual dimorphism is a phenomenal where two sexes of the same species will exhibit different characteristics apart from having different sex organs.
When John was young he could sing soprano because he had not yet undergone puberty. One of the changes that happens in boys is the change in voice which only happens to males making them different from females.
The change in voice that occurs in boys, like the transition Johann Sebastian Bach experienced, is a characteristic of puberty. This is due to an increase in the production of androgens, which leads to the growth of the larynx and the deepening of the voice.
Explanation:The change in voice that is mentioned about Johann Sebastian Bach, is a characteristic of puberty in males. Puberty is a biological stage during which a child's body matures into an adult capable of sexual reproduction. It is marked by a rapid growth spurt and the appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, including voice deepening in boys.
This change occurs due to the increased production of androgens—the male sex hormones, particularly testosterone, which causes the larynx (or voice box) to grow and the vocal cords to lengthen and thicken, resulting in a lower-pitched voice. This period of change is an integral part of human development.
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When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA, no corresponding tRNA enters the A site. If the translation reaction were to be experimentally stopped at this point, which of the following sets of structures would you be able to isolate from the cell?
The options are:
A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site
B) separated ribosomal subunits, a polypeptide, and free tRNA
C) an assembled ribosome with a separated polypeptide
D) separated ribosomal subunits with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA
E) a cell with fewer ribosomes
Answer:
The correct answer is A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site.
Explanation:
There are three sites in a ribosome E, P, and A. From A site aminoacyl tRNA enters the ribosome. When this tRNA shifts to P site the amino acids which were attached to the tRNA that was at P place shifts to a new tRNA molecule that replaced the old one.
The old deacylated tRNA leaves the mRNA-ribosome complex from E- site. So when translation reaction was to be experimentally stopped and there is no corresponding tRNA enters the A site then only an assembled ribosome with polypeptide chain attached to tRNA in P site can isolate from the cell because no tRNA is present at E and A site.
At the completion of translation when the ribosome encounter a stop codon on the mRNA, a complex consisting of the newly made protein, the ribosomal subunits, and the mRNA could be isolated from the cell. The protein release factors trigger this termination process.
Explanation:When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA during the process of translation, it indicates the termination of the protein synthesis. At this point, there is no corresponding tRNA that enters the A site of the ribosome. The components you would be able to isolate if the translation were experimentally stopped at this stage would primarily be the newly synthesized protein, the ribosomal subunits (both small and large), and the mRNA. The protein release factors recognize these stop codons and instruct the enzyme peptidyl transferase to release the nascent protein. Subsequently, the ribosomal subunits dissociate from each other and the mRNA.
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What part of the ECG tracing represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity?
PR interval represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity
Explanation:
An electrocardiogram is an electrical action produced by the heart that can be estimated by an arrangement of electrodes located on the heart exterior. The P wave is the initial wave on the ECG because the performance potential for the heart is created in the sinoatrial (SA) node, positioned on the atria.
The QRS collection points to the sequence of the Q, R, and S waves. The R wave, a skyward wave, is the usual obvious characteristic of an ECG. The duration of time from the incipience of the P wave to the start of the QRS system is termed the PR interval. This interlude depicts the time among the origin of atrial depolarization and the incipience of ventricular depolarization.
The P wave in an ECG tracing represents the time from the start of atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity. It demonstrates the time it takes for electrical activity to pass from atria to ventricles.
Explanation:In an ECG tracing, the P wave represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity. This wave shows the depolarization of the left and right atria, signaling the start of the contraction phase. The time interval between the start of this wave and the start of the QRS complex, which signifies the ventricular depolarization, reflect the time it takes for the electrical activity to pass from atria to ventricles via the AV node.
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Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a. hypotension and shock. b. hypertension and bradycardia. c. pallor and vasoconstriction above the level of injury. d. extreme pain below the level of injury.
Answer:
B) hypertension and bradycardia.
Explanation:
Autonomic dysreflexia is a syndrome which is characterised by the sudden rise in the blood pressure of the human. The disease is common in the people with a higher level of spinal cord injuries above the T6 level.
The condition occurs when some external stimuli like pain or irritant activate the involuntary response in the body which cause the blood pressure to rise (hypertension). This leads to the slowdown of the heartbeat (bradycardia) to restore the blood pressure but the body cannot restore the blood pressure due to the damage in the spinal cord.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
ction potentials typically move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body. This is due to which of the following?A. the temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spikeB. the temporary inactivation of sodium and potassium channels following the action potential spikeC. the movement of sodium ions out of the cell D. the myelination of the axon membrane
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. "the temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spike".
Explanation:
Action potentials, also known as "spikes" or "impulses", are electric impulses that neurons use to send information from the cell's body down to the axon. The impulses are created when ions travel across the neuron's membrane creating a depolarization current. This depolarization current is responsible for an temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spike. When neurons are hyperpolarized they are not able to produce another action potential. In consequence, actions potentials move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body, as well as, adjacent locations go trough similar depolarization processes.
ANSWER:
NONE OF THE ABOVE OPTIONS GIVEN ARE CORRECT.
Correct answer is that Action potentials typically move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body because the absolute refractory period prevents a depolarization from occurring in the direction from which the impulse came.
EXPLANATION:
Axons are a key component of a neuron, they conduct electrical signals in the form of an action potential from the cell body of the neuron to its axon terminal where it synapses with another neuron. An axon is insulated by a myelin sheath throughout its length to increase the velocity of these electrical signals allowing signals to propagate quickly.
Axons which are covered by a myelin sheath, a multilayer of proteins and lipids, are said to be myelinated. If an axon is not surrounded by a myelin sheath, it is unmyelinated. Myelination is the formation of a myelin sheath. Myelin sheaths insulate axons to increase the speed of electrical signal conduction. This allows myelinated axons to conduct electrical signals at high speeds.
Once an action potential has occurred at a patch of membrane, the membrane patch needs time to recover before it can fire again. At the molecular level, this absolute refractory period corresponds to the time required for the voltage-activated sodium channels to recover from inactivation, i.e., to return to their closed state.
THE ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD ensures that the action potential MOVES IN ONLY ONE DIRECTION along an axon. The currents flowing in due to an action potential spread out in both directions along the axon. However, only the unfired part of the axon can respond with an action potential; the part that has just fired is unresponsive until the action potential is safely out of range and cannot restimulate that part.
If you wanted to test whether or not a particular pain reliever was effective in the general population, you would need to design an experiment with an experimental group and a control group. What should be the only difference between these two groups?
Answer:
The explanation of any natural phenomena requires the proper observation, experiment and research methodology. The experimental design should not violate the ethics and do not cause harm to the living organisms.
The testing of any drug requires the involvement of the experimental group and control group. The experimental group must given the tested drug to known its effect and compared with the control group that will get the placebo understand the psychological effect of the drug.
The experimental group is given the experimental treatment and the control group is given either a standard treatment or nothing.
Using the same subject as control and experimental group will depend on the study design. If it is a crossover study, then it may be fine as different groups would undergo different interventions or control at various time points.For example: The testing of any drug requires the involvement of the experimental group and control group. The experimental group must given the tested drug to known its effect and compared with the control group that will get the placebo understand the psychological effect of the drug.Learn more:
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The case of Phineas Gage suggests that the _____ lobes regulate our personality. These lobes are largely responsible for much of what makes us uniquely human.
Answer:
Frontal Lobe
Explanation:
The structure of the brain is divided into four lobes namely: frontal lobe, occipital, temporal and parietal lobes.
The lobe in the front or frontal lobe is situated in the front portion of the cranium and is highly vulnerable to the injury. The front lobe is associated with the emotional control and personality traits like it controls the motor functions, social and sexual behaviour, language and memory.
Since the frontal lobe controls the social and sexual behaviour, therefore, the frontal lobe is correct.
Thus, Frontal Lobe is the correct answer.
Answer:
the frontal lobe
Explanation:
I took the test and that was the answer