Darker skin is more prevalent in high-UV areas. Dr. Jablonski proposed a hypothesis to explain the selective pressure for darker skin in these environments. On what evidence did she base this hypothesis?

Answer:

The correct order is:

4, 2, 1, 3

Explanation:

The list of options in this question depicts gene expression which involves transcription and translation processes.

Option 4 is simply describing the initial step of transcription where the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of a gene on the DNA and signals the initiation of transcription. RNA polymerase synthesizes a complementary strand of mRNA using the DNA it binds to as template.

Option 2 is a post-transcriptional process called SPLICING, which is the removal of the non-coding regions of a gene called INTRONS by enzymes called SPLICEOSOMES. This occurs in eukaryotic cell before the mRNA leaves the nucleus for the cytoplasm where translation will take place.

Option 1 signals the commencement of translation where a complex of ribosomal RNA and other proteins called RIBOSOME attaches to the mRNA molecule and uses the anticodons present in the tRNA to read the mRNA codons in order to carry the corresponding amino acid to the ribosome. The anticodons of the tRNA are complementary to the mRNA codon. At the end of translation, an amino acid sequence called polypeptide (future protein) will be released.

Option 3 tells us what happens after the translation process. The amino acids in the newly released protein are arranged in such a way that they make the protein a primary structure. The amino acids undergo certain modifications like folding that changesges the protein's structure from primary to tertiary.

Answer: 4213

The entire process is protein synthesis for gene expression.

The process  of  transcription  begins when the encoded protein information  from the DNA is transferred to the  mRNA.It begins when enzyme RNA polymerase bind with promoter region ( the point where the process of transcription begins) of a gene and initiates transcription.,the point where the process of transcription begins. The DNA double helix unwinds, the mRNA align and complementary paring of the bases occurs.

This is followed with the removal of noncoding part(introns) of the mRNA transcripts prior to translation  where;The spliceosome removes introns. This is essential because only the encoded part which contain the needed protein to be  transcribed is selected.

The mRNA is released, and leave the nucleus through the nuclear pore to the cytoplasm.In the cytoplasm the ribosomes with its two sub-units large and small  serve as templates for the mRNA with its anti codons and pairing  with the tRNA codons  in a complementary pairing for translation of amino acids to polypeptide sequence.

In the process of translation polypeptide chains of amino acids are formed as the complimentary  bases paired up to synthesize protein. Different levels of proteins are formed as the primary structure of the polypeptide chain undergoes hierarchical foldings to form the tertiary structure.

Explanation:

Answer:

Hypothesis

Explanation:

A hypothesis is simply defined as the idea or an explanation that can be tested by conducting experiments and studying it.

The above-given condition can be considered as a hypothesis, because several studies have been made on the fish oils that reflected the advantages of it, thereby helping in the medical diagnostics.

According to the research studies, it has been found that the oil obtained from the fishes are used as supplements and these help in the reduction of risk factors that are associated with cardiovascular events such as heart attack. It has also been found that the supplements comprising Vitamin D decrease the chances of developing cancer in human bodies.

Answer:

Polymyxin because, it inserts into the cell membrane and disrupts homeostasis.

Explanation:

Antimicrobial effect reacts with the cell membrane of the gram negative bacteria and causes disruption in their cell membrane by creating pores.

The cell membrane of bacteria release endotoxin for creating defense mechanism.

But the effect of certain antimicrobial peptide disrupt the effect of membrane by releasing electrostatic interaction and creates membrane pores.

The interaction between the microbial peptide and the cell membrane causes disruption of the cell.

Thus polymyxin is used to treat against the gram negative bacteria as they breaks the cell membrane of the bacteria.

Question is incomplete i have added complete question in picture format see attachment.

Answer with Explanation:

Heart Rate Decreases in following conditions:

Reason:

Decrease in heart rate results only when we are taking rest.

Heart Rate Increases in following conditions:

Reason:

Increase in heart rate results only when our body is in moving condition.

Answer:

Explanation:

A transaction in which two or more organizations or people give and receive something of value is called Exchange

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Answer:

This is because  the Viron  has in its genome a specialized code  for synthesising any missed enzyme for replication that is lacking in the host cell.

An example is the replication of the human  DNA cells by the Immunodeficiency virus(HIV) . Human  cells only have  enzymes for  copying  DNA templates, and   lacks the enzyme to convert the HIV  RNA genome  to human DNA.However these viruses have  in its genome; code for synthesising its own  RNA polymerase enzymes that copies  or transcribed  the   human DNA to HIV RNA.

 This  ability of the viral cell  to code  for the host's enzyme  has a therapeutic effect. Drugs can be targeted at the  viral polymerase enzymes to reduce the replication and therefore toxicity in the host cells.

Explanation:

Answer:

Oxidation of NADH by electron transport chain ensures a continuous supply of NAD+ for glycolysis.  

Explanation:

To continue the process of glycolysis, cells must have a continuous supply of NAD+ which is required during one of the reactions of the payoff phase of glycolysis. Two molecules of NADH are formed per glucose molecule during glycolysis. The NADH gives its electrons to the terminal electron acceptors (O2) via electron transport chain. This ensures that the process of glycolysis is continued in cells to breakdown the glucose into pyruvate.

Glycolysis is the first step in the breakdown of glucose in cellular respiration, providing energy to the cell. It is an anaerobic process that takes place in the cytoplasm. Glycolysis generates two molecules of pyruvate, two ATP, and two NADH molecules.

Glycolysis is the first pathway used in the breakdown of glucose to extract energy in cellular respiration. It is an anaerobic process that takes place in the cytoplasm of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Glycolysis starts with glucose and ends with two molecules of pyruvate, generating a net gain of two ATP and two NADH molecules.

If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules can be further processed through aerobic respiration in the mitochondria. If oxygen is not available, fermentation can occur to convert pyruvate into other substances. Glycolysis is essential for providing energy to the cell, especially in situations where oxygen is limited.

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Answer:

The percentage of people in Botswana that have HIV is 24. 83 percent .

Explanation:

Lesotho and Swaziland are the only country who is higher than Botswana in terms of terms of HIV prevalence rate in the world between adults aged from 15 to 49 years .

This condition has led to a major depletion in Botswana's workforce, because a good number of productive adults (18 to 50) developed AIDS and are unable to work .

Wet Scrubbers use limestone to clean the large amount of gases produced by combustion of coal.

Explanation:

It is true that coal produces energy but combustion of coal leads to the production of harmful gases that affects the environment and also causes global warming. Wet scrubbers also known as flue gas desulfurization systems, removes sulfur dioxide, a significant cause of acid rain, by spraying flue gas with limestone and water.

The mixture reacts with the SO2 to form synthetic gypsum, a component of drywall. Long term use of Limestone can affect the conditions of ground water.

Work done in Louisiana's coastal wetlands is an example of an conservation

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

The factors that affect soil formation are climate, rock type, slope, time, and biological activity. Differences in these factors will produce different types of soil. Soil type determines what can grow in a region. Humus, the decayed remains of living organisms, is essential for soils to be fertile.

The type of rock and minerals in the parent material determine the type of soil created. So the correct option is A.

The soil is a very essential one of our natural resources. Soil is important for the growth of vegetation that we depend on for food. It provides the plants with stability and nutrition. Soil is also a habitat for many microorganisms. It is also important for earthworms, rats, and a lot of other subterranean species that are present on earth.

Parent material is the material from which soil is formed. The source of all soil minerals is the rocks. The parent material is weathered chemically or physically. It is then transported and then deposited for the formation of the layers of soil. The parent material is usually the bedrock. Soil can also get transported because of natural factors like wind and water.

Pedogenesis is the name of the process for the formation of soil. It is first initiated by the weathering of rocks. The variations are developed according to the weather conditions.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

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Answer:

Answer is glucose.

Explanation:

Glucose is very important to the yeast cell. Because, it is known to be the energy and carbon source to the yeast cell.

Apart from the importance mentioned, the glucose also act as a signaling molecule.This means that , it can regulate the physiology aspects of the yeast cell.

It should be noted that, a signaling molecule can be described as a molecule capable of transmitting information between or among the cells.

Answer:

Explanation:

Vomiting is the involuntary expulsion of the contents of the stomach and duodenum out the mouth

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Answer:

the amino acid sequences of other proteins from gibbons, monkeys, and humans

Explanation:

To analyze evolutionary relatedness among gibbons, monkeys, and humans, scientists use a variety of evidence beyond just genetic data. Here are some key pieces of evidence: Fossil Records, Comparative Anatomy, Behavioral Studies, Molecular Evidence, and Biogeography.

Fossil Records: The fossil record provides a rich source of information about ancient species and their evolutionary history. By examining the remains of primates from different time periods, scientists can establish links between extinct and modern species.

Comparative Anatomy: Comparing the physical structures of gibbons, monkeys, and humans can reveal evolutionary relationships. Homologous structures, such as the arrangement of bones in limbs or the structure of organs, can indicate shared ancestry.

Behavioral Studies: Ethology, the study of animal behavior, can offer insights into common behaviors or social structures among these species. Similarities in behavior can suggest shared evolutionary traits.

Molecular Evidence: In addition to genetics, other molecular evidence like protein sequencing and the study of non-coding DNA regions can reveal similarities and differences in the genomes of these species.

Biogeography: Analyzing the distribution of these primates across different continents can provide insights into their evolutionary history and past connections.

By integrating multiple sources of evidence, scientists can construct a more comprehensive understanding of the evolutionary relatedness among gibbons, monkeys, and humans, revealing their shared ancestry and the branching points in their evolutionary tree.

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Answer and Explanation:

Available data:

a. Walnut crossed with single produces 1 walnut, 1 rose, 1 pea, and 1 single offspring:

Parental)             RrPp       x          rrpp

Gametes)   RP   Rp   rP   rp     rp   rp   rp   rp

Punnet Square)      RP       Rp     rP        rp

                     rp   RrPp    Rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

                     rp    RrPp    Rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

                     rp    RrPp    Rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

                     rp    RrPp    Rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

F1 phenotype: 25% walnut, 25% rose, 25% pea, and 25% single.

F1 genotype: 4/16 RrPp, 1/16 Rrpp, 4/16 rrPp, 4/16 rrpp.

b. Rose crossed with pea produces 20 walnut offspring.

Parental)              RRpp       x          rrPP

Gametes)   Rp   Rp   Rp   Rp     rP   rP   rP   rP

Punnet Square)      Rp       Rp     Rp        Rp

                     rP    RrPp    RrPp   RrPp   RrPp

                     rP    RrPp    RrPp   RrPp  RrPp

                    rP    RrPp    RrPp   RrPp   RrPp

                     rP    RrPp    RrPp   RrPp   RrPp

F1 phenotype: 100% walnut.

F1 genotype: 16/16 RrPp.

c. Pea crossed with single produces 1 single offspring.

This is not possible, because the pea genotype involves at least one dominant allele P. There are two possible crosses: rrPp x rrpp, which must produce half of the progeny pea and the other half single, or rrPP x rrpp which produce a whole pea progeny with no single offspring.  

Parental)              rrPp       x          rrpp

Gametes)   rP   rp   rP   rp     rp   rp   rp   rp

Punnet Square)     rP       rp       rP      rp

                     rp   rrPp    rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

                    rp    rrPp    rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

                     rp    rrPp    rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

                     rp    rrPp    rrpp   rrPp   rrpp

F1 phenotype: 50% pea, and 50% single.

F1 genotype: 8/16 rrPp, 8/16 rrpp.

d. Rose crossed with pea produces 2 walnut, 1 single, and 1 pea offspring.

This is not possible, because having one of the parents with a rose phenotype  involves at least one R allele, which means that there must be rose phenotype in the progeny.

Parental)             Rrpp       x          rrPp

Gametes)   Rp   Rp   rp   rp     rP   rP   rp   rp

Punnet Square)     Rp       Rp       rp      rp

                     rP   RrPp   RrPp   rrPp   rrPp

                     rP   RrPp    RrPp   rrPp   rrPp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   rrpp  rrpp

                     rp   Rrpp    Rrpp   rrpp   rrpp

F1 phenotype: 25% walnut, 25% rose, 25% pea, and 25% single.

F1 genotype: 4/16 RrPp, 1/16 Rrpp, 4/16 rrPp, 4/16 rrpp.

e. Rose crossed with single produces 31 rose offspring.

Parental)              RRpp       x          rrpp

Gametes)   Rp   Rp   Rp   Rp     rp   rp   rp   rp

Punnet Square)     Rp       Rp       Rp      Rp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   Rrpp   Rrpp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   Rrpp   Rrpp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   Rrpp   Rrpp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   Rrpp   Rrpp

F1 phenotype: 100% rose (31 individuals equal 100% of the progeny).

F1 genotype: 16/16 Rrpp.

f. Rose crossed with single produces 10 rose and 11 single offspring.

Parental)              Rrpp       x          rrpp

Gametes)   Rp   Rp   rp   rp     rP   rP   rp   rp

Punnet Square)      Rp       Rp       rp      rp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   rrpp   rrpp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   rrpp   rrpp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   rrpp   rrpp

                     rp    Rrpp    Rrpp   rrpp   rrpp

F1 phenotype: 50% rose, 50% single.

F1 genotype: 8/16 Rrpp, 8/16 rrpp.

Answer:

Direct health care services.

Explanation:

The health is one of the most important factor for all the individuals of the nation. The individual should be fit and healthy physically, mentally as well as socially.

The government has started the health care services to provide free health services or at low cost. These services includes the regular vaccination, health check up camps, address the health disparities and proper medication facility.

Thus, the answer is direct health care services.

The correct term to fill in the blank is organizational.

The public health pyramid, also known as the Spectrum of Prevention, is a framework that outlines various levels of intervention to improve public health outcomes. At the organizational level of the pyramid, programs are designed to change the cultural competence of the workforce and enhance their ability to address health disparities and cultural diversity. This level focuses on the policies, practices, and cultural norms within organizations that can influence health behaviors and outcomes. By implementing programs at this level, organizations can create supportive environments that promote health equity and effectively serve diverse populations. These programs might include cultural competency training, diversity and inclusion initiatives, and policy development that prioritize equity in healthcare deliver.

Answer:

Option (D)

Explanation:

The Paleozoic Era refers to the time, from about 540 million years ago to 250 million years ago. During this era, there occurred drastic changes on earth. was a time of great change on Earth.

Life first originated in water, and with time the evolutionary process occurred and gave rise to the formation of numerous varieties of living species that dwelled in both the land as well as in water.

During this Paleozoic era, the primitive aquatic plants appeared, which were gradually widely spread over the large seas and oceans. There also occurred marine organisms such as trilobites, for the first time during the Cambrian period of the Paleozoic era. By the Ordovician period, these aquatic plants and animals were abundant, due to which it was commonly referred to as the age of aquatic plants and animals.

By the end of this era, there occurred a heavy mass extinction event, that wiped out almost 75-80% of all the living species on earth.

The Paleozoic era most aptly describes the metamorphic rocks as mot of the metamorphic rocks found on earth belongs to this era.

Thus, the correct answer is option (D).

Answer:

Option D, stimulating bladder contractions.

Explanation:

Neostigmine has a amine structure due to which it can cross the blood brain but once it gets absorbed it is secreted rapidly.

Disabled Urinary retention is a scenario in which the bladder never gets full.  Neostigmine leads to accumulation of acetylcholine which triggers concentration based contractions in the urinary bladder. The muscarinic receptor on the urinary bladder contracts the bladder and the contraction gets stronger with passage of time

Hence, option D is correct

Answer:

C. serve as a rigid barrier to prevent cell lysis

Explanation:

The cell wall of bacteria is mainly made up of peptidoglycan and of plant is made up of cellulose. It is present outside the cell membrane. The cell wall is a rigid layer that provides structural and mechanical support to the cell and helps in defining the shape of the cell.

It protects the cell from mechanical stress and prevents the cell from osmotic lysis or cell bursting. The cell wall of bacteria is common to target for many antibiotics because the animal cell does not contain a cell walls. Therefore the correct answer is C.

Answer:

Proband

Explanation:

In medical genetics, a proband is used to refer to the first person or individual in a pedigree whose phenotype is first brought out to attention of a medical researcher or the first affected family member to seek medical attention for a genetic disorder.

A proband can be male or female.

Proposito will refer to the male proband and it is denoted by a shaded square  whereas proposita is a female proband denoted by a shaded circle.

Answer:

The correct answer is a gene

Explanation:

The DNA segment that carries information for coding one protein or polypeptide is called a gene. According to one gene-one polypeptide hypothesis, each gene is responsible for making a single chain of the polypeptide.

Originally it was said that one gene codes for one enzyme but later it was found that some gene also codes for non-enzyme proteins and single polypeptide chains. So after this research, the theory was modified and one gene-one polypeptide theory came. Therefore the right answer is gene.

Answer:d.Paleozoic Era

Explanation:

Paleozoic Era is hallmarked by climate, animals & plants.

This Era includes the Ordovician Period, Silurian Period and the Devonian Period.

The Silurian Period is one during this era where aquatic plants and animals evolved.

Answer:

Explanation:

I would need help to

Penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, would be most effective during the bacterial cell's growth and division phase, which is known as the "log" or "exponential" phase.

During this phase, bacteria actively replicate and grow, leading to the synthesis of new cell wall material to accommodate the increasing cell size. Penicillin targets the enzymes responsible for building the bacterial cell wall by inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking.

In the log phase, bacteria are most vulnerable to antibiotics that disrupt cell wall synthesis because they are actively producing and modifying their cell walls. When penicillin is introduced during this phase, it interferes with the construction of the cell wall, causing the bacteria to weaken and eventually burst due to the osmotic pressure imbalance. Other phases, like the stationary phase or the lag phase, have reduced metabolic activity and may exhibit antibiotic resistance mechanisms, making penicillin less effective. Therefore, targeting the log phase ensures the highest efficacy in combating bacterial infections with penicillin.

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Answer:

Cochlea

Explanation:

This is comprised of fluid filled spiral canals separated by a movable membrane. These allow transmission of sound vibrations to reach the sensory hair cells. The cochlea is coiled and long to increase the surface area for attachment of sensory hair cells.

The structure that receives information from the hair cells of the inner ear and conveys it to the brain's auditory system is the cochlea.

The structure that receives information from the hair cells of the inner ear and conveys that information to the brain's auditory system is the cochlea. When sound waves cause fluid waves in the cochlea, the bending of hair cells stimulates the auditory nerve, which carries the auditory information to the brain.

Auditory perception is not a one-way street. The brain can also send signals back to the cochlea, resulting in the modification of the outer hair cell length. This alters the hair cells' response to certain sound frequencies, demonstrating our auditory system's sophisticated modulation capabilities.

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Answer:0.548

Explanation:

In a population the genotype frequency =p2+2pq+q2=1

gene frequency =p+q=1

Where p is the homozygous allele(A)

q is the recessive allele(a)

Pq represent the heterozygote allele

Given that p2=0.50

2pq=0.20

q2=0.30

To get q=√0.30

q=0.548

The gene frequency for homozgous reccessive allele a is 0.548

Populations of frogs may exhibit ecological plasticity by shifting distribution patterns in response to changes in resource availability in a lake.

Populations are dynamic entities consisting of all species living within a specific area. When the resource availability of a habitat changes, the population of frogs in a lake may adapt to use the available resources. This adaptation is known as ecological plasticity, which refers to the ability of a population to adjust its behaviors and characteristics in response to environmental changes. The population may exhibit a shift in its distribution pattern and become more randomly distributed in the lake in response to lower energy flowing into the pond. This shift from clumped to random distribution is a way for the population to optimize its use of limited resources.

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Answer:

fertilization.

Explanation:

During fertilization, male and female gametes are fused to form a zygote. The male gametes in humans are called sperms. Sperms are formed by meiosis in sperm mother cells and have a haploid number of chromosomes (n=23). Similarly, the female gamete in humans is an egg which is a product of meiosis and is haploid (n=23). The fusion of these two haploid cells occurs in the oviduct of females in humans and form the diploid zygote with 2n=46. This process is called fertilization.

The process, which creates 47 chromosomes in the given question is known as non-disjunction.

It is a phenomenon in which the pair of homologous chromosomes has failed to separate at the time of cell differentiation, such that both the chromosomes go to one of the daughter cell and none to the other one.

It results in errors in chromosome number like trisomy 21 also known as Down syndrome.

Trisomy is characterized by an additional chromosome, that is, an individual with trisomy possess 47 chromosomes in place of 46.

Thus, the process is known as non-disjunction.

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Answer:

Neurasthenia

Explanation:

The gilded age refers to the last decades of the nineteenth century that is between the 1870s to about 1900.

The medical term which was used during the Gilded age to refer to the condition caused by the weakness of the nerves or nervous breakdown or nervous illness is Neurasthenia.

The Neurasthenia was marked by the symptoms of the depression, the fight or flight responses such as indigestion, the nervousness and the irritability.

Thus, Neurasthenia is the correct answer.

The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:

Answer:

640 Cells

Explanation:

The bacterial cell divides by the process of binary fission which divides a parent bacterial cell into two daughter cells.

In the given condition, the generation time or the average time between the two generations is 6 minutes. When he analyzed the population at 5 pm, he found 20 bacterial cells.

At 5.30 pm, the bacterial cell will have 640 cells as

1. After every 6 minute the population doubles

2. The minute's difference between 5 pm to 5.30 pm is 30 minutes.

3. Since 1 generation time-6 min therefore 30 minutes will have = 30/ 6 = 5 generation.

4. The bacterial cell will be calculated using formula

[tex]2^{number of generations}[/tex] x an initial number of bacteria in a population, therefore, [tex]2^{5}[/tex] x 20 = 640 bacterial cells.

Thus, 640 Cells is the correct answer.

Answer:

Phagocytosis of foreign materials.

Explanation:

The immune cells of the body helps to fight against infections and kill the pathogens. The different immune cells are white blood cells including eosinophils, lymphocyte and macrophages.

Macrophages are the immune cells that has the ability to eat the cells and phagocytose the pathogens. The macrophages plays an important role in the immune system as they reach at the site of the infections and injury and phagocytose the foreign materials.

Thus, the correct answer is option (2).

Cell 1, a white blood cell, contributes to the body’s defense against injury and infection through phagocytosis (engulfing and destroying foreign materials) and secretions of chemicals to trigger inflammation. They however do not directly differentiate to form red blood cells.

The activity that cell 1, commonly known as a white blood cell or leukocyte, often undertakes to contribute to the body's defense against injury and infection is phagocytosis. This important function involves engulfing and destroying foreign materials, such as pathogens. It's an integral part of the body's immune response. These cells also participate in the secretion of chemicals that trigger inflammation. This helps to isolate the affected area and prevent the spread of pathogens while attracting more white blood cells to the area to fight off the infection. Differentiation to form red blood cells is not a direct function of leukocyte cells but of stem cells in the bone marrow.

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