Answer:
Depressogenic
Explanation:
Depressogenic thinking is a type of maladaptive psychological process in which one become engrossed with thoughts that are self-focused and are often characterized with reoccurring negative self-perception. These thought patterns, that often distort one’s cognition, usually triggers most mental health disorders, as the person ruminates and reflects on negative thoughts.
______ statements explain your feelings and allow you to take ownership of your opinions and feelings without putting down others for how they feel and think.
Answer:
I statements
Explanation:
An "I statement" is a statement that begins with the word "I". In inter-personal communication, communicating effectively is paramount, especially in solving conflicts and when handling tense situations. I statements can be used to explain ones feelings. It allows one to take responsibility of their feelings, emotions and opinions without making others feel down or less for having diverse opinions and feelings.
I statements clarify your sentiments as well as help users to take responsibility for your thoughts.
I statement:
Effective communication would be critical throughout inter-personal information exchange, and even more so just before resolving confrontations as well as dealing with stressful circumstances.
I statements could be utilized just to express one's emotions. It lets one assume responsibility regarding their experiences, sentiments, as well as ideas without making other people experience inferiority or less because they have different thoughts and sentiments.
Thus the above answer is correct.
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Resistance-training can be a high-intensity exercise, so one must be careful that the energy expended does not result in a negative energy balance, thus defeating the original purpose of the training.a) trueb) false
Answer: False
Explanation:
In the case of negative energy balance the body stored fat will shrink and the body will loose weight. The high intensity resistance training is a strength training exercise which is done for the purpose of weight loss. During the high intensity resistance training exercise the person will include number of set of repeats for the set number of minutes without taking rest so as to elevate the heart rate.
On the basis of the above description, the high intensity resistance training one must be careful for the energy expended as the exercise may result in negative energy balance.
Thomas is an adolescent who often seeks out potentially harmful situations without thinking about the consequences. Which of the following factors is most likely influencing his decision to drink alcohol?A. hereditary B. environmental C. expectations D. risk-taking
Answer:
sfgh
Explanation:
The nurse is counseling a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Complete Question:
The nurse is counseling a client infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) regarding prevention of HIV transmission. Which statement by the client indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Explanation:
2. "I can safely have a-n-a-l s-e-x without any barriers"
The client must use the barrier and protection for any kind of s-e-x involving oral, vaginal and a-n-a-l. This must be followed up by the nurse as correct information must be passed on to client.
Experiments on subliminal perception commonly use an instrument to flash images too quickly for conscious recognition but slowly enough to be registered by the brain; this instrument is called a(n)_____.
Answer:
tachistoscope
Explanation:
Tachistoscope -
It is a type of instrument , which is capable to show an image for some specific time period , is referred to as tachistoscope .
It helps to show something at a higher speed .i.e. , to increase the recognition speed .
The main advantage of this instrument is to flash any image very quickly .
Hence , from the given information of the question ,
The correct answer is tachistoscope .
You are conducting a multisite trial for a large pharmaceutical company, one requirement of which is to select a scale that will consistently provide objective data, on a weekly basis, for depression. You need the scale to be consistent and change gradually only in response to the positive effects of the drug being tested. You need a scale with good:
Answer:
You need a scale with good reliability
Explanation:
Reliability is defined as the consistency of a research study or measuring test. A reliable test produces the same repeated results under the same or consistent conditions.
Since one of the criterias is to select a scale that will consistently provide objective data, on a weekly basis, for depression and change gradually only in response to the positive effects of the drug being tested. You need a scale with good reliability.
To measure depression effectively in a pharmaceutical trial, a scale with high reliability and validity is essential, ensuring consistent and accurate assessment of the drug's impact on patients.
Explanation:Choosing a Scale for Measuring Depression in Clinical Trials
For a multisite trial in a pharmaceutical study, selecting a scale that provides objective data for depression with consistency and sensitivity to changes due to drug effects is crucial. The desired scale needs to have good reliability and validity. Reliability ensures that the measurement of the construct remains consistent over time, much like a weight scale giving the same reading consistently unless the actual weight changes. Validity, on the other hand, ensures that the scale accurately measures what it's intended to measure, despite the possibility of respondents trying to present themselves in a more favorable light, known as "faking good".
Therefore, the selected scale must be able to gradually reflect changes in the patient's condition, indicating the drug's effect. Such scales often utilize a multidimensional approach to capture various aspects of depression.
You are introduced to someone at a party. While talking with the person, you realize that you have already forgotten the person’s name. What amount of time does it typically take before such information is lost from short-term memory?
Answer:
well it depends because for someone to remember something you have to say it three times so i'd say about 5 minutes
Explanation:
A study on students drinking habits asks a random sample of 124"non-greek" UF students how many alcoholic beverages they haveconsumed in the past week. The sample reveals an average of 3.66alcoholic drinks, with a standard deviation of 2.82. Construct a90% confidence interval for the true average number of alcoholicdrinks all UF "non-greek" students have in a one week period.
Answer:
90% confidence interval for the true average number of alcoholic drinks all UF "non-greek" students have in a one week period is between a lower limit of 3.24 and an upper limit of 4.08.
Explanation:
Confidence interval is given as mean +/- margin of error (E)
mean = 3.66
sd = 2.82
n = 124
degree of freedom = n-1 = 124-1 = 123
confidence interval = 90%
Significance level = 100 - 90 = 10%
Critical value (t) corresponding to 123 degrees of freedom and 10% significance level is 1.6577
E = t×sd/√n = 1.6577×2.82/√124 = 0.42
Lower limit = mean - E = 3.66 - 0.42 = 3.24
Upper limit = mean + E = 3.66 + 0.42 = 4.08
90% confidence interval is (3.24, 4.08)
The 90% confidence interval for the true average number of alcoholic drinks all UF "non-greek" students have in a one week period should be
the lower limit of 3.24 and an upper limit of 4.08.
Calculation of the confidence interval:Since
= mean +/- margin of error (E)
Here
mean = 3.66
sd = 2.82
n = 124
Now
degree of freedom = n-1
= 124-1
= 123
Now
confidence interval = 90%
So,
Significance level = 100 - 90
= 10%
Now
E = t×sd/√n
= 1.6577×2.82/√124
= 0.42
So,
Lower limit = mean - E = 3.66 - 0.42 = 3.24
Upper limit = mean + E = 3.66 + 0.42 = 4.08
hence, The 90% confidence interval for the true average number of alcoholic drinks all UF "non-greek" students have in a one week period should be the lower limit of 3.24 and an upper limit of 4.08.
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An 18-month-old child is admitted to the hospital. When her parents leave her, she starts to cry loudly; the LPN/LVN attempts to console her. After a while the child stops crying and becomes quiet and withdrawn. The LVN/LPN thinks the child has accepted her parent's leaving and has adjusted well to the separation. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the LPN/LVN's interpretation of the child's behavior?
1. The LPN/LVN is correct and has acted appropriately.2. The LPN/LVN fails to see that the child has entered the second stage of separation anxiety.3. The LPN/LVN fails to see that the child has entered the third state of separation anxiety.4. The LPN/LVN is falsely interpreting undesirable behavior.
Answer:
2.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario the statement that is true is that the LVN fails to see that the child has entered the 2nd stage of separation anxiety . That is because the second stage of separation anxiety is characterized by despair. In this stage the child stops crying and begins to become depressed, apathetic and withdrawn from those around them. Which is exactly what the 18-month-old child is demonstrating.
The day after the client's admission to the hospital, the LPN/LVN finds the client slumped on the floor with a razor blade in the left hand and blood pouring from the client's right wrist. It is MOST important for the LPN/LVN to take which of the following actions?
1. Ask the client why he is punishing himself this way.
2. Ask the client what precipitated the present crisis.
3. While a nurse assistant applies pressure to the wound, notify the physician.
4. Shout the agency emergency phrase and stay with the client.
Answer:
It is MOST important for the LPN/LVN to “3. While a nurse assistant applies pressure to the wound, notify the physician.”
Explanation:
It is very important to apply pressure on the wound in order to stop the bleeding first then call a physician before asking whatever questions later after saving the clients life first.
A physician, medical practitioner, medical doctor, or simply doctor, is a professional who practises medicine, which is concerned with promoting, maintaining, or restoring health through the study, diagnosis, prognosis and treatment of disease, injury, and other physical and mental impairments
Vitamin D is important for bone health and may play a role in the increased risk of type 1 diabetes, cancer, multiple sclerosis, and high blood pressure in people who live at a latitude of greater than 40 degrees north or south. Individuals living at this latitude can obtain vitamin D from a few dietary sources, as well as
synthesize it in the skin when exposed to sunlight from April until October.
Answer: This is not completely true
Explanation:
True or False? While the government cannot guarantee health and safety for each individual, its role is to provide for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole.
Answer:
True!!!!!!!
Explanation:
It's true because, same time the government looses money on hospital,education,etc
For th community
Recent research has indicated that sustainable weight loss is generally a result not of self-deprivation or adopting an extreme diet, but a healthy lifestyle that integrates a balanced diet, regular exercise, and a long-term approach. a. self-deprivation or adopting an extreme diet, but.
b. self-deprivation or the adoption of an extreme diet, but of.
c. self-deprivation or the adoption of an extreme diet, but.
d. depriving oneself or adopting an extreme diet, but.
e. depriving oneself or adopting an extreme diet, but that of.
Sustainable weight loss results only by adopting a healthy lifestyle integrated with a balanced diet, regular exercise on a long-term approach.
Explanation:
A healthy body and mind can be attained by sustainable weight loss.
Self-deprivation or adoption of an extreme diet will only lead to negative physiological and emotional balance of the body. These will lead to increased fat metabolism leading to production and accumulation of ketone bodies in the body. Since the glycogen reserves also will be utilized for energy production, there will also be muscle wasting. moreover, self-deprivation often leads to depression and anxiety and increased craving for food leading to emotional or psychological imbalance.
A healthy nutritious well balanced diet will provide all the essential nutrients required by the body to function normally. Instead of self deprivation or following extreme diets, one can follow well balanced easy meal frequently to promote healthier weight loss.
Regular exercise will help to burn the extra calories and keep fit.
Hence healthy food and exercise on a long term is the only way for sustainable weight loss.
Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Make certain each sentence is complete before submitting your answer. ResetHelp 1. : Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells 2. : Slows or stops the immune response 3. : Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen 4. : Forms antibody producing cells 5. : Absence results in no immune response
Answer:
The question is not complete, below is the complete question:
Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Make certain each sentence is complete before submitting your answer. ResetHelp
1. : Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells
2. : Slows or stops the immune response
3. : Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen 4. : Forms antibody producing cells
5. : Absence results in no immune response
words in the left column:
a. Helper T cell
b. Cytotoxic T cell
c. B cell
d. Memory cell
e. Regulatory T cell
The answer is:
1. Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells (Cytotoxic T cells)
2. Slows or stops the immune response ( Regulatory T cell )
3. Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen (Memory cell)
4. Forms antibody producing cells (B cell)
5 Absence results in no immune response (Helper T cell)
Explanation:
The question is just to test your knowledge of the functions of the various cells in the cell-mediated acquired immune responses.
First, it is important to note that immune response mechanisms is broadly divided into; innate and acquired (or adaptive) immune responses. Innate responses are those that occur naturally by birth, example, skin barriers, mucous membranes e.t.c., while acquired immune responses are those developed by the body in response to invading antibodies. The acquired immune responses can be further divided into two categories; the humoral and cell-mediated responses. The humoral responses have to do with responses with chemical intermediates or means other than cells, example is antibodies, while cell-mediated responses have to do with cells.
Now, let me explain each of my answer choices by giving brief details on each of the cell types mentioned above:
1. Cytotoxic T cells: These cells go by various other names including; cytolytic cells, Killer T-cells, CD8+ T-cells, Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes e.t.c. They are a type of T-lymphocyte that destroys cancer cells, virus-infected cells and other damaged cells. This destruction is brought about by their possession of T-cell receptors that recognize specific antigens on the surface of viral particles and cancer cells, after binding, these cells have the ability to produce cytokines which are used to kill the cells.
2. Regulatory T-cells: T Regulatory cells are cells that have immunosuppressive functions, i.e, they down regulate the activation and proliferation of the T-cells in immune response or that they slow or stop the immune response. This is important to prevent intolerance against self antigens, which can lead to autoimmune reactions.
3. Memory cells: Memory cells also known as memory B-cells are sub-types of B lymphocytes that are responsible for rapid response in an individual in the case of a re-infection or a secondary infection. During a primary or first time infection, it takes the B cells a while to manufacture antibodies to neutralize antigens in the body making the individual to come down with the effect of the antigen within this period, but after the antigens have been synthesized, the patterns are stored by the Memory cells, which can survive for decades in an individual, and if the individual is faced again with the same antigen after the first encounter, the Memory cells recognize the antigens whose complementary antibody patterns are stored, and synthesis is faster, enabling a quick and rapid response to secondary infections.
4. B cells: B cells are the chief humoral cells of the acquired immune responses. They differentiate and forms cells that produce antibodies called plasma cells. Antibodies are molecules that are produced in response to antigens, they are usually complementary to the antigens and they neutralize the effects of the antigen upon binding to it.
5. Helper T-cells: Helper T-cells can be considered to be the most important cells int he adaptive immune response, as they are essentially the activator cells in immune responses, by activating B cells to secrete antigens, Macrophages to engulf microbes, and Cytotoxic T cells to begin their immune response. The Helper cells themselves are activated by the Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs).
Final answer:
The exercise involves matching terms related to the immune system, such as 'Killer T cells' and 'Memory cells,' with their correct functions like killing infected cells and providing a rapid response to pathogens upon re-exposure, respectively.
Explanation:
When exploring the immune system, it's essential to understand the specific functions of various cells and responses to pathogens. The student's exercise is to match the correct terms with their definitions in the context of the body's immune system:
Killer T cells: Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells.Suppressor T cells: Slows or stops the immune response.Memory cells: Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen.Activated B cells -> Plasma cells: Forms antibody producing cells.If there is an absence of these cells: results in no immune response.Immunology, especially adaptive immunity, details the processes these cells and responses undergo to protect our bodies from pathogens.
A superficial puncture wound from a needlestick injury leads to a small amount of bleeding in a healthy person. Seconds after this injury occurs, the bleeding stops. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to stop small arteriolar blood loss from this injury?
a. Fibrin polymerization
b. Neutrophil chemotaxis
c. Platelet aggregation
d. Protein C activation
e. Vasoconstriction
Answer:
E. Vasoconstriction.
Explanation:
Vasoconstriction is narrowing or constriction of the blood vessels. It happens when smooth muscles in blood vessel walls tighten. This makes the blood vessel opening smaller. Vasoconstriction may also be called vasospasm.
Vasoconstriction is a normal process. It helps keep your body in healthy balance.
Vasoconstriction may occur to:
stabilize blood pressure or raise blood pressure
reduce loss of body heat in cold temperatures
control how blood is distributed throughout your body
send more nutrients and oxygen to organs that need them
protect your body against blood and fluid loss
Answer:
Vasoconstriction.
Explanation:
In order to prevent excessive blood loss or to cut shut blood flow from injured blood vessels the smooth muscles on the walls of large arteries and veins usually undergo involuntary contraction, so that the sizes of diameter is decreased, and therefore blood loss is stopped.
This natural blood loss preventing mechanism is called Vasoconstriction.It can be triggered by both external and internal factors, but coordinated by combination both hormonal and nervous system.
A child will not obey his mother. When threatened with punishment, he swears, throws things, and threatens to break everything in the house. His outbreaks seem to be restricted to his parents, but he is almost completely unmanageable. This is an example of: A. childhood schizophrenia. B. conduct disorder. C. oppositional defiant disorder. D. juvenile delinquency.
This is an example of ODD or Oppositional Defiance Disorder.
This is a diagnosis where a child just blatantly disobeys and has issues with being told what to do by anyone; especially authority figures.
Only a few standard occupational classifications (SOCs) are specific to public health, meaning that most individuals in these specific SOCs work in public health practice as opposed to other industries.True / False.
Answer:
It is TRUE that Only a few standard occupational classifications (SOCs) are specific to public health, meaning that most individuals in these specific SOCs work in public health practice as opposed to other industries
Explanation:
Public health can be defined as the science of protecting and the safety and improving the health of communities through education, policy making and research for disease and injury prevention. The definition of public health is different for every person.
_____ states that the labels people are given affect their own and others’ perceptions of them, thus channeling their behavior into either deviance or conformity.
Answer:
The answer is Labeling Theory.
Explanation:
Labeling theory states that self identity and the behavior of the person is influenced by how others describe them.
This theory is mostly related with the crime science where labeling someone as a criminal will influence others to treat that person in a bad way.
Answer:
The Labeling Theory
Explanation:
The Labeling Theory was propounded in 1963 by Howard Becker to explain how deviant behaviors of people are influenced or brought about by the kind of negative terms that were used in describing or labeling such individuals over time. According to the theory, a negative label or term attributed to someone, especially the youths, can influence the person’s behavior and increase the likelihood of that person acting out such negative labels.
For example, if a high school boy is always being called “street thug” by his peers and classmates, there is high tendency of him acting out such roles and exhibiting deviant behaviors of a thug.
"An 18 year old female on Birth Control Pills (BCP’s) complains of LLE pain and swelling since this morning. During the physical exam, the patient suddenly feels SOB and has pain when breathing. What is the most likely cause of her new symptoms?"
Answer:
The cause of her new symptom is Deep vein thrombosis, or DVT. which has traveled to her lungs cause Pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
Women who take birth control pills are the higher risk of developing DVT. Estrogen in conjunction with birth control pills increases the incidence of blood clot in leg (DVT) or may cause a clot in lung (pulmonary embolism). The clot through the leg has the ability to travel all the way to the lungs via circulatory system, and cause pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism causes a blockage in arteries of lungs. This situation causes shortness of breath and chest in pain.
The 18-year-old female on birth control pills likely has a pulmonary embolism, which is a blood clot in the lungs, a serious condition that requires immediate medical intervention.
Explanation:The most likely cause of the new symptoms of lower left extremity (LLE) pain and swelling, along with shortness of breath and pain when breathing in an 18-year-old female on birth control pills (BCPs) is a pulmonary embolism (PE). Birth control pills are known to increase the risk of blood clots, and the symptoms suggest that a clot might have formed in her leg (deep vein thrombosis) and traveled to her lungs, causing a PE. This is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention.
The nurse is conducting a presentation for a group of nurses who work with adolescents. The group of nurses discusses dysmenorrhea. Which statement is most accurate related to dysmenorrhea?
a) A contributing factor in dysmenorrhea is the increased secretion of prostaglandins.
b) Genetic abnormalities are the most common cause of dysmenorrhea.
c) Common symptoms of dysmenorrhea are weight gain and mood swings.
d) Dysmenorrhea can result from diaphragms or tampons being left in place too long
Answer:
a) A contributing factor in dysmenorrhea is the increased secretion of prostaglandins
Explanation:
Increased secretion of prostaglandins is a contributing factor in dysmenorrhea as in the primary dysmenorrhea, there is increased prostaglandin production by the endometrium in an ovulatory cycle which cause contraction of uterus thus resulting in pain.
All the other options are wrong, hence option a) A contributing factor in dysmenorrhea is the increased secretion of prostaglandins is the right option.
What is temperament and what does it have to do with getting our needs met? Give two examples.
Answer: Temperament is a need which drives or motivates a person to act according to their natural, innate tendencies. If the needs are not met, the individual will not feel well about themselves or function efficiently. A temperament need represents what is important and highly desirable in the core of an individual.
Explanation: HOPE THIS HELPS!
A young adult is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. When the LPN/LVN places the client's hand over his head, it remains in that position. The LPN/LVN understands that this is a description of which of the following?a) conversion hysteria.
b) waxy flexibility.
c) dystonic reaction.
d) neurasthenia.
Answer:
B- Waxy Flexibility
Explanation:
Waxy flexibility occurs when a patient's limb or hands maintain any position into which they are been placed by the examiner until they are moved again by the examiner.
Example
If an examiner places the patient's hand over his head , the patient will maintain this position until it is moved again.
Which choice best defines the idea of advocacy?
supporting the political beliefs of others, however diverse
casting a vote for a particular social cause
performing a specific act to make a political statement
supporting a particular action or cause
Answer and Explanation:
[tex]Greetings![/tex]
[tex]I'm~Isabelle~Williams~and~I~will~be~answering~your~question![/tex]
[tex]The~last~choice~is~the~right~answer~for~your~question.[/tex]
[tex]Supporting~ a~ particular ~action~ or~cause~that~best~de fin es ~the~ idea ~of~advocacy.[/tex]
[tex]Hope~this~helps~you!~and~have~an~amazing~day~ahead![/tex]
[tex]Luv,[/tex]
[tex]Isabelle~Williams[/tex]
The LPN cares for a client just admitted with a diagnosis of an obsessive-compulsive disorder. The client usually performs 100 sit-ups, along with 30 minutes of aerobic exercise after eating. Because the LPN/LVN needs to administer medications and treat an open wound immediately after the client's meal, which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?
1. Remind the client about the routine unit policies.
2. Explain that performing the activities on time is more important than an exercise routine.
3. Interrupt the client's routine activities, administer the medication, and treat the open wound.
4. Reschedule the medication administration and wound treatment.
Answer:
The Nurse action that is most appropriate is to”2. Explain that performing the activities on time is more important than an exercise routine.”
Explanation:
The Nurse needs to explain to the client clearly that the medication is much important than the routine exercise but she has to do that with caution,so as the client would not feel like the exercise is unimportant.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder: is characterised by unreasonable thoughts and fears (obsessions) that lead to compulsive behaviors.
Select the correct text in the passage.
Which of these actions demonstrates unethical behavior?
A client abruptly sits up in bed, reports having difficulty breathing and have an arterial oxygen saturation of 88%. Which oxygen delivery method would give the greatest level of inspired oxygen?
Answer:
a. Non-rebreather mask
Explanation:
The Non-rebreather mask is a mask that has a reservoir-like bag attached to it. It enables for the free delivery of high concentration of oxygen. It also have a reservoir where the patient can exhale carbon dioxide.
It delivers oxygen concentration between 60% to 80%.
Answer:
Non-breather masks.
Explanation:
If the client could have percentage saturation of oxygen at 88%, it indicate active breathing by the client, and he/she did not need to be assisted with breathing. Therefore to sustain her oxygen saturation pressure high percentage of oxygen must be given to the client. This is the uses of Non-breather mask to deliver oxygen at high concentration to patients in chronic conditions but still capable of self breathing.
The mask is worn around the nose and mouth, and held by plastic cord around the head. It is directly connected to a 1 liter reservoir of oxygen for continuous supply. .And exhaled air is empty through a valve with one opening to the surrounding environment with no infiltration from surrounding oxygen.
it is applicable to patients with CO gas poisoning, smoke inhalation, and physical trauma.
Positivism had an effect on rational choice thought that permeated the opinions of early criminologists, in that it changed the focus of crime from personal choice and decision making to _____________ and __________.
Answer:
Positivism had an effect on rational choice thought that permeated the opinions of early criminologists, in that it changed the focus of crime from personal choice and decision making to social and personal factors.
Explanation:
Positivism is an approach to the study of society that relies specifically on scientific evidence, such as experiments and statistics, to reveal a true nature of how society operates.
Society shapes the individual -society consists of social facts which exercise coercive control over individuals. People's actions can generally be explained by the social norms they have been exposed to through their socialisation, and their social class,gender and background.
The point of research is to uncover the laws that govern human behaviour, just as scientists have discovered the laws that govern the physical world.
Joey needs to use his fingers to add and subtract. Joey can sort blocks based on both their shape and color at the same time. Based on this information, you know that Joey is most likely in the ________ stage of development.
Answer:
Based on this information, you know that Joey is most likely in the ‘preoperational’stage of development.
Explanation:
We basically have 4 stages of child development according to Piaget.
Piaget's four stages of intellectual (or cognitive) development are:
1.Sensorimotor. Birth through ages 18-24 months.
2. Toddlerhood (18-24 months) through early childhood (age 7)
3.Concrete operational. Ages 7 to 12.
4.Formal operational. Adolescence through adulthood.
The preoperational stage is the second stage in Piaget's theory of cognitive development. This stage begins around age 2, as children start to talk, and lasts until approximately age 7.During this stage, children begin to engage in symbolic play and learn to manipulate symbols.
A student accepted into a nursing program must begin receiving the hepatitis B series of injections. The student asks when the next two injections should be administered. What is the best response by the instructor?a) "You must have the second one in 1 year and the third the following year."b) "You must have the second one in 2 weeks and the third in 1 month."c) "You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."d) "You must have the second one in 6 months and the third in 1 year."
Answer:
"You must have the second one in 1 month and the third in 6 months."d
Explanation:
The standard dosage of shot duration for Hepatitis B after the first injection dosage assuming 0 is 1 month, and after this 6 months later.This is called the 3-shorts Hepatitis B vaccine.
Thus from 0, followed by 1 month and later to -6(months).This is the intervals for maximum immune response to build up resistance against the virus within limited duration
The primary objective is to get maximum protection within limited duration with a few doses of the vaccine..
Anticholinergic drugs are used:______. a) to allow the sympathetic system to dominate. b) to block the parasympathetic system, which is commonly hyperactive. c) as the drugs of choice for treating ulcers. d) to stimulate GI activity.
Answer:
b) to block the parasympathetic system, which is commonly hyperactive.
Explanation:
to block the parasympathetic system, which is commonly hyperactive. it block the action of a neurotransmitter called acetylcholine which inhibits nerve impulses responsible for involuntary muscle movements and various bodily functions un the treatment of overactive bladder to chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder.