construct a chromosome map for genes a b c and d using the over data:A to D=25 percent; A to B=30 percent; C to D=15 percent; B to D=5 percent; B to C=20 percent

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

B-D-C-A.

Explanation:

The chromosome map helps to understand the location of genes in the genome map. The distance between the genes can be used to locate the genes of chromosome.

The distance between the Band D is 5%. The B and D gene can be located with each other. Then gene C is located after D and the distance between them is 15%. This will give the distance between B and C is 20%.  The gene A is located at the last position A and the distance between them 30%.

Thus, the correct answer is B-D-C-A.

Answer 2

Chromosome map: A-B-C-D. Distances: A-B > B-C > C-D. Recombination: A-D=25%, A-B=30%, C-D=15%, B-D=5%, B-C=20%.

A chromosome map, also known as a genetic map or linkage map, illustrates the relative positions of genes along a chromosome based on the frequency of recombination events between them. Recombination occurs during meiosis when genetic material is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.

Given the recombination percentages between genes A, B, C, and D, we can construct a chromosome map:

1. A to D = 25%: This indicates that 25% of the offspring exhibit recombination between genes A and D.

2. A to B = 30%: Similarly, 30% of the offspring exhibit recombination between genes A and B.

3. C to D = 15%: 15% of the offspring exhibit recombination between genes C and D.

4. B to D = 5%: Only 5% of the offspring exhibit recombination between genes B and D.

5. B to C = 20%: And 20% of the offspring exhibit recombination between genes B and C.

From these percentages, we can infer the relative distances between the genes. The order of the genes on the chromosome would be A - B - C - D. Additionally, we can deduce the map distances between adjacent genes.

For example, the distance between A and B would be greater than that between B and C, as indicated by the higher recombination percentage between A and B.


Related Questions

You are providing care to an adult who is unresponsive and not breathing as a
result of a drowning. You give your first ventilation before performing CPR and
notice that the chest does not rise. Which of the following should you do next?
a. Change the position of the mask and then look for chest movement.
b. Blow into the mask more forcefully and then look for the chest to rise.
c. Re-tilt the victim’s head and then attempt another ventilation.
d. Give 5 back blows and then check the victim’s mouth.

Answers

Answer:

d give him blow

Explanation:

Final answer:

Re-tilt the victim’s head and attempt another ventilation. This could ensure a clear airway for effective breath delivery. If no chest rise occurs after re-tilting, check the mouth for obstructions before trying again.

Explanation:

An improper head position can block the airway, making ventilations ineffective. Re-tilting the head can help to open the airway. If chest rise is still not achieved after repositioning the head, then look for and remove any visible obstruction from the mouth and reattempt ventilation.

It is important to remember that when a person is drowning, getting them out of the water and to stable ground is critical before beginning CPR. For an unconscious person who was drowning, every second without oxygen is important for their survival and recovery. Moreover, while compression-only CPR is recommended for bystanders who are not trained in mouth-to-mouth ventilation, trained first responders will perform both chest compressions and mouth-to-mouth breathing to provide effective CPR.

The term describing bacteria with flagella that are arranged as a tuft coming from one pole is __________.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- Lophotrichous

Explanation:

There are four types of bacteria based on the presence and distribution of flagella on them. The bacteria which have only one flagellum at one pole that bacteria is called monotrichous.

The bacteria which have single flagella at both sides are called amphitrichous. Bacteria that have numerous flagella distributed evenly on their body surface are called Peritrichous.

The bacteria which have a tuft of flagella attached on one side or pole are called lophotrichous. Therefore the correct answer is lophotrichous.

Most causes of speciation are relatively slow, in that they may take many generations to see changes, with the exception of _____.

a) natural selection

b) reinforcement

c) colonization

d) polyploidy

Answers

Answer:

the answer is choice D, polyploidy

Explanation:

Final answer:

Polyploidy is an exception to slow speciation. It involves an organism having more than two sets of chromosomes, leading to immediate reproductive isolation. This frequently results in instantaneous creation of a new species, particularly in plants.

Explanation:

In the context of speciation, the shift to a new species is usually a slow and progressive occurrence that might require several generations. However, there exists an exception which is 'd) polyploidy'. Polyploid organisms have more than two sets of chromosomes leading to immediate reproductive isolation. The offspring of such a case would be a polyploid and might not be able to interbreed with either parent, and thus a new species is instantly formed. Polyploidy is particularly common in plants and less so in animals.

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Natural selection is a process in which organisms that are better suited to a certain set of environmental conditions tend to survive and reproduce more often than others. This leads to evolution as_____________

Answers

Answer:

Organism having the suitable traits appears more in the population.

Explanation:

Natural selection is a non-random process in the biological traits becomes less or more common in the population due to the different rate of survival of their bearer or their differential reproduction.  

Natural selection leads to evolution because those organisms are selected to survive and reproduce which are having those traits that are better suited to a certain set of environmental conditions over others. As a result, the number of these organisms increases over time and they appear more in the population.

So natural selection leads to evolution as an organism having the suitable traits appears more in the population.

You prefer that professors post exam scores (by identification number), rather than returning them individually. It makes you feel better to see how you did in comparison to other students. This is an example of what social psychology phenomenon? social rank socail rating socail camaprison socail constract

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: Social Comparison.

Explanation:

The theory of Social Comparison was given by Leon Festinger who was a social psychologist.According to the theory, people tend to analyse their capabilities, ideas, thoughts and opinions by comparing them with that of others in the society.In this way they are able to self-analyse the level of their maturity, versatility, intelligence and intellectualism.In this way, they can have an understanding about their potential to compete with others in the society on any aspect. In case the person has a lower potential, he adopts various means to improve his potential.

Which of the following federally subsidized food programs is designed to improve the nutritional status specifically of low-income pregnant and breastfeeding women and their preschool children in the United States?
WIC (Women Infants Children)

Answers

Answer:

The unique Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) is a federal aid program of the Food and Nutrition Service (FNS) of the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) which majors in providing healthcare and feeding of low-income pregnant women, breastfeeding women, and children below the age of five.

WIC combines with varying services that are important to childhood and family well-being. The primary eligibility prerequisite is a family income that is less than 185 percent of the federal poverty level.

WIC is known to serve around 53 percent of all infants giving birth to the United States.

Answer:

the answer to your question is nutritional risk

Explanation:

hope i spelt that right have a good one

Need help ASAP

What are the key components of the CRISPR-Cas9 system that are activated (set into motion) when a virus invades a bacterium?

Answers

CRISPR-Cas9 was adapted from a naturally occurring genome editing system in bacteria. ... As in bacteria, the modified RNA is used to recognize the DNA sequence, and the Cas9 enzyme cuts the DNA at the targeted location. Although Cas9 is the enzyme that is used most often, other enzymes (for example Cpf1) can also be used.


Some bacteria? have a similar, built-in, gene editing system to the CRISPR-Cas9 system that they use to respond to invading pathogens like viruses, much like an immune system.

The CRISPR-Cas9 system, an adaptive immune system in prokaryotes, activates CRISPR arrays and Cas proteins to defend against viral invasion. CRISPR arrays store viral DNA segments that guide Cas proteins to target and cleave the viral genome, providing acquired immunity.

The CRISPR-Cas9 system is an adaptive immune mechanism found in prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, which activates upon viral invasion. When a virus invades a bacterium, two main components are mobilized for the bacterium's defense: the CRISPR array and the Cas proteins. The CRISPR array serves as a genetic memory of past infections by incorporating segments of viral DNA into its sequence. These segments, known as spacer DNA, are transcribed into RNA molecules that guide the Cas proteins. The Cas proteins, especially Cas9 in the CRISPR-Cas9 variant, are enzymes that use the RNA guide to identify and cleave complementary sequences in the invading viral DNA, thereby neutralizing the threat.

This system provides bacteria with a form of acquired immunity by allowing them to "remember" past infections and respond more effectively to repeated attacks by the same virus. The RNA molecules, transcribed from the CRISPR array, target the Cas proteins to the precise location in the viral genome that matches their sequence, resulting in the destruction of the viral DNA. This process exemplifies nature's own method of genetic editing, which has been harnessed by scientists for various applications in gene editing and biotechnology.

Finding it so directly on the threshold of our narrative, which is now about to issue from that inauspicious portal, we could hardly do otherwise than pluck one of its flowers and present it to the reader. What is the meaning of the word "inauspicious"? A.unremarkable, B. forgettable unintelligent, C.not educated unimpressive, D.poorly built unfavorable, E.boding ill

Answers

Question options:

A. Unremarkable, forgettable

B. Unintelligent, not educated

C. Unimpressive, poorly built

D. Unfavorable, boding ill

Answer:

Unfavorable, boding ill

Explanation:

The Scarlet Letter is a romantic historical fiction story written by an American author Nathaniel Hawthorne that was published in 1850.

While reading this excerpt from chapter 1 of The Scarlet Letter, the meaning of the inauspicious portal is unfavorable or ill bonding.

The meaning of the inauspicious doorway is unfavorable or bonding  ill, according to this excerpt from Chapter 1 of The Scarlet Letter."Inauspicious" means "unfavorable" or "foretelling ill," hence option e is correct.

The Scarlet Letter is a romantic historical fiction novel written by Nathaniel Hawthorne and published in 1850.

It is frequently used to describe events or circumstances that appear to portend disaster. The word "inauspicious" is used to define the "portal" from which the story is going to emerge in the line you supplied. This means that the narrative will not be cheerful or successful.

Thus, option e is correct.

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Which of the following philosophical approaches is modern evolutionary biology based upon?

A. Existentialism
B. Supernaturalism
C. Methodological Naturalism
D. Logical Positivism
E. Humanism

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D

Explanation:

Logical positivism is equated to neopositivism; it is a philosophical approach based on the verification principle. The verification principle is a principle of knowledge established on the facts that only statements verifiable through direct observation or logical proofs are acceptable and meaningful.

Answer:d

Explanation:

Does homeostasis occur in viruses?

Answers

Answer:  living things maintain homeostasis, meaning keeping conditions inside the body stable. ... Viruses have no way to control their internal environment and they do not maintain their own homeostasis.

Explanation:

living things maintain homeostasis, meaning keeping conditions inside the body stable. ... Viruses have no way to control their internal environment and they do not maintain their own homeostasis.

Describe the three major types of amino acids? explaining the general chemical characteristics of each type, the types of bonds or interactions that each type can form, and the location in a protein where you would expect to find each type (also consider that some proteins have regions that are embedded in the cell membrane)

Answers

Answer:

1. Essential Amino Acids: are those amino acids that can’t be synthesized by the body and must be taken from some outside source. For example Histidine. It has a carboxylic acid group and an imidazole side chain. It can be found in protein histamine where it is a radical histidyl precursor.

2. Non-essential Amino Acids: are those that our body can easy synthesize mostly by Glucose metabolism. For example, Glutamic acid that is found in most protein structures of excitatory neurotransmitters.

3. Conditional Amino Acids: are non-essential except at times of need for example ornithine. It can be found in the processing of Urea cycle.

What is the clinical manifestation of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) on the respiratory system?

Answers

Answer:

Clinical manifestation of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) on respiratory system :

Tachypnea ( Respiratory rate above 20 per minute associated with PaCO2 below 32 mm/Hg ).

Clinical manifestation of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) on the respiratory system :

1) Dyspnea

2) Increased respiratory rate

3) Alveolar edema

4) Decrease in surfactant

5) Deceased compliance

6) Pulmonary hypertension

7) Hypoxemia

8) V/Q mismatch

9) Increase in shunt.

If one compares the base sequences of related genes from different species, one is likely to find that corresponding ________ are usually conserved, but the sequences of ________ are much less well conserved. If one compares the base sequences of related genes from different species, one is likely to find that corresponding ________ are usually conserved, but the sequences of ________ are much less well conserved. A.introns; B.exons exons; C.introns chaperons; D. exons introns; E. proteins introns; F.chaperons

Answers

If one compares the base sequences of related genes from different species, one is likely to find that corresponding exons   are usually conserved, but the sequences of   introns   are much less well conserved.

Explanation:

A gene consists of two parts called the exons and introns.

Exons code for the gene products while introns lie between two consecutive exons and do not code for any gene product.

Exons are highly conserved within a species while introns are less conserved and help in diversifying individuals within same species.

Introns are spliced of during the mRNA processing to give rise to a mature mRNA that will code for a protein.

Exons are usually conserved, while introns are much less well conserved when comparing the base sequences of related genes from different species.

When comparing the base sequences of related genes from different species, one is likely to find that corresponding exons are usually conserved, but the sequences of introns are much less well conserved.

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Identify the four postulates of natural selection.Select all that apply.1. Individuals in a population all possess the same traits.2. All individuals in a population have equal reproductive success.3. Some trait differences are heritable.4. Individuals with certain traits are more likely to survive and reproduce.5. Individuals in a population vary in the traits they possess.6. Survival and reproductive success are variable among individuals in a population.

Answers

Final answer:

The four postulates of natural selection are individuals in a population vary in the traits they possess, some trait differences are heritable, individuals with certain traits are more likely to survive and reproduce, and survival and reproductive success are variable among individuals in a population.

Explanation:

The four postulates of natural selection are:

Individuals in a population vary in the traits they possess. This means that individuals in a population have different physical characteristics or traits.Some trait differences are heritable. This means that some of these traits can be passed on from parents to offspring.Individuals with certain traits are more likely to survive and reproduce. This means that individuals with advantageous traits have a better chance of surviving and reproducing compared to individuals with less advantageous traits.Survival and reproductive success are variable among individuals in a population. This means that not all individuals in a population are equally successful in terms of survival and reproduction.

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Final answer:

The four postulates of natural selection are: Individuals in a population vary in traits, some trait differences are heritable, certain traits increase likelihood of survival and reproduction, and survival and reproductive success vary among individuals.

Explanation:

The four postulates of natural selection are:

Individuals in a population vary in the traits they possess. Not all organisms are genetically identical and there are variations in their traits.  Some trait differences are heritable. This means the differences in traits can be passed from parents to their offspring. Individuals with certain traits are more likely to survive and reproduce. The inherited trait variations differentially affect the ability to survive and reproduce under specific environmental conditions. Survival and reproductive success are variable among individuals in a population. This relates to the concept of 'survival of the fittest' where organisms with advantageous traits have a better chance of survival and reproduction.

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________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- vitamin D

Explanation:

Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is produced in the skin due to the exposure of UV radiation on the skin. When the UV radiation penetrates the skin the provitamin D3 is converted into previtamin D3. Then this previtamin D3 gets isomerize to vitamin D3 which is natural form of the vitamin D.

This vitamin D is important for normal bone growth and its function. Vitamin D helps our bone to become strong by helping bone to absorb calcium from the food. It protects osteoporosis in older adults. Therefore the correct answer is vitamin D.

Final answer:

Vitamin D is a fat soluble substance, created in the skin when exposed to UV radiation. This vitamin is essential for absorption of calcium and phosphate, contributing to normal bone growth and function.

Explanation:

The substance that is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function is Vitamin D. When UV radiation from the sun comes into contact with our skin, it triggers the synthesis of Vitamin D. It is essential in ensuring our bodies can absorb calcium and phosphate, crucial elements needed for bone health. Insufficient levels of Vitamin D can lead to skeletal disorders such as rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.

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The primates share several characteristics, which distinguish them from all other mammalian orders. Check all of the unique features that one would use to classify members into this order.a. embryonic development is often assisted by a placenta
b. specialized teeth
c. an opposable thumb
a large and well-developed brain
d. hair
e. binocular vision

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is an opposable thumb, large and well developed brain, and binocular vision.

Explanation:

A primate refers to a member of the mammalian order Primates that constitute two suborders, that is, the anthropoids (apes, monkeys, and human beings) and the prosimians (lorises, lemurs, and tarsiers).  

The behavioral and anatomical characteristics, which differentiate primates from other mammalian orders comprise an absence of strong specialization in composition, that is, prehensile feet and hands, generally with great toes and opposable thumbs.  

Apart from this, the primates comprise flattened nails in place of claws, acute vision with binocular vision, and comparatively bigger brain demonstrating the extent of cortical folding.  

Final answer:

The unique features that distinguish primates from other mammalian orders include embryonic development assisted by a placenta, an opposable thumb, a large and well-developed brain, hair, and binocular vision.

Explanation:

The unique features that one would use to classify members into the primate order include:

Embryonic development is often assisted by a placenta: Primates have a complex reproductive system and give birth to live young.An opposable thumb: Primates have thumbs that can be moved against the other fingers, allowing them to grasp and manipulate objects.A large and well-developed brain: Primates have a relatively larger brain compared to their body size, which allows them to exhibit complex cognitive behaviors.Hair: Primates have hair covering their bodies.Binocular vision: Primates have forward-facing eyes that provide depth perception and enhance their ability to judge distances.

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The concentrations of some essential minerals are much higher in the vascular cylinder of roots than in the soil solution around the roots What is the best explanation for this observation? O Essential minerals are also needed by other organisms in the soil, depleting the minerals in the soil Essential minerals accumulate in the apoplast reaching higher concentrations than in the soil. O Some essential minerals are taken into the symplast by active transport O Essential minerals are actively transported into the vascular cylinder by the Casparian strip Submit Reguest

Answers

Answer:

Some essential minerals are taken into the symplast by active transport

Explanation:

The soil solution contains minerals and water. The water gets absorbed by the roots via the process of passive transport called osmosis through aquaporins but the ions are unable to pass through the passive transport and require energy in the form of ATP and thus is known as active transport.

As the absorption of the mineral is an active process, therefore, minerals are absorbed against their concentration gradient and as a result, the minerals can be accumulated in the roots in much higher concentration than the soil solution.

Thus, the selected option is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Essential minerals are concentrated in the vascular cylinder of roots through active transport into the symplast and regulatory control at the Casparian strip, facilitating their eventual distribution by the xylem.

Explanation:

The most accurate explanation for why concentrations of essential minerals are much higher in the vascular cylinder of roots than in the soil solution is that some essential minerals are actively taken into the symplast by active transport. Plants possess specialized mechanisms to absorb these minerals against their concentration gradient, which shows the remarkable ability of plants to take up minerals such as potassium (K+) from very low concentrations in the soil to much higher concentrations within the root cells. Notably, all water and minerals must pass through the Casparian strip within the endodermis, ensuring that uptake into the vascular cylinder is under tight regulatory control. This process prevents the backflow of water and solutes, thereby allowing the plant to efficiently manage the uptake and transport of essential minerals and water into the xylem for distribution throughout the plant.

Calvin ate a candy bar, which caused his body's blood glucose levels to become unbalanced. His body responded by initiating a feedback mechanism to return his body to homeostasis. Place the steps of this feedback mechanism in order, starting with the blood glucose imbalance that occurred after Calvin consumed the candy bar.


A) Calvin's blood glucose

levels decreased.

B) Calvin's pancreas stopped

secreting insulin.

C) Calvin's body cells started

to take up glucose and

store it as glycogen.

D) Calvin's blood glucose

levels increased.

E) Calvin's pancreas started

secreting insulin.

Answers

Answer:

d, e, c, a, b

Explanation:

Final answer:

After eating a candy bar, (option D) Calvin's blood glucose levels increased, leading to the secretion of insulin by the pancreas, which then caused glucose uptake by cells, glycogen storage, and eventually a decrease in blood glucose to achieve homeostasis.

Explanation:

When Calvin ate a candy bar, his body's blood glucose levels increased, initiating a negative feedback loop to return to homeostasis. Below are the steps in that feedback mechanism, in correct order:

D) Calvin's blood glucose levels increased.

E) Calvin's pancreas started secreting insulin.

C) Calvin's body cells started to take up glucose and store it as glycogen.

A) Calvin's blood glucose levels decreased.

B) Calvin's pancreas stopped secreting insulin.

The consumption of the candy bar raised Calvin's blood glucose, which signaled his pancreas to release insulin. The insulin facilitated the uptake of glucose by body cells and its storage as glycogen in the liver, lowering the glucose levels in the blood back to normal, until the pancreas reduced its insulin secretion.

A scientist randomly divided a group of 100 lab rats into two groups of 50. One group was fed regular rat chow while the other was fed the same amount of rat chow with added DDT. Both groups were housed in the same room with the same environmental conditions. At the end of the experiment, rats were weighed and the mean difference calculated. Refer to the accompanying narrative. What variable or variables were manipulated by the scientist?

Answers

Answer:

Addition of DDT in food

Explanation:

The variable that was manipulated during the study was the food given to the two groups of rat.

All other factors such as the number of rats in each group, amount of food, room condition and environmental condition were same for both groups.  

With addition of DDT in food (rat chow) of one of the group, scientist has manipulated the study process for one of the group.

This was done with the purpose of understanding the effect of DDT on the weights on the rats of one group by comparing it with the rats of another control group (constant factors)

The manipulated variable was the addition of DDT to the rat chow in one of the groups, creating a difference in diet.

In the described experiment, the scientist manipulated one variable: the composition of the diet given to the two groups of lab rats. Specifically, the scientist manipulated the presence or absence of DDT in the rat chow.

Independent Variable:

Presence or absence of DDT in the rat chow. This is the variable that the scientist deliberately changed or manipulated.

Dependent Variable:

Rat weight and the mean difference in weight between the two groups. This is the variable that the scientist measured as the outcome of the experiment.

The independent variable in this experiment is the DDT in the rat chow. One group received regular rat chow (without DDT), while the other group received the same rat chow but with added DDT.

The dependent variable is the rat weight and the mean difference in weight between the two groups.

After the rats were exposed to their respective diets, their weights were measured, and the mean difference in weight was calculated.

By manipulating the diet and measuring the weight differences, the scientist aimed to investigate the effect of DDT exposure on the weight of the lab rats.

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A protein is made and inserted into the membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. A binding site that is present in this protein is aligned so that it faces the lumen of the ER. If this protein is then moved to other endomembranes, at which surface of the membranes given below is this binding site unlikely to be found? A. the internal face of the Golgi apparatus membranes B. the internal face of a lysosome membrane C. facing the intermembrane space of the nuclear envelope membranes D.the lumen face of a vesicle just derived from the Golgi apparatus • E. the cytosolic face of the plasma membrane

Answers

Answer:

E

Explanation:

A protein is made and inserted into the membrane of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. A binding site that is present in this protein is aligned so that it faces the lumen of the ER. If this protein is then moved to other endomembranes, the binding site is unlikely to be found at the cytosolic face of the plasma membrane whose main function is to protect the cell from its surroundings.

Which trait have we inherited from our distant ancestors to our detriment in the contemporary environment we inhabit?

Answers

Answer:

The trait may be defined as the particular characteristics of the organisms. The beneficial trait can be pass down from parents to their offspring and further in the next generation.

The individual acquire some trait depending on the external environment. The traits that are required in contemporary environment and can be inherited from the parents is ideal body size to cover the long distances. The individual appetites to consume large amount of calories that helps the individual to survive in the food shortage condition.

At what age level do most people become aware of the changes in their bodies related to the aging process?

Answers

The question is incorrect as it does not have the option which are:

a) early adulthood

b) middle adulthood

c) late adulthood

d) central adulthood

Answer:

B) middle adulthood

Explanation:

Ageing refers to the accumulation of natural physical, social and psychological changes in human beings.

The signs of the ageing like the wrinkles, the gain of the weight, growth of grey hairs, loss of hearing, arthritis and other disorders start appearing in the middle age or the age between 40 to 65 years.

Since the physical changes take place during the 40 to 65 years which is considered the middle adulthood, therefore, B is the correct answer.

Thus, Option-B is the correct.

Fil in the blanks:1. A fat molecule is composed of two types of smaller molecules, including only one molecule of _________. 2. A _________ fat molecule also includes one, two, or three molecules. 3. A fat molecule with only one fatty acid is called a __________. 4. A fat molecule with three fatty acids is called a triacylglycerol, or a _________. 5. A fatty acid includes a carboxyl group (-COOH) at one end as well as a long _________. 6. The hydrocarbon chains found in fats store a lot of energy. They also make fats _________, or insoluble in water.

Answers

Answer:

1. Glycerol

2. Fatty acids

3. Monoglycerides

4. Triglycerides

5. Hydrocarbon

6. Hydrophobic

Explanation:

1. Glycerol

Fat consist of a molecule called glycerol that is attached to one, two, or three fatty acids. Glycerol is the basis of all fats and consists of a three-carbon chain that is attached to the fatty acids.

2. Fatty acids

Fats is made up of three fatty acids and a glycerol, it can also be called triacylglycerols or triglycerides.

3. Monoglyceride

It is a glycerol molecule with a singular fatty acid. It is formed through the combination of OH of glycerol to the OH of the fatty acid.

4. Triglycerides

It has three fatty acid molecules. It is a tri-esters made up of a glycerol attached to three fatty acid molecules.

5. Hydrocarbon

Fatty acids is made up of long, unbranched hydrocarbons with a carboxylic acid group found at one end.

6. Hydrophobic

The hydrophobic nature of fat arises from the carbon-hydrogen bonds that are nonpolar.

A fat molecule consists of glycerol and fatty acids. Monoglycerides have one fatty acid, while triglycerides have three. Fatty acids contain a carboxyl group and hydrocarbon chain, making fats hydrophobic.

1. A fat molecule is composed of two types of smaller molecules, including only one molecule of glycerol.
2. A monoglyceride fat molecule also includes one, two, or three molecules.
3. A fat molecule with only one fatty acid is called a monoglyceride.
4. A fat molecule with three fatty acids is called a triacylglycerol, or a triglyceride.
5. A fatty acid includes a carboxyl group (-COOH) at one end as well as a long hydrocarbon chain.
6. The hydrocarbon chains found in fats store a lot of energy. They also make fats hydrophobic, or insoluble in water.

Fats are vital molecules in biology, serving multiple functions. They are a concentrated source of energy due to the high energy content in the hydrocarbon chains of fatty acids.

Fats also play a role in insulation, cushioning of organs, and are essential components of cell membranes.

The hydrophobic nature of fats makes them ideal for creating protective barriers in cells and organisms, while their varied structures contribute to their versatility in different biological processes.

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Why are the premiums for a PPO health insurance plan generally more expensive than those for an HMO Health Insurance Plan?

Answers

Answer:

PPO offer higher flexibility in terms of choosing service provider even from outside its network list.

Explanation:

PPOs are more expensive than HMOs in case of terms of plan premiums. A PPO plan is flexible in terms of its service especially in case of choosing a care provider.  Like HMO, PPO also give exposure to its networks of healthcare providers but give an added advantage in terms of arranging specialist care taker even if they are out of network. Therefore, PPO offers higher patient choices and also reimburse their expenditure for out of network service.

Answer:

A. PPO insurance plans offer a wider choice of primary care doctors and specialists.

Inflammation can be either local or systemic. What are the most prominent systemic manifestations of inflammation?

Answers

Answer:

Inflammation is the body response for protection against harmful things such as toxins, injuries and infection etc.

Explanation:

Inflammation can be either local or systemic.

Local; Invlove local area.

Systemic; Not restricted to particular tissue Invlove endotheliam and other organ. Its symptoms includes;

FeverHypothermiaAsthmaChronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseLoss of white adipose tissue

When the atria contract, which of the following is true? a. The AV valves are closed. b. The ventricles are in diastole. c. The atria are in diastole. d. The semilunar valves are open.

Answers

Answer:

b. The ventricles are in diastole.

Explanation:

Atrial systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle that lasts for about 0.1 sec. During this phase, the atria are contracting. At the same time, the ventricles are relaxed or are in diastole. The pressure of the contraction of atria forces the blood to open the AV valves. The blood enters the ventricles through the open AV valves. During this phase, the semilunar valves are closed as the blood pressure in ventricles is very low. The P wave of ECG represents the atrial systole. This is followed by the systole of ventricles.

Final answer:

When the atria contract (atrial systole), the ventricles are in a relaxation phase known as diastole. During this phase, the atrioventricular valves are open to allow blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles, while the semilunar valves are closed to prevent backflow from the arteries.

Explanation:

When the atria contract, a phase known as atrial systole, the correct statement from the options given is: b. The ventricles are in diastole. During atrial systole, the atria contract which pushes blood into the ventricles. At this time, the ventricles are in a phase known as diastole, meaning they are relaxed and ready to receive blood.

The atrioventricular valves (AV valves) are open during this phase to facilitate the flow of blood from the atria to the ventricles. So, option a. 'The AV valves are closed' is not correct. The semilunar valves are closed, not open, during atrial systole to prevent backflow of blood from the arteries to the ventricles, hence, d. 'The semilunar valves are open' is not correct.

Option c. 'The atria are in diastole' is also not correct as during atrial systole, by definition, the atria are contracting, not in diastole.

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In _______________, brain cells are stimulated using a powerful magnetic field produced by a wire coil placed on a person's head that temporarily inactivates neural circuits.

Answers

Answer:Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)

Explanation:

Transcranial magnetic stimulation also known as repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation. TMS is a noninvasive procedure that uses magnetic fields to stimulate nerve cells in the brain to improve symptoms of depression. In TMS, brain cells are stimulated using a powerful magnetic field produced by a wire coil placed on a person's head that temporarily inactivates neural circuits. TMS devices operate completely outside of the body and affect central nervous system activity by applying powerful magnetic fields to specific areas of the brain that we know are involved in depression.

Does the ability of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis cell to infect a new host depend on its drug-resistant phenotype? 1. Yes, drug-resistant cells can infect a new host more easily than drug-susceptible cells. 2. No, drug-susceptible cells and drug-resistant cells are equally likely to infect a new host. 3. Yes, drug-susceptible cells can infect a new host more easily than drug-resistant cells.

Answers

Answer:

DRUGS!!!!!!!

Explanation:

are not good

Answer:

No, drug-susceptible cells and drug-resistant cells are equally likely to infect a new host.

In the essay, the point is made that the right questions must be asked when designing an experiment that measures how genetics and environment "shape who we are." Which of the following measurements is probably the least valuable in such an experiment?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - the average lifespan.

Explanation:

As it is mentioned in the provided question that the experiment is design to measure how environment and the genetics shapes who we are which means effect of genetics and environment that is responsible for our present selves.

Generally such experiment include various variable that can affect the experiment on different level. The least useful information or measurement is the average life span of the population as it can vary and depends on several other factors than the genetics and environment directly.

Thus, the correct answer is - the average lifespan.

During Meiosis, the alleles on each gene will separate individually into the gametes. This means that no matter what alleles were paired together in the parent, each gamete receives one allele. Mendel stated this to be the Law of **



A. Gene Assortment

B. Independent Assortment

C. Gene Regulation

D. Independent Segregation

Answers

Final answer:

Option B. The law proposed by Mendel that refers to the separation of alleles into gametes during Meiosis is the Law of Independent Assortment. This law suggests that different pairs of alleles are passed independently, which leads to unique combinations of traits and increased genetic diversity.

Explanation:

The law that Mendel stated, referring to the process during Meiosis where the alleles on each gene separate individually into the gametes, is the Law of Independent Assortment. In this law, it is proposed that different pairs of alleles are passed to offspring independently of each other. This results in different traits being inherited, independently from each other, which enhances genetic variation. An example of this could be hair color and eye color, which are inherited independently of each other according to Mendel's law.

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The correct answer is D. Independent Segregation, which is Mendel's Law of Segregation. It states that alleles segregate during gamete formation, ensuring each gamete receives one allele per gene. This is different from the Law of Independent Assortment.

The question asks which of Mendel's laws states that the alleles on each gene will separate individually into the gametes, ensuring that each gamete receives one allele from each gene pair, no matter what alleles were paired together in the parent. This description matches Mendel's Law of Segregation, not the Law of Independent Assortment. Mendel's Law of Segregation articulates that every individual has two alleles for each gene and that these alleles segregate (or separate) during the formation of gametes, with each gamete receiving only one allele for each gene. This happens during the process of meiosis, a type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and eggs) with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell. In contrast, Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment deals with how alleles of two or more different genes get sorted into gametes independently of one another. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Independent Segregation.

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