Explanation:
Retroviruses are ssRNA infections that repeat through a DNA moderate, therefore requiring an infection encoded RNA-subordinate DNA polymerase. Rabies lyssavirus is the class of family Rhabdoviridae. It is a cylindrical morphology and is the sort types of the viruses. Negative sense ssRNA infections need RNA polymerase to shape a positive sense RNA. With the recently shaped virions, increasingly negative sense RNA particles are delivered. In more subtleties, replication of the virion comprises of the accompanying advances.The negative RNA into the cytoplasm when the virion enters the host cell and discharged.Which pair of events would directly result in a constant number of chromosomes in body cells from one generation to the next in sexually reproducing species?
Answer:
Meiosis and fertilization
Explanation:
The type of cell division that takes place in the sexually reproducing cells in meiosis.
Meiosis is the type of cell division which maintains the ploidy level in the new organism by forming cells with haploid or half the number of chromosomes.
The meiosis produces 4 haploid gamete cells which when fuses or fertilise with the gamete cell of the opposite sex again form a diploid organism. This type of cell division maintains a constant number of chromosomes.
Thus, meiosis and fertilisation are correct.
A scientist wants to be able to artificially produce a protein that is produced in the livers of frogs. The scientist has located all of the mRNA produced by the liver and produce the cDNA. What should the scientist do to find the gene that produced the protein apex?
Answer:
Mix the cDNA with the liver DNA.
Explanation:
DNA is the genetic material of all the living organisms except few viruses only where RNA acts as the genetic material. The eukaryotes genome consists of intron as well.
The complementary DNA is produced that are free from the introns. This cDNA can be used to identify the specific sequence and production of desired fragment. The cDNA must be mixed with the liver DNA and then the desired DNA must be produced in the specific vector to obtain the desired protein.
Blood passes from the external iliac vein into what vessel?
Answer:
Inferior vena cava.
Explanation:
Blood flows from the external iliac vein into the inferior vena cava. it joins to the iliac vein to form the inferior vena cava.
Answer: inferior vena cava
Explanation: The internal iliac vein drains blood from the visceral organs in the pelvic region. The external iliac connects to the femoral veins. The internal iliac vein may double or lay lateral to the external iliac vein. Both veins join together to form the inferior vena cava.
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Who is considered to be the first nursing theorist who conceptualized nursing in terms of manipulating the environmentWho is considered to be the first nursing theorist who conceptualized nursing in terms of manipulating the environment
Florence Nightingale is recognized as the first nursing theorist to conceptualize nursing by manipulating the environment for better patient care.
Explanation:The individual who is considered to be the first nursing theorist who conceptualized nursing in terms of manipulating the environment is Florence Nightingale. Nightingale is renowned for her work during the Crimean War, where her approach to improving sanitation, hygiene, and patient care fundamentally changed the practice of nursing. Her theories on the role of the environment in patient health led to the development of modern nursing as a profession that emphasizes not only medical care but also the management of a patient's environment to promote recovery.
Which of the following is true about top predators? Select one: a. They include bacteria and fungi. b. Their removal increases biodiversity. c. They are likely to be herbivores. d. They are often keystone species. e. They are likely to be producers.
Answer:
d. They are often keystone species
Explanation:
Top predators in an environment are the largest predators and sits on the top (apex) of the food chain in an ecosystem which do not have any natural predators.
As the top predators relative to its abundance has disproportionately large effect on its natural environment, they are the keystone species most of the time.
Hence option d. They are often keystone species is the right option.
Predators are often keystone species. Therefore, the correct option is D.
The highest trophic level in an ecosystem is occupied by apex predators, also known as apex predators. They differ from other species in that they have few or no natural predators. Keystone species are those that, with respect to their abundance, have the greatest impact on their ecosystem. Because of the potential ripple effects their existence and actions can have on entire ecosystems, apex predators often serve as flagship species. Their eradication could severely alter the population dynamics of other species and upset the balance of entire food webs.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin. True False
Answer:
The statement is FALSE.
Explanation:
Hemoglobin is found in red blood cells and gives the body's blood red pigment. It is formed by the heme group and a protein group (globin). Hemoglobin is responsible for transporting oxygen from the respiratory organs to body tissues.
Final answer:
The statement is false. Hemoglobin is comprised of four globin protein subunits (not the protein heme) and four iron-containing heme groups, which collectively enable it to carry oxygen in the blood.
Explanation:
The statement that hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin is false. Hemoglobin is actually a protein molecule found in red blood cells known for its oxygen-carrying capacity. It is composed of two primary components: four globin polypeptide chains (two alpha and two beta chains) and four heme groups. Each globin chain surrounds a central heme group that contains iron. The iron within the heme groups is what binds oxygen, and it's also responsible for giving blood its red color. Each of the four heme groups in a hemoglobin molecule is capable of binding an oxygen molecule, allowing hemoglobin to transport oxygen efficiently from the lungs to body tissues and carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation.
Normal leukocytes use several protective mechanisms in combating disease-causing microbes such as bacteria. Which of the following is NOT a method related to substance uptake by a white blood cell?
a. exocytosis
b. phagocytosis
c. pinocytosis
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
Answer:a; exocytosis
Explanation: leukocytes are blood cells which destroy foreign bodies such as bacteria.they have the ability to engulfing invading microorganisms thus they are said to be involved in defense and immunity.
Leukocytes are capable of engulfing foreign bodies through the processes of pinocytosis, phagocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis.
In endocytosis,the membrane of the cell transfers the foreign bodies into the cell.it does this by first trapping the foreign body to form a vesicle .the vesicle then pinches off on the other side of the membrane.
Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which the material is engulfed into the cell cytoplasm.
Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in which droplets of fluids are engulfed into the cell.
Receptor-mediated endocytosis is when specific materials are engulfed due to the protein receptors on the cell membrane.
Exocytosis is the opposite of endocytosis and in this process , materials are removed from the cell by pinching of the cell membrane.
Since white blood cells need to engulf bacteria, exocytosis is not used.
Thomas Hunt Morgan selected Drosophoila melanogaster as his experimental organism. List at least three reasons the fruit fly is an excellent subject for genetic studies
Answer:
1. Single mating will produce hundreds of offspring.
2. A new generation can be bred every two weeks.
3. The fruit fly has only four pairs of chromosomes, which are easily distinguishable with a light microscope.
Answer:
1. Fruit flies are cheap can be grown fastly and easily
2. Fruit fly produces large number of offspring
3. There are only four easily distinguishable chromosomes in fruit fly
4. Breeding of new generation can be done after 2 weeks.
5. Female can be distinguished from male by size.
Explanation;
Thomas Hunt Morgan selected Drosophila melanogaster as his experimental organism because fruit flies are small size about the size of the pea. You can grow hundred of fruit flies in a bottle. They can be grown easily easily on a yeast culture. These can be inactivated and used for lab examination. Breeding of fruit fly can be done throughout the year and produces hundreds of offspring. Fruit fly grow fastly so less time is consumed. The Y chromosome is hooked and can be distinguished because female poses yy chromosomes.
A function of carbohydrates in the diet is to: enable chemical reactions. promote growth and repair of tissues. supply energy. maintain water balance.
Explanation:
Carbohydrates, or saccharides, comes under biomolecules. The four significant classes of biomolecules are nucleotides, lipids, proteins and carbohydartes. Among these carbohydrates is more abundant. It is also called "carbs," carbohydrates have a few jobs in living life forms, including energy transportation. They are the structural parts of insects and plants. Carbohydrates derivatives are engaged with blood clotting, the immune system, the reproduction, the development of disease.
Dr. Sue Jickells is doing research to learn how things criminals may touch, such as explosives, cigarettes, and drugs, can leave behind traces on the skin. When identified and studied, these trace substances could tell us much more about the lives of fingerprint donors than just their ___________________.
Answer: Identities
Explanation:
When studying about the explosives, cigarettes and drugs then they tend to trace the identities and lives of the people.
The finger prints of the criminals can tell us different things about their lifestyles. They can give us an idea that whether they already have a previous criminal record or not.
Touching anything that can leave a finger print on it which can be used used to reveal the identity of the person.
Final answer:
Dr. Sue Jickells's research into trace substances on criminals' skin can reveal more than just their unique fingerprint patterns. Forensic geneticists use DNA fingerprinting to match tiny amounts of tissue found at crime scenes to suspects' DNA. This technology has broad applications in both forensic science and other fields of study.
Explanation:
Dr. Sue Jickells's research aims at understanding how trace substances left by criminals on surfaces they come into contact with can provide in-depth information about the individuals, beyond just their fingerprint patterns. Fingerprints are unique to every individual, with their general characteristics being genetically determined yet forming uniquely during development, even in identical twins. Traces of substances like explosives, cigarettes, and drugs can be analyzed to gain insights into the activities and habits of a person leaving a fingerprint, implying a potential connection to a crime.
Forensic geneticists can match traces of human tissue found at crime scenes to a specific person's DNA. Even small amounts of tissue can be used for DNA evidence, which is then amplified using PCR and compared to DNA databases such as CODIS to find matches. This process, known as DNA fingerprinting, is pivotal in forensic science for identifying suspects and has applications ranging from paternity testing to wildlife studies and food provenance.
What process is responsible for creating magnetic changes along mid-ocean ridges?
A. Reversal of Earth's magnetic field
B. Seafloor spreading
C. Ridge push
D. Slab pull
Answer:
The answer would be A. Reversal of Earths magnetic field
Explanation: This process is responsible because over time Earth's magnetic field changes, therefore it creates magnetic changes. It changes minerals in rocks and elements.
Answer:
Reversal of Earth's magnetic field (A)
Explanation:
Penn answer
Having an insufficient daily diet is called __________. A. agriculture B. supply and demand C. production D. malnourishment Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
Having an insufficient daily diet is called malnourishment.
What do you mean by malnourishment?Malnutrition, in all its forms, includes undernutrition (wasting, stunting, underweight), inadequate vitamins or minerals, overweight, obesity, and resulting diet-related noncommunicable diseases.
Moreover, there are two major types of malnutrition: Protein-energy malnutrition - resulting from deficiencies in any or all nutrients. Micronutrient deficiency diseases - resulting from a deficiency of specific micronutrients.
Therefore, common signs of malnutrition include: unintentional weight loss – losing 5% to 10% or more of weight over 3 to 6 months is one of the main signs of malnutrition. a low body weight – people with a body mass index (BMI) under 18.5 are at risk of being malnourished (use the BMI calculator to work out your BMI).
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You have learned that tape or adhesive bandages must be removed carefully from the skin on patients who are elderly to avoid tearing their fragile skin. What accounts for the fragility of their skin?
Answer:
There are fewer collagen and elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis as we age, contributing to wrinkling and increased susceptibility to tearing of the skin.
Explanation:
As we age, environmental damage, such as ultraviolet radiation, and decreased ability of our fibroblasts to renew collagen and elastic fibers make our skin thinner and more vulnerable to mechanical trauma.
Loss of collagen and elastic fibers from the dermal layer of the skin accounts for the fragility of the skin of elderly people.
What are the layers of the skin?
Our body’s largest organ is the skin. It is made up of proteins, water, fats, and minerals. The skin performs the function of protecting the body against the attack of germs. It also helps in regulating the temperature of the body. There are nerves present in the skin which can aid one in feeling different sensations like heat and cold.
The skin of our body, in combination with our nails, hair, oil glands, and sweat glands. All of these are part of the integumentary system of our body. The word Integumentary refers to the outer covering of the body.
There are three layers of tissue that make up the skin. These are
Epidermis: It is the top layer of the skin. Dermis: it is the middle layer of the skin. It is also the thickest layer of the skin. Hypodermis: It is the bottom or fatty layer of the skin.
Therefore, the loss of collagen and elastic fibers from the dermal layer of the skin accounts for the fragility of the skin of elderly people.
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Prokaryotic organisms have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic organisms have many origins where replication occurs simultaneously. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this observation?
Prokaryotic DNA is much smaller than eukaryotic DNA.
Answer:
Prokaryotic DNA is much smaller than eukaryotic DNA.
Explanation:
Prokaryotes are microscopic and simple organism and their genetic material is very much smaller than eukaryotes. So as the DNA of prokaryotes is smaller therefore only one origin of replication is sufficient to replicate the DNA in them on time.
As eukaryotes have much larger DNA so one origin of replication is not sufficient to replicate the DNA of eukaryotes until the cell cycle completes, therefore, to complete the DNA replication at the time the DNA must have multiple origins of replication.
Manatees, aquatic mammals inhabiting Florida’s rivers and coastal waters, swim close to the surface and are frequently killed in collisions with boats. To address the problem, boat traffic in manatee-populated waters is being required to maintain very low speeds. Unfortunately, manatees are unable to hear low-pitched sounds and a boat’s sound lowers in pitch as the boat slows. Therefore, this approach may in fact make things worse rather than better.
Which of the following, if true, casts most doubt on the conclusion?
(A) The areas where boats would have to maintain low speeds were decided partly on the basis of manatee-population estimates and partly from numbers of reported collisions between manatees and boats.
(B) Because the water hyacinth that manatees feed on grows best in water that is nearly still, water hyacinth beds can be disturbed or damaged by fast-moving boat traffic.
(C) Over the last several decades, boat traffic in Florida’s coastal waters has been increasing almost continuously and now represents the greatest threat to the endangered manatee population.
(D) The sound of a boat engine generally travels much further under water than it does through the air.
(E) When experimenters exposed manatees to the recorded sounds of boats moving at various speeds, the creatures were unable to discern the sounds over normal-background noise.
Answer:
The answer is B.
Explanation:
In the situation given in the question, it is stated that manatees can not hear low-pitched sounds of the slow boats and therefore this could cause more collisions and deaths.
The answer that can cast doubt on the conclusion, if true, is that the hyacinth that the manatees feed on grows best in water that is still, so it would make sense for the boats the slow down even though the risk of a collision with a manatee increases.
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When cells are going through rapid cell divisions during the first stage of animal development called "cleavage", which of the following phases of the cell cycle are lost? (Choose ALL correct answers) Group of answer choices
Early cleavage divisions in most embryos are also rapid. One reason for this is that cleaving cells have a modified cell cycle, in which the two gap phases, G1 and G2 are completely omitted, and the cells cycle rapidly between M and S phases. In addition, because the major cytoskeletal systems of the cells are largely devoted to mitosis (microtubules) and cytokinesis (microfilaments) during rapid cleavage division, there is typically an antagonism between periods of rapid cell division and cell movement. Thus as the embryo approaches gastrulation, there is a tremendous slowing in the rate of division (note the slope of the curve at the right).
During the cleavage stage of animal development, the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle are lost, allowing rapid cell division by skipping the phases of growth and preparation for DNA replication.
During cleavage, cells divide rapidly without growing in size, which means there is less need for the phases involved in growth and preparation for DNA synthesis or the checking of completed DNA synthesis and preparation for mitosis. Instead, the cell cycle is shortened to include just the S phase (Synthesis of DNA) and M phase (Mitosis), enabling a faster rate of cell division necessary for early embryonic development.
The complete question is:
When cells are going through rapid cell divisions during the first stage of animal development called "cleavage", which of the following phases of the cell cycle are lost? (Choose ALL correct answers) Group of answer choices
A. G2
B. S
C. M
D. G1
What is the most likely plant response to an attack by herbivores?
The options are:
A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss
B) early flowering to try to reproduce before being eaten
C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators
D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns
Answer:
The correct answer of this question is- C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators
Explanation:
In response to attacks by herbivores, plants produce chemicals that are toxic to the herbivores which can even kill them or some chemicals can spread in the air and can attract the predators of those herbivores that attack that plant species.
Plants produce secondary metabolites that play an important role in protecting the plant from predators because they can be toxic and antimicrobial for example flavonoids, alkaloids, saponins. Plants do not get harmed by these metabolites because they have their own detoxification method. So the correct answer is C.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
A) leaf abscission to prevent further loss
B) early flowering to try and reproduce before being eaten
C) production of chemical compounds for defense or to attract predators
D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns
E) production of thicker bark and cuticle to make it more difficult to eat
Answer:
D) production of physical defenses, such as thorns
Explanation:
The plants are autotrophic organism which can produce food on their own therefore they become the producers of the food chain that is they are eaten by the primary consumers.
So to protect themselves the plants adapted to protect themselves and formed the needle-like structures called thorns by modifying their stem. The needle-like structure can injure or harm the herbivore when they try to eat them.
Thus, Option-D is correct.
If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?1. A and D2. B and D3. B and C4. D and E
Answer:
The correct answer is 4. D and E
Explanation:
Organisms are divided into seven major levels of classification and these are Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. The highest level here is the kingdom and the smallest level is species.
If we move from kingdom to species the structural homology increase and when we move from species to kingdom structural homology and relatedness decreases.
Therefore as class is higher domain than order so the organism in order will show more degree of structural homology with each other than class therefore the correct answer is 4.
There are different levels on which each animal is classified and these levels are known as hierarchy levels.
These levels are as follows:-
Kingdomphylumclassorder and etcThese are the levels on which animals are placed that have same characters. These lower-level shares the same feature as they shared the same habitat.
According to the question, the correct option for the problem is 4 that is D and E as they belong from the lower hierarchy level.
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Whichecological roles is/are played by at least some fungi?
Answer:
Predation, decomposition
Explanation:
Fungi is very much important for the environment and play an important role in balancing the environment because they play many ecological roles. All fungi are heterotrophs so they depend on others to get their food.
One of the most important roles played by fungi is of decomposers. Most of the fungi are saprophytes and they get their nutrition from dead and decaying organic matter. So by doing this, they help in nutrient cycle and bioremediation.
Some fungi also play the ecological role of predators and prey on amoebas, roundworms, and rotifers, animals, etc. Therefore correct answer is predation and decomposition
A drug is tested in the laboratory and is found to create holes in both mitochondrial membranes. Scientists suspect that the drug will be harmful to human cells because it will inhibit
Answer:
D) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation:
From the available options:
A) the citric acid cycle.
B) oxidative phosphorylation.
C) glycolysis.
D) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
The mitochondrial membrane is a structure that surrounds the matrix of the organelle. The inner membrane of the mitochondrion has proteins that functions in electron transport and synthesis of ATP. Electrons are supplied into the chain from the citric acid cycle that takes place in the matrix.
Hence, if a drug is known to damage mitochondrial membranes, it will affect both the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation accordingly because the the electron generated from citric acid cycle will be redundant and causes the cycle to stop and without the electron transport chain, ATP cannot be synthesized through oxidative phosphorylation.
The correct option is D.
During exercise we might expect blood vessels in the skeletal muscle to be somewhat _______________ and the blood vessels in the digestive organs to be somewhat ____________. A) Constricted, ConstrictedB) Dilated, DilatedC) Dilates , constricted
Answer:
C. Dilated and Constricted
Explanation:
What are the functions of the lymphatic system?
Answer:
The lymphatic system returns leaked fluids to blood vessels.
Explanation:
That's the answer on edge
An old dna strand is used as a _____ for the assembly of a new dna strand.
Infants are born with a passive immunity that occurs when immunoglobulin antibodies cross the placenta from the maternal circulation prior to birth. Which immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?
Answer:
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
Explanation:
There are five classes of human antibodies:
IgG IgM IgD IgAIgEIgG is the most abundant and the only one capable of crossing the placenta. IgG is present in all body fluids and protects against infections.
In sweet pea, red flower color is controlled by two genes involved in the anthocyanin pathway, A and B. Both genes are required for expression, so that a recessive pair of alleles at either locus would result in a pink phenotype. If an AaBb plant were allowed to self-cross and you got only red and pink flowers, what dihybrid ratio would you expect in the offspring?
Answer:
The dihybrid ratio we expect in the offspring is 9:7.
Explanation:
This is an example of complementary gene interaction, which is the non allelic interaction or genes, where the prominent genes at heterozygous loci may complement each other by complementing recessive alleles at the respective loci.
So in this case of complementary gene interaction, the individuals that are A-bb or aaB- or aabb will have the same set of observable features (phenotype) but only A-B- individuals will how the dominant phenotype.
In trying to determine whether dna or protein is the genetic material, what are the things that differs between the two?
Answer/Explanation:
Genetic material is essential for the growth and reproduction of an organism and the continuity of life. If an organism cannot pass on the required instructions in order to make a copy of itself, it cannot continue to reproduce.
Think of DNA like a set of instructions. This DNA is transcribed (copied) to a message (RNA) that is then translated to a functional output (proteins). The proteins are what carries out all the essential functions in the cell. However, without DNA, the cell/organism would not have the necessary information in order to make the proteins.
The sequence of the DNA is what determines the sequence of the polypeptide chains that make proteins. These proteins carry out essential tasks in the cell, including catalysing reactions, signalling, performing structural tasks, and many more.
The DNA is also what is passed on to the next generation via cell division, in the formation of chromosomes. Chromosomes provide the daughter cells with the information to continue carrying out the functions necessary for survival via DNA encoding proteins.
Mutations that affect only the individual in which they occur are called _____ mutations; _____ mutations are passed from parent to offspring.
Answer:
Somatic; Germ line
Explanation:
Somatic mutations are the type of mutations that do not affect offspring or are not passed to the next generation. the occur mostly in the body cells/ somatic cells. Such mutations can be passed to daughter cells during mitosis but can not be passed to offspring via sexual reproduction. Germline mutations occurs in the germ line cells which gives rise to cells that are passed down to offspring. Germline cells gives rise to the sex cells that which are passed to offspring through the process of sexual reproduction involving the egg and the sperm.
Final answer:
Somatic mutations affect only the individual and cannot be passed to offspring, while germline mutations occur in reproductive cells and can be inherited by offspring. Effects of mutations can range from imperceptible to severe, potentially causing genetic diseases like cystic fibrosis or hemophilia if they are germline mutations.
Explanation:
Mutations that affect only the individual in which they occur are called somatic mutations; germline mutations are passed from parent to offspring. Somatic mutations occur in non-reproductive cells and cannot be transmitted to offspring. They may have little effect on the organism because they are confined to just one cell and its daughter cells. On the other hand, germline mutations occur in the sex cells, gametes, such as eggs and sperm. These mutations are heritable and can be passed down to offspring, who will have the mutation in every cell.
Some mutations do not result in any observable traits and are known as silent mutations. However, others, such as point mutations, which affect a single base pair, can have a range from no effect to very serious effects on an individual. Types of point mutations include transitions, transversions, insertions, and deletions. For example, cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and Tay-Sachs disease are diseases caused by specific germline mutations.
Which of the following statements is false in reference to heart regulation? at rest, parasympathetic stimulation predominates baroreceptors measure the amount of sodium ions present in the blood sympathetic stimulation triggers the release of norepinephrine the movement of limbs is monitored by proprioceptors parasympathetic fibers travel via the vagus nerve
Explanation:
Baroreceptors are splash type nerve endings in the walls of veins and the heart that are invigorated by without a doubt the degree of, and changes in, blood vessel pressure. They are amazingly rich in the mass of the bifurcation of the inner carotid corridors (carotid sinus) and in the mass of the aortic curve. The essential site of end of baroreceptor afferent strands is the NTS. The capacity of the baroreceptors is to keep up foundational circulatory strain at a moderately steady level, particularly during an adjustment in body position. Flawless baroreceptors are very viable in keeping quick changes in pulse from minute to minute or hour to hour, but since of their versatility to delayed changes of circulatory strain (> 2 or 3 days), the framework is unequipped for long term regulation of blood vessel pressure.What role does light energy from the sun serve in photosynthesis?
A
energizes electrons
B
splits carbon dioxide
C
splits water molecules
Answer:
B) splits carbon dioxide( mark me brainlest!)
Explanation:
In a nut shell , the light energy from the sun is converted into Chemical energy by the plants through the process of photosynthesis. The green pigment chlorophyll present in the leaves traps light energy from the sun . This light energy is used to convert water and carbon-dioxide into Glucose and Oxygen.
Final answer:
Light energy from the sun excites electrons in chlorophyll during photosynthesis and splits water molecules to replenish those electrons, playing a crucial role in converting sunlight into chemical energy.
Explanation:
The role of light energy from the sun in photosynthesis is multifaceted. Primarily, it serves to energize electrons within the chlorophyll molecules found in the photosystems. When chlorophyll absorbs light energy, the electrons become excited and jump to a higher energy level. These high-energy electrons are then passed on to the primary electron acceptor in the photosystem. Furthermore, light energy is also integral in the splitting of water molecules (H2O) into oxygen, hydrogen ions, and electrons during the process known as photolysis. This splitting is crucial as it replenishes the electrons that were excited and transferred from the chlorophyll molecules. The light-driven reactions of photosynthesis essentially initiate the conversion of sunlight energy into chemical energy, setting the stage for the synthesis of sugars in the following stages of photosynthesis.
18. Which of the following statements describes one reason that plant oils are generally healthier for human consumption than animal fats? A) Plant oils usually contain more unsaturated fatty acids than animal fats. B) Plant oils usually contain more trans fatty acids than animal fats. C) Plant oils usually have a higher degree of saturation than animal fats. D) Plant oils are glycerol based rather than phospholipid based. E) Plant oils have shorter chain fatty acids than animal fats.
Answer: A) Plant oils usually contain more unsaturated fatty acids than animal fats.
Explanation: Plant oil have more unsaturated fats which is more healthier to consume than saturated fats. Animal fats are known to contain saturated fats which makes it unhealthy for consumption.
Saturated fats have a high health risk when consumed, it builds up cholesterol level in the body. This cholesterol can cause atherosclerosis, cardiovascular disease and other health issues.