Answer:
Here is the complete statement: Cells are starved of energy when GLUCOSE is unable to enter.
Explanation:
Glucose, which is a monosacharide is the primary source of energy for all the cells in the body of humans. Glucose is the end product that is typically obtained from the digestion of carbohydrate. After digestion, the glucose is absorbed by the small intestine and is transported into the blood. Glucose needs the enzyme insulin in order to enter the body cells. When the glucose enter the cells, the cells use it to produce energy in the form of ATP. Without energy cells can not survive.
Without the help of insulin, glucose will not be able to enter the cells and the cells will starve and start to look for other meaning of biological fuel. This may include breaking down the protein in the body to convert it to glucose for energy.
The disease condition in which glucose that is present in the blood is not able to enter the cells due to non functional insulin is called diabetes mellitus.
Final answer:
Cells rely on glucose for energy, and if glucose is unable to enter, such as in diabetes, cells become energy-starved. This is critical in cells like RBCs which depend solely on glycolysis for ATP production, and the lack thereof can lead to cell death.
Explanation:
Cells are starved of energy when glucose is unable to enter due to compromised insulin signaling or other blocks in the metabolic pathways. All cells require energy to perform basic functions such as ion transport across membranes. Without energy from glycolysis, cells like red blood cells (RBCs) can't maintain their membrane potential, which ultimately leads to cell death. This scenario is evident in starving states or in conditions like diabetes where glucose is unavailable to cells despite its presence in the bloodstream.
Mature mammalian red blood cells exclusively rely on glycolysis for their energy source, producing ATP. If glycolysis is halted, they can sustain themselves with only two ATP molecules from one molecule of glucose, which is insufficient for survival in the long term. Should the block persist, these cells would inevitably expire.
Cpr stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. true or false'
CPR is an acronym for cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
This means that this statement is...
True!
Hope this helped!
~Just a girl in love with Shawn Mendes
Yes, CPR stands for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation. It is an emergency procedure involving chest compressions and artificial respiration to maintain the flow of oxygen-rich blood to the brain. Proper training is crucial for its correct application.
Explanation:The statement you have made is true. CPR does indeed stand for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation. This emergency life-saving technique consists of simultaneous chest compressions and artificial respiration. CPR is applied when someone's breathing or heartbeat has stopped, with the purpose of maintaining a flow of oxygen-rich blood to the brain until the patient's heartbeat and breathing can be restored.
Proper execution of CPR can increase the chance of survival substantially. The process consists of applying pressure with the flat portion of one hand on the sternum, in order to manually compress the blood within the heart enough to push a portion of it into the pulmonary and systemic circuits. This is especially important for the brain, as loss of blood flow can result in irreversible damage and death of neurons within minutes.
However, proper training is essential for correct application of CPR as incorrect technique can, in some cases, cause severe damage to the patient.
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The two hornlike processes that serve as attachment sites are the ________.
(Choose all that apply.)
a. Ramus
b. Greater cornua
c. Mental protuberance
d. Lesser cornua
e. Coronoid process
I think the answers are b. greater cornua and d lesser cornua
Final answer:
The hornlike processes that serve as attachment sites are the b. Greater cornua and d. Lesser cornua, which are part of the hyoid bone in the neck, distinct from the mandibular structures such as the ramus, mental protuberance, and coronoid process.
Explanation:
The two hornlike processes that serve as attachment sites are the b. Greater cornua and d. Lesser cornua. The greater and lesser cornua are prominent features of the hyoid bone, a horseshoe-shaped bone situated in the anterior midline of the neck between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. Unlike the other options, which include the ramus and coronoid process related to the mandible, and the mental protuberance related to the chin's projection, the greater and lesser cornua specifically refer to structures designed for muscle and ligament attachments that support the tongue and larynx.
For a person to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder, he or she must have experienced a significant depressive episode and depressed characteristics, suchas lethargy and hopelessness, for at least
Answer:
For at least 2 weeks
Explanation:
Final answer:
To be diagnosed with major depressive disorder, one must experience a total of five symptoms for at least two weeks, including feeling down or depressed and experiencing anhedonia.
Explanation:
To receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, one must experience a total of five symptoms for at least two weeks; these symptoms must cause significant distress or impair normal functioning, and they must not be caused by substances or a medical condition. At least one of the two symptoms mentioned above must be present, plus any combination of the following symptoms (APA, 2013):
Feeling down or depressedExperiencing anhedonia-loss of interest or pleasure in things that one typically enjoysSignificant weight loss or gainInsomnia or hypersomniaPsychomotor agitation or retar-dationFatigue or loss of energyFeelings of worth-lessness or excessive guiltDiminished ability to think or concentrateRecurrent thoughts of de-ath or sui-cidal ideation43) When the baroreceptor reflex is triggered by a decline in blood pressure,A) peripheral resistance decreases.B) sympathetic activity increases.C) cardiac output increases.D) sympathetic activity increases and cardiac output increases.E) sympathetic activity increases, cardiac output increases, and peripheral resistance decreases.
Answer:
I believe it's A and B
Explanation:
Hope my answer has helped you!
The ____________ is a single, large extension from the soma.
Answer:
Axon
Explanation:
Soma or cell body is one of the parts of neurons, the cells of the nervous system. Several short and branched and one large extension arise from the soma.
The single large extension of soma is called the axon. Axon is the part of the neuron that serves to carry the nerve impulse away from soma during conduction of the impulse.
Name the calf muscle.
Answer:
The calf muscle
Explanation:
U said name the calf muscle
Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis in terms of where and when they occur and their products.
Answer:
Mitosis: Occurs in somatic cells during growth, development and healing. Produces two genetically identical daughter cells from one parent cell.
Meiosis: Occurs in germ cells during gamete formation for sexual reproduction.
Produces genetically different four daughter cells from one parent cell.
Explanation:
Mitosis is the cell division that occurs during growth and healing process in somatic cells. It gives rise to two diploid daughter cells from one diploid parent cell. The daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cell.
Meiosis is the reductional cell division and occurs in germs cells for gamete formation. It forms four haploid daughter cells from one diploid parent cell. The daughter cells also carry some new gene combinations.
Why are tendons and ligaments difficult to heal?
Describe the function of Broca's area.
Answer:
Broca's area has a function that produces language. It controls motor functions involved with speech production.
Explanation:
:)
Availability of food: a. is dependent upon kin selection. b. can be highly variable, depending on season and rainfall. c. is determined by the alpha male only. d. is restricted to individuals in the dominant hierarchy.
Answer:
b. can be highly variable depending on season and rainfall.
Explanation:
DNA has unique properties that allow it to accurately retain genetic information, even after multiple rounds of replication. One aspect of DNA that allows it to accurately store genetic information is the base pairing from Chargaff\'s first rule of the four nucleotide bases. If the C content of a DNA molecule is 22%, what are the percentages of the remaining bases?
Answer:
G= 22%
A=28%
T= 28%
Explanation:
Given that percentage of cytosine content (C) = 22%
Since C pairs with G, percentage of guanine content (G) would also be = 22%
Hence, G+C = 22+22 = 44%
This means that A+T = 100-44= 56%
Since adenine pairs with thymine so, percentage of A= percentage of T
Hence percentage of Adenine (A)= 56/2 = 28%
And percentage of Thymine (T) = 28%
The meiotic division in which the number of chromosomes is reduced is
a. meiosis I
b.meiosis II
Answer:
Meiosis I
Explanation:
Meiosis is the process of cell division in which the daughter cells contain half number of chromosomes as compared to the parent cell. Meiosis is also known as reduction division.
AnaphaseI of meiosis reduces the chromosome number to half. The homologous chromosomes are separated and daughter receives only half number of chromosomes. Meiosis II is similar to the process of mitosis.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
What are the warning signs of COPD?
Shortness of breath, especially during physical activities
Wheezing
Chest tightness
Having to clear your throat first thing in the morning, due to excess mucus in your lungs
A chronic cough that may produce mucus (sputum) that may be clear, white, yellow or greenish
Blueness of the lips or fingernail beds (cyanosis)
Frequent respiratory infections
Lack of energy
Unintended weight loss (in later stages)
Swelling in ankles, feet or legs
The warning signs of COPD include shortness of breath, a chronic cough producing mucus, frequent respiratory infections, wheezing, and chest tightness. These symptoms develop slowly and often worsen over time, significantly affecting daily activities.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is a chronic lung disease that includes conditions like chronic bronchitis and emphysema. The warning signs of COPD include:
Shortness of breath, especially during physical activitiesA chronic cough that may produce mucus (also known as sputum)Frequent respiratory infectionsWheezing or a whistling sound when breathingChest tightnessUnintentional weight loss (in cases of advanced COPD)Many individuals mistake these symptoms for normal signs of aging or lack of physical activity, which can delay diagnosis and treatment. COPD develops slowly and symptoms tend to worsen over time, severely limiting the ability to perform routine activities. While there is no cure, treatments such as bronchodilators and lifestyle changes can help manage the disease. It is crucial to avoid smoking, exposure to pollutants, and to stay current with vaccinations to prevent complications.
What is intramembranous ossification?
Answer:
Intramembranous ossification is a process in the human body by which the long bones, clavicles, flat bones, and the skull, are formed during the fetal development and also happens when there is a fracture of a bone.
In essence, this process determines the specification of mesenchymal stem cells into what will later on be known as osteoblasts and then osteocytes. Basically, what happens is that the mesenchymal cells, at a stimulus, begin to replicate and form what is known as a nidus. As these cells replicate, grow and specialize, they start to form the basic unit of bones, which are known as osteocytes. In order for this to happen, the mesenchymal cells will undergo several changes, and adaptations, to elongate, grow and then form the tissue. They will also become able to capture minerals, such as calcium, in order to finish their formation.
If cells are placed in a hypotonic solution, what will happen to them?
A. Nothing will happen
B. They will burst
C. They will shrivel
D. They will stick together
Answer:
D. they will burst
Explanation:
Since the surrounding medium has more water content, the cells will take in water. After some time the cell membrane will burst.
What is LDL cholesterol? Explain in details.
Answer:
LDL Cholesterol
Explanation:
First of all, LDL stands for low-density lipoprotein and this specific protein is one of the five major groups of lipoprotein that help transport all the fat molecules.
True or False. The splitting of an ATP molecule (energy release: ATP - ADP + P + energy ) requires O2.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Splitting of an ATP molecule into ADP occurs through hydrolysis. It is an exergonic reaction that breaks the phosphate bond of ATP to release terminal phosphate. The energy released during breaking the bond is used to drive other endergonic processes.
However, ATP hydrolysis is independent of the presence of oxygen. This means that splitting of ATP into ADP and inorganic phosphate does not require the presence of oxygen.
What would happen if the glucose concentration within the blood plasma became 1.2%? What direction would water flow (in or out of the cell) and what would happen to the cell shape?
Answer:
Water would flow out of the cells consequently leading to shrinking of the cells.
Explanation:
If the glucose concentration within the blood plasma became 1.2% then the blood plasma will be hypertonic with respect to the contents of the cells, that is the blood plasma will be highly concentrated compared to the cells. Water would flow out of the cells via osmosis (from their region of high concentration to their region of low of concentration) and thus the cells would shrink.
Final answer:
If blood plasma had a glucose concentration of 1.2%, cells would shrivel (crenation) because water would flow out to dilute the external hypertonic solution. Without a gradient, no net flow of glucose would occur; but with transport proteins, active transport could still move glucose.
Explanation:
If the glucose concentration within the blood plasma became 1.2%, this would create a hypertonic environment outside of the cells. In response to this, water would move out of the cells and into the plasma to balance the solute concentration. As a result, the cells would lose volume and shrivel, a process known as crenation. This is due to the semipermeable nature of the cell membrane, which allows water to move in and out to reach osmotic equilibrium.
In a scenario where the concentration of glucose is equal inside and outside the cell, we would not expect a net flow of glucose across the cell membrane in the absence of other forces. This is because the concentration gradient, which drives passive transport, does not exist. However, cell membranes often have glucose transport proteins that can facilitate the movement of glucose against or with its concentration gradient in an active transport process.
. The bleeders disease, hemophilia, is X-linked recessive. If a normal male and a female who is a carrier of the hemophilia allele decide to have children, what are the chances any of the offspring will have hemophilia? Can male offspring be carriers of the trait?
Answer:
The chance that any of the offspring having hemophilia is 25% or 0.25. No male will be a carrier.
Explanation:
Normal Male = X Y
Carrier Female = Xh X
Thus, the genotype of their possible offsprings will be X Xh, X X, Xh Y, X Y.
2 normal children, 1 female carrier and 1 infected male.
The chance of any offspring having hemophilia is 1/4 as only the Xh Y offspring will have hemophilia, the other X Xh will be a carrier and not have hemophilia.
A male cant be a carrier of an X linked trait like hemophilia but will be an infected or not. A male offspring could be infected with a probability of 0.5.
The structural unit of compact bone is the
Answer:
the answer would be Osteon!
The microscopic structural unit of compact bone is called an osteon, or Haversian system.
Hope this helps!
The structural unit of compact bone is the osteon or Haversian system. It is a cylindrical structure consisting of mineralized matrix and osteocytes maintained by capillaries. The osteon's design allows it to provide strength and support to the skeletal system.
Explanation:The structural unit of compact bone is the osteon, also referred to as the Haversian system. The osteon is a cylindrical structure filled with mineralized matrix and living osteocytes maintained by capillaries in the Haversian canal. Compact bone is arranged in concentric rings known as lamellae. Within these lamellae are small spaces called lacunae that house osteocytes, the bone cells that maintain the bone matrix.
Imagine the osteon like a tiny, densely packed straw within the bone. This structure makes the bone highly resistant to bending and twisting forces, thus providing the skeletal system with its strength and support.
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List the types of bones (according to their shape) present in the human body
Answer:
the types of bone that present in the human body is flatbone , short bone,long bone, sutural bone, irregular bone , and sesamoid bone .
Explanation:
A small gap, called the _________ occurs at the synapse.
Answer:
Synaptic cleft
Explanation:
Synapse is the region where the impulse is conducted between two neurons. This occurs because two neurons are in maximum possible proximity to each other at the synapse.
However, there is no physical contact between two neurons even at the synapse. And a small space is present between two neurons at synapse. This gap is called the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters are released in this cleft.
The small gap at the synapse is called the synaptic cleft. It is where a neurotransmitter diffuses from the presynaptic element to the postsynaptic element, initiating a new electrical signal in the target cell.
Explanation:The small gap at the synapse is called the synaptic cleft. It is the space between the presynaptic element (the transmitting neuron) and the postsynaptic element (the receiving neuron or target cell). In this narrow junction, a neurotransmitter diffuses from the presynaptic element to the postsynaptic element, initiating a new electrical signal in the target cell.
The synaptic cleft is indeed a small gap or space that separates the presynaptic element (ending of the neuron sending the signal) from the postsynaptic element (receiving neuron or target cell). This gap is a crucial part of the synaptic junction.
In this gap, neurotransmitters are released from vesicles in the presynaptic neuron and diffuse across the synaptic cleft to bind with receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. This binding triggers a cascade of events that can lead to the generation of a new electrical signal in the postsynaptic cell, allowing the signal to be transmitted from one neuron to the next.
Understanding the function of the synaptic cleft is key to comprehending the process of synaptic transmission, which is fundamental to how nerve cells communicate with one another in the nervous system.
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What is the purpose of the pericardial sac?
Answer:
The main purpose of pericardial sac is the fixation of heart at mediastinum, protection and lubrication of heart.
Explanation:
Pericardial sac is also known as pericardium and contains heart and large vessels. Two main layers of pericardium are fibrous pericardium and serous pericardium.
Pericardial sac secretes the fluid that provide lubrication and reduces the friction of heart. The sac fixes the position of the heart and limits the heart movement. The pericardial sac also reduces the excessive dilation of heart during acute volume overload.
Which of the following white blood cells is not capable of phagocytosis?
A. lymphocytes
B. neutrophils
C. eosinophils
D. monocytes
Answer:
Lymphocytes
Explanation:
White blood cells ( leukocytes) is one of the formed elements of blood that provides immunity and protection against the pathogens. Different types of leukocytes are eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, lymphocytes and neutrophils.
Lymphocytes are B cells and T cells of the immune system. B cells produce antibodies against the antigen and T cells kills the harmful cells of the body. by specific cell determinants.These cells are not capable of phagocyte the pathogen.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Answer:
A. lymphocytes
Explanation:
Lymphocytes white blood cells is not capable of phagocytosis.
How do primates acquire food? a. through a limited set of highly specialized foraging strategies b. through the use of highly developed material culture c. through cooperation among kin groups, mostly by hunting d. through a wide variety of food-foraging strategies
Answer:
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
Primates refer to an order of animals that include: apes, monkeys, bush babies, etc. The group is very diverse and include up to 350 different species. The smallest primate is mouse lemur while the biggest is wild gorilla. Generally, primate have pairs of prehensile hands and feet, flexible shoulders and hips and well developed brains. They also have hands that are sensitive to touch. Primates have different foraging methods, which they use to acquire their foods.
Primates gain their food through a diverse range of food-foraging strategies, including using tools, cooperating with kin groups, and adapting their strategies based on available resources. Each species has developed its own unique ways of obtaining food based on its habitat and physical adaptations.
Explanation:Primates obtain their food through a wide variety of food-foraging strategies. These strategies are dependent on their environment, species-specific behaviors, and physical adaptations. For example, some primates such as chimpanzees and orangutans use tools like sticks or stones to obtain insects, honey, or nuts. They may also combine their foraging efforts in cooperation with kin groups.
There are others like the gorillas that predominantly eat vegetation and have developed strategies to find the best leaves, stems, and fruits in their habitat. Hunting of smaller mammals can also occur, primarily in some larger primates, but this is not the main strategy for most. Therefore, the versatility in foraging strategies of primates is what makes their diet varied and balanced.
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Which statement is true?
Stomata, when closed, allow CO2 to diffuse into plants. Stomata are important in terrestrial plants because they allow CO2 to diffuse into the plant. Stomata are not important in algae because they do not need CO2. Stomata are important in terrestrial plants because they allow the roots to absorb water and nutrients from the soil.
Answer:
The 3rd answer that they allow the roots to absorb water & nutrients from the soil.
Which of the following reflexes is the most rapid?
a) vestibulocollic reflex
b) eye blink reflex
c) leg withdrawal reflex
d) vestibulo-ocular reflex
Answer:
The eye-blink reflex.
Explanation:
Operates around 100 ms.
Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?bone marrow and thymus appendix and spleen lymph nodes and tonsils spleen and thymus
Answer:
The correct answer is bone marrow and thymus
Explanation:
Primary lymphoid organs are bone marrow and thymus. Both organs consist of primary lymphoid tissue where B and T cells are produced.
Lymphocytes are also complete the early phases of maturation in the primary lymphatic organs in the body. In humans, B cells are generated and mature in the bone marrow. However, T cells are produced in the bone marrow and maturation takes place in the thymus.
Thus, the correct answer is the bone marrow and thymus gland.
Answer:
bone marrowthymusExplanation: Primary lymphoid tissues are responsible for the creation and maturation of white blood cells.
The primary lymphoid organs are:
bone marrowthymus_______ is a brain-imaging technique that shows us precisely which areas of the brain are active at a particular moment in time; _______ is a technique that shows us the exact structure of each of the brain’s parts.
Answer:
see below
Explanation:
This question was answered here:
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fMRI is a neuroimaging technique that maps brain activity in real-time by detecting changes in blood flow, while MRI provides detailed structural images of the brain.
The technique that shows us precisely which areas of the brain are active at a particular moment in time is functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), which measures changes in blood oxygen levels and can map out active regions with a three-dimensional representation. In contrast, the technique that shows us the exact structure of each of the brain’s parts is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which takes images of the brain structure itself in cross-sectional "slices" without requiring any blood flow measurement.
fMRI is particularly useful for observing brain activity during specific tasks as it can indicate which parts of the brain are engaged based on increased blood flow and oxygen usage, though it provides only an indirect measure of neuron activity and has limited temporal resolution. Conversely, while MRI offers detailed pictures of brain structures, it does not indicate which areas are active during tasks.
The stage of mitosis in which the nucleolus disappears is
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
Answer:
(a). prophase.
Explanation:
Mitosis is a type of cell division, by which one parent cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells. Prophase represents the first stage of mitosis, during which nuclear envelope starts to disintegrate and nucleolus break down.
During late prophase, chromosomes become condensed, nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappears and mitotic spindles are formed.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).