Answer: No.
Explanation:
Studying about diseases, their effect, cause and the prevention of diseases is known as Epidemiology, and the scientists that studies Epidermiology and take it as a professsion are called Epidermiologists.
From the question; assuming the epidemiologist who finds a correlation between the use of tanning beds and melanoma (an aggressive form of skin cancer) in college-age women, the Epidermiologist can NOT conclude that tanning beds cause skin cancer BECAUSE the fact that the the use of tanning beds CORRELATE with melanoma (an aggressive form of skin cancer) in college-age women does not PROOF THAT tanning beds cause skin cancer.
===>That is, the fact that something correlate with another thing does not make it the cause.
Amanda lost a large quantity of blood during childbirth. In an attempt to replenish her body fluids, distilled water equal to the volume of blood lost is added to the blood directly via one of her veins. What will be the outcome?
Answer:
The heart will mix it with the blood until the heart generates more blood to pump through the body.
Explanation:
The tax equity and fiscal responsibility act of 1982 resulted in implementation of risk contracts, which are arrangements among providers to provide what health care services
Answer:
The tax equity and fiscal responsibility act of 1982 resulted in implementation of risk contracts, which are arrangements among providers to provide "capitated" health care services
Explanation:
The Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982 (TEFRA) is central tax regulation approved in 1982 to rise income in the country over a mixture of central expenditure incisions, excise rises, and improvement events. The Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act (TEFRA) of 1982 is a federal law that, permits positions to style Medical Assistance (MA) accessible to certain children with infirmities without, including their parent's income. Employers with 20 or more employees are subject to TEFRA including all full-time, part-time, union or non-union for each working day in each of 20 or more work weeks in the preceding or current calendar year.
after teaching a group of students about irritable bowel syndrome and antidiarrheal agents, the instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the students identify which of the following as an example of an opiate-related antidiarrheal agent?A)Loperamide (Imodium)B)Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)C)Kaolin and pectin (Kaopectate)D)Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)Ans:a
Answer:
The answer is A. Loperamide
Explanation:
Antidiarrheals are drugs which are given to treat acute diarrhea by providing symptomatic relief for diarrhea but do not eliminate the cause of the diarrhea.The most common drug used is Loperamide (Imodium) which is an opioid receptor agonist. Loperamide decreases the flow of fluids and electrolytes in the bowel and reduces bowel movement by acting on the mu opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of the large intestine. However, when taken in large quantities it gives high euphoria similar to opioids.
Eating diets that contain high amounts of certain kinds of fat raise the risk of developing heart disease. Thus, a diet that supplies an excessive amount of such fats is a ____ for heart disease.
Answer:
The correct answer is- risk factor
Explanation:
Risk factor is some variables which are responsible for developing a disease in us. For example, there are various risk factors for developing heart disease like smoking, high LDL, physical activity, diabetes, high caloric diet, etc.
Diet which is having a high amount of LDL or bad cholesterol raises our body fat and increases the risk of developing heart disease. Therefore a diet that contains and supplies an extra amount of such fat is a risk factor for heart disease.
A client has presented to an ambulatory clinic complaining of a persistent headache. What assessments should the clinician conduct to differentiate between rhinosinusitis and alternative health problems? a. Take a sputum sample for culture and sensitivity. b. Compare the oral, tympanic, and axillary temperatures and order a white blood cell count. c.Palpate the lymph nodes and inspect the ears with an otoscope. d. Perform transillumination and ask the client if bending forward exacerbates the headache.
Answer:
The answer is: letter d, Perform transillumination and ask the client if bending forward exacerbates the headache.
Explanation:
"Rhinosinusitis" is an inflammation of the nasal cavity of the sinuses. Persons having this condition experiences the following symptoms: nasal congestion, facial pain or dental pain, headache, postnasal discharge, cough, etc.
In order to know whether the patient is truly experiencing such condition, it is best to perform transillumination. This will allow the physician to check whether the sinuses are intact and not inflamed.
Asking the client to bend forward will also allow to rule out other conditions. Pain from the sinuses is exacerbated when bending forward. This is because the "sinus passages" are inflamed.
Thus, this explains the answer.
A 58-year-old client with osteoarthritis is admitted to the hospital with peptic ulcer disease. Which findings are commonly associated with peptic ulcer disease?
a) Tachycardia
b) History of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use
c) Epigastric pain that is relieved by antacids
d) Nausea and weight loss
e) Low-grade fever
f) Localized, colicky periumbilical pain
Answer: b) History of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use
c) Epigastric pain that is relieved by antacids
d) Nausea and weight loss
Explanation:
Peptic ulcer disease can be defined as the disease which results in painful sores or ulcers in the stomach lining or in the small intestine. It is characterized by the symptoms of melena, hematemesis, nausea, weight kiss and epigastric pain on the left side of the abdomen develop after 1 to 2 hours of eating and this can be relieved through antacids.
The use of NSAID is associated with the peptic ulcer disease. The NSAID is responsible for inhibition of the COX-1 gene in the gastrointestinal tract that leads to the reduction in the secretion of prostagladin as a result of this gastric mucosa becomes susceptible to injury.
Answer:
Option (b), (c) and (d).
Explanation:
Osteoarthritis may be defined as the medical condition in which the cartilage of the body that covers the end of the bones wear down. Millions of people are affected by this disease.
The common symptoms of the peptic ulcer are melena, nausea, weight loss and gastric pain. The use of NSAID increases the chances of the peptic ulcer. The epigastric pain might occur after eating and can only be released by eating antacids.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b), (c) and (d).
How does a motivational interviewing approach differ from a traditional approach to helping clients make healthcare-related changes?
Answer:
Motivational interviewing aims at bringing about a self thought will and motivation for change in the client.
Explanation:
Motivational interviewing differs from a traditional approach in its non-confrontational, collaborative effort style between the therapist and client.
This style brings about motivation and change in a subtle manner and allows the mindset of the client be in a healthy condition of realizing they want the change themselves. In this style, the therapist serves as a source of support, giving the chance to the client to make own choices and conclusions devoid of pressure.
Answer:
Motivational interviewing aims at bringing about a self thought will and motivation for change in the client.
Explanation:
After the release of the mature egg, it is guided by the fimbria into the ___________________. uterus. vagina. fallopian tubes. endometrium
Answer:
The correct answer is- fallopian tube
Explanation:
Fimbria is a finger-like projection which is present at the end of the oviduct or fallopian tube and is located near the ovary. When the ovum is released by the ovary fimbria catches that egg and guide it into the fallopian tube.
The fertilization of the unfertilized egg takes place in the fallopian tube and then the fertilized egg is guided towards the uterus. In the uterus, the egg gets attaches to the uterine lining and develop into the uterus. Therefore mature is guided by fimbria into fallopian tube after its release.
A nursing student is learning how to adequately use an otoscope to examine the ear. What method should the instructor educate the student to use when examining with an otoscope?
The provided question lacks the appropriate options, however the correct options are as follows:
A)Otoscope should be held in the examiner's right hand, in a pencil-hold position, with the examiner's hand braced against the patient's face.
B) Otoscope should be held in the examiner's left hand, with a full hand grasp to be able to guide the scope into the internal ear.
C) Otoscope should be held in the examiner's dominant hand, with a full hand grasp to be able to guide the scope into the internal ear.
D) Otoscope should be held in the examiner's left hand, in a pencil-hold position, with the examiner's hand braced against the patient's face.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
Otoscope is an instrument that is used as medical device to look into the ears. ENT specialist or healthcare providers use otoscope to check for disease or ear related problems.
The risght way to use it as it should be held in the examiners right hand like a pencil while hand braced against the patient's face. This position is best for examining tympanic membrane and auditory canal.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
Stroke volume is regulated by:
a. Preload Contractility of the individual ventricular muscle fibers
b. Afterload or the pressure that must be exceeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur
All of these regulate stroke volume
Answer:
Stroke volume is regulated by:
All of these regulate stroke volume
Explanation:
Both pre-load contractility of the individual ventricular muscle fibers
and after-load or the pressure that must be exceeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur contributes to how stroke volume is regulated.
Why prevalence and risk factors associated with club drugs?
Answers:
They are consumed with alcohol which only adds to the risk of dehydration and overdose. Also, the dangers of taking drugs in clubs is increased due to the fact that many club drugs are laced with other substances.
Answer:
Sex Factors; Substance-Related Disorders/epidemiology
Explanation:
1.
The ___ is a hollow, muscular organ that nourishes and protects a developing fetus.
A. Menstruation
B. Ovulation
C. Uterus
D. Cervix
E. Vagina
The uterus is the hollow, muscular organ that nourishes and protects a developing fetus. The other terms refer to different parts or functions within the female reproductive system.
Explanation:The uterus is a hollow, muscular organ that nourishes and protects a developing fetus. None of the other options are correct. Menstruation refers to the monthly shedding of the uterine lining, whereas ovulation is the release of an egg from an ovary. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that opens into the vagina, and the vagina is a canal that leads from the cervix to the outside of the body.
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Which axis of the DSM-IV-TR contains an overall judgment made by the psychological professional of the person’s mental health and adjustment based on a scale from 0 to 100?
Answer: Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning )
Explanation:
Diagnostic and statistic manual of mental disorder is a publication for the classification of mental disorder using common language and standard criteria. It is used by clinician, researchers, psychiatric drug regulation agencies, health insurance companies, legal system and policy makers. Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning) is a numeric scale used by mental health clinicians and physicians to rate subjectively the social, occupational, and psychological functioning of an individual, e.g., how well one is meeting various problems-in-living. Scores range from 100 (extremely high functioning) to 1 (severely impaired).
According to psychologist Martin Seligman, the combined effect of positive emotions, engagement, relationships, meaning, and achievement constitutes ______.
Answer:
Overall well being.
Explanation:
Psychology is the field of science that mainly deals with the study of the human mind and behavior. The different fields of psychology are cultural psychology, social psychology and development psychology.
Martin Seligman is the famous psychologist that explain the important factors for the positive psychology and the overall well being of the individual. The individual can be fit if individual has positive thoughts, emotions and achievements in his life. The wellness of an individual focuses both on the positive factors of the society as well as of the individual.
Thus, the answer is overall well being.
Paris has just found out that her company is downsizing their staff and that she is highly likely to lose her job at any moment. Her heartbeat is increasing, she feels warm, and she has to take several deep breaths to try to calm down. The part of her body that is currently 'speeding her up' is called the ________ nervous system.
Answer:
sympathetic
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is one of the main components of the autonomic nervous system that controls involuntary movement functions such as heart rate, dilation of pupils etc. The sympathetic nervous system specifically controls such involuntary functions unconsciously when the body senses a threat or stressor. It is responsible for initiating the body’s “flight or fight response.
The threat of Paris losing her job is what her body senses as distress signal, which leads to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system by the hypothalamus. Hormones such as adrenaline is pumped into the bloodstream to elevate the body’s alertness and heart rate as a response to the distress signal.
Answer:
Sympathetic
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is also referred to as the fight, flight response. The sympathetic nervous system is a division of the autonomic nervous system and the other being the parasympathetic system. The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary physiological processes.
The sympathetic nervous system is activated when there is intense physical activity, the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the body to respond in such a way that there is increased heartbeat, increased respiratory.
You are trying to better understand the relationship between leptin and weight. One thing you do know is that most obese people have high blood levels of leptin, and you learn that the issue is that, as a result of leptin _____, the normal mechanisms by which leptin regulates body weight and energy balance are disrupted.
Answer:
Leptin resistance
Explanation:
Leptin is produced by fat cells and it is called the starvation hormone. Low leptin level, sends a starvation signal to the brain and optimal leptin level, indicates the body has enough energy.
Leptin resistance is a condition characterized by high leptin level, indicating that there is a lot of fat present in the body but the brain can't sense it. The mechanism put in place for the brain to realize that there is enough energy available in the body is disrupted and the brain is starved.
In people with leptin resistance, the urge to eat doesn't go away no matter how much or how rewarding the food previously eaten might be.
Consumption of large amounts of food, very frequently is what leads to the accumulation of more and more fat, leading to obesity.
One of the scarce resources that constrain our behavior is time. Each of us has only 24 hours in a day, and we must allocate our time in a given day among competing alternatives. How do you go about allocating your time in a given day among competing alternatives? How do you go about weighing the alternatives? Once you choose a most important use of time, why do you not spend all your time on that activity? A. As more and more time is spent on one activity, the opportunity cost of that activity in terms of other activities rises. B. As less and less time is spent on one activity, the opportunity cost of that activity in terms of other activities rises. C. As more and more time is spent on one activity, the opportunity cost of that activity in terms of other activities falls. D. B and C only.
Answer:
As more and more time is spent on one activity, the opportunity cost of that activity in terms of other activities rises
Explanation:
The allocating scarce resources is done to increase the output for the well being of the nation. This resources allocation must be associated with the decision makings.
Time is the important scarce resource that constrain the human behavior. The achievement of the particular goal occur by the efficient use of the time. The humans have different capabilities and spending more time on single activity can increase the opportunity cost.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
Prior to an eye exam for possible macular degeneration, the nurse completes a history of symptoms. The nurse is aware that a diagnostic sign of age-related dry macular degeneration is:_______.
Answer:
The appearance of tiny, yellow spots in the field of vision.
Explanation:
The macula is the functional area of the retina, which lines the eye and allows us to see the color of the eye.
A disease which affects the macula of the retina during the old age is known as the age-related macular degeneration.
The person affected with the macular degeneration lose their ability of vision with time and the early symptoms include the blurriness in vision, the white or yellow spots in the vision.
Thus, the appearance of tiny, yellow or white spots in the field of vision and blurred images is the correct answer.
A diagnostic sign of age-related dry macular degeneration is the thinning of the retina, which makes vision more difficult.
Explanation:A diagnostic sign of age-related dry macular degeneration is the retina has thinned with age, making vision more difficult. This condition occurs due to the degeneration and thinning of the macula, which is responsible for central vision. As the macula becomes thinner, it can affect vision clarity and sharpness.
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Decision making in the international environment is __________ it is in a purely domestic environment.
Drag the tiles to the correct boxes to complete the pairs. Match the term with the correct equation.
A person being treated for agoraphobia is gradually learning to leave home and to enter crowded public places. Additionally, the therapist hopes that "outside world" experiences will become more rewarding for the person. The treatment described BEST reflects what theoretical orientation?
Answer:
Behavioral.
Explanation:
Theoretical orientation may be defined as the important factor for both the counselor as well as for the client. Different individuals require different therapy depending on the individual situation.
The theoretical orientation includes the behavioral orientation as well. The behavioral orientation is one of the approach used in the sport psychology that believes that environment and outside world acts as the determinant of the behavior and especially comes from the outside world experience. The outside world experience can be beneficial in the treatment of agoraphobia ( fear from a situation).
Thus, the answer is behavioral.
Explain the concept of freezing point depression. What is happening between the solute and the solvent?\
Answer:
Freezing point depression is the phenomena that describes why adding a solute to a solvent results in the lowering of the freezing point of the solvent. Adding solute to a solvent will essentially dilute the solvent molecules, and according to Raoult's law, this leads to a decrease in vapor pressure.
Explanation:
Which of these people is more likely to experience stress?
A.
Mr. Green is loved by all his friends. They can always count on him as he never says no to anything.
B.
Mr. Wong is considered rude by some because he doesn't go out of his way to help anyone. However, he does help his friends when possible.
C.
Mrs. Parker bakes cakes for a living. If she cut back on her piano practice and accepted more cake orders, she could earn
Answer:
Mr. Green.
-----------------------------------------
Answer:
C
Explanation:
She has a lot going on she wants to have more piano practice but she would have to cut back on making cakes a little bit. But thats her job so shes not able too so easily.
Pavlov's concept of ______________ explained behavior as a result of observable stimuli and observable responses.
Answer:
Classical conditioning.
Explanation:
Pavlov described his classical conditioning theory in which he explains how an observable stimuli produces an observable response. This theory is famous because his experiments with dogs. In those situations he stimulated dogs to produce a reaction. Then he expected the same answer to the same stimuli every time this happened. In conclusion, there is a learned response.
Answer:
Classical conditioning.
Explanation:
_____ emphasized the interaction among behavior, conscious cognitive processes, and social experiences in his personality theory called _____.
The interaction among behavior, conscious cognitive processes, and social experiences is described in his personality theory, called the socio-cognitive theory, and is given by Albert Bandura.
What is the significance of the socio-cognitive theory?Socio-cognitive theory is a theory that explains how people's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are influenced by their social interactions and the environment in which they live, it suggests that people's thoughts and behaviors are shaped by the interaction between their individual cognition and their social context, and this theory has been used to explain a wide range of phenomena, including how people learn, form and maintain relationships, make decisions, etc.
Hence, the interaction among behavior, conscious cognitive processes, and social experiences is described in his personality theory, called the socio-cognitive theory, and is given by Albert Bandura.
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________ sustainability practices include performance excellence, financial management, resource management, and emergency preparedness.1, Social 2, Technological 3, Economic 4, Environmental
Answer:
3. Economic
Explanation:
Just to mention financial management suggests we are talking about Economic Sustainability. Resource management, for example, is considering an efficient use of resources so we don’t waste money and time. Emergency preparedness refers to the fact that we have to be prepare to many issues and problems so we reduce the risk and performance excellence is a little bit similar to resource management.
Summarize the information included on food labels. Then, name and briefly describe at least three (3) types of claims that may appear on food labels. How reliable is each of these types of claims?
Answer:
The information on food label include;
ingredients, manufacturers of the food and Nutrition information panel.
types of claims include:
1. Health claims: this is a statement about a food and what it could do to your health.
2.Nutrient Claim: these are the claims about certain substance in a food.
3. function Claim: this is a claim on the effect that a food has on a normal body.
Most of the claims stated above are reliable because a company could be sued for wrong claims on a food label which could cost it a fortune.
Explanation:
food label: this is a panel found on a package of food which contains different information about the nutritional value of the food item. There are many pieces of information which are standard on most food labels, including serving size, number of calories, grams of fat, included nutrients, and a list of ingredients
Food labels provide information about nutrition and ingredients. Types of claims on food labels include nutrient content claims, health claims, and structure/function claims, with health claims being the most reliable.
Explanation:Food labels provide important information about the nutrition and ingredients of packaged foods. They help consumers make informed choices about what they eat. Some types of claims that may appear on food labels include nutrient content claims, health claims, and structure/function claims. The reliability of each of these types of claims varies, with health claims being the most regulated and reliable.
Nutrient Content Claims: These highlight the amount of a nutrient in a food product (e.g., "low fat," "high in vitamin C"). These claims are regulated and have specific definitions.
Health Claims: These link a food or one of its components to a reduced risk of a particular disease or health-related condition (e.g., "may reduce the risk of heart disease"). Health claims are subject to strict scientific evidence and are considered reliable, as they undergo thorough evaluation by regulatory authorities.
Structure/Function Claims: These describe how a nutrient or dietary ingredient affects the normal structure or function of the body (e.g., "supports healthy digestion"). Unlike health claims, structure/function claims do not require pre-approval by regulatory authorities, and their reliability may vary.
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Anthony is sick of writing papers and studying for tests, but he knows he needs a college degree if he wants to be successful in his chosen career. So every morning Anthony gives himself a dressing down-in essence, yelling at himself-to make himself get out of bed and go to classes, and every evening he does the same thing to get himself to do his work. According to Freud, which personality structure is in control here?a) id
b) ego
c) unconscious
d) superego
The correct answer is option (B) because ego represents the conscious mind and is responsible for mediating between the demands of the id and superego.
In Freud's psychoanalytic theory, the ego represents the conscious mind and is responsible for mediating between the demands of the id (instinctual drives) and the superego (internalized moral standards). Anthony's behavior of self-criticism and self-motivation to fulfill his academic responsibilities reflects the functioning of the ego.
The ego strives to balance the id's desires for immediate gratification with the superego's moral and societal standards, hence enabling Anthony to navigate his academic duties while recognizing the importance of his long-term goals."
Hence, B. is the correct option.
The _____ is the specific region of the brain responsible for higher-order cognitive functions such as planning and reasoning.
Answer:
frontal lobe
Explanation:
The frontal lobe is involved in reasoning, motor control, emotion, and language. It contains the motor cortex, which is involved in planning and coordinating movement; the prefrontal cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive functioning; and Broca's area, which is essential for language production.
The prefrontal cortex is responsible for higher-order cognitive functions such as planning and reasoning.
The prefrontal cortex is the specific region of the brain responsible for higher-order cognitive functions like planning and reasoning. It is located in the front of the brain in the frontal lobe and is associated with decision-making and cognitive control.
A client is admitted for a coronary artery bypass graft. The client states that the preoperative teaching materials contain information about pacemaker wires being inserted during surgery as a precautionary measure. The client asks, "What is the purpose of the pacemaker?
Answer:
Coronary artery disease may be defined as the blockage of the coronary artery due to the deposition of the hard material or deposits of the cholesterol in the artery.
The bypass graft is used for the treatment of the coronary artery disease. The pacemaker is used during the surgery to manage the heart rate that are abnormally slow. The pacemaker is inserted into the chest for the proper regulation of the heart beat. The electrical pulse is used by the pacemaker for the regular heart beat.