Based on what you know about the location of the earth in relation to the sun, why is this called the Goldilocks zone in other galaxies? A. It's an area that doesn't experience any major weather events that could cause mass extinctions. B. It's an area that's an optimal distance from the sun for potentially supporting life. C. It's a region that's unaffected by asteroid or meteor impacts. D. It's a region that exhibits a weak gravitational pull, thus maintaining a safe distance from the sun.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The distance of the Goldilocks zone ensures that water on the terrestrial planet is maintained in the liquid phase. This is because the distance from the star ensure it receives enough sunlight to keep the planet warm but not too hot that the water exists as vapor. Water in its liquid form is essential for maintaining life like here on earth.


Related Questions

Sickle-cell anemia is an example of codominance. What implications does this have for people with one or two copies of the sickle-cell gene? 

      A. People with two copies of the mutated gene have sickle-cell anemia. People with one copy of the mutated gene have healthy red blood cells.  B. People with two copies of the mutated gene are carriers of the disease. People with one copy of the mutated gene don't have the disease.  C. People with two copies of the mutated gene have healthy red blood cells. People with one copy of the mutated gene don't have the disease but are carriers of the disease.  D. People with two copies of the mutated gene have sickle-cell anemia. People with one copy of the mutated gene have both healthy and misshapen red blood cells and are carriers of the disease. ​

Answers

The answer is D.

Fun fact: People with one copy of the mutated gene have an advantage in sub-Saharan regions of Africa against Malaria. They can’t contract it!

Answer:

D. People with two copies of the mutated gene have sickle-cell anemia. People with one copy of the mutated gene have both healthy and misshapen red blood cells and are carriers of the disease. ​

Explanation:

Sickle cell anemia is a genetic and hereditary disease, prevalent in blacks, but may also manifest in whites. It is characterized by a change in red blood cells, which lose their round and elastic shape, acquire the appearance of a sickle (hence the sickle cell name) and harden, which makes it difficult for blood to pass through small vessels and oxygenate tissues. .

Sickle cell red cells contain a type of hemoglobin, hemoglobin S, which crystallizes in the lack of oxygen, forming thrombi that block blood flow because they lack the malleability of normal red blood cells.

Sickle cell anemia is caused by genetic mutation, responsible for the deformity of red blood cells. To be a carrier of the disease, the altered gene must be transmitted by the father and the mother. If transmitted only by one parent, the child will have the sickle cell trait, which may pass on to his descendants, but not the manifest illness. Accordingly, we can conclude that people with two copies of the mutated gene (ie, feared the defective hand and father gene) have sickle cell anemia, although the disease does not manifest itself. On the other hand, people with a copy of the mutated gene have healthy and deformed red blood cells and are carriers of the disease.

leopold's genotype is xY. what does this mean?
A.leopold had hemophilia
B.leopold did not have hemophlilia
C.leopold was a carrier of hemophilia,but did not have the disease
D.leopold's daughter would have hemophilia

Answers

The answer would be A. Because hemophilia is recessive and the Leopold carries the recessive trait
The answer would be A.

Also males can’t be carriers of X linked diseases.(they only have one x chromosome and express everything that is on it)

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids.DNA was the first genetic material.The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.

Answers

Answer:

Here is the correct option: A GENE FROM AN ORGANISM CAN THEORETICALLY BE EXPRESSED BY ANY OTHER ORGANISM.

Explanation:

The theory of evolution has clearly showed us that all living things on earth have common ancestors. This fact has been established by the study of genetic materials in different organism. The similarity between two organisms can easily be measured by the amount of DNA that the organisms have in common. Because, the genetic code in all living organisms are essentially the same, genes from a particular organism can be expressed by another organism. A good example of this is seen in the use of PCR (Polymerase chain reaction) in which a DNA from a human can be replicated and multiply by a bacteria.

Which organisms hold the largest amount of energy in most ecosystems?

A. Secondary consumers.

B. Producers. (I think is the correct answer.)

C. Decomposers.

D. Tertiary consumers.

Answers

Answer: B. Producers

Explanation:

A food chain is basically a sequence of transfer of food and energy when one organism is consumed by other organism in an ecosystem. In an energy pyramid linked with food chain the producers are present in the lowermost base level trophic level. These organisms exhibit the highest amount of energy as compared to other trophic levels. As these organisms are capable of producing their own food by process of photosynthesis by obtaining the energy from sunlight or by chemosynthesis. This energy decreases in subsequent trophic levels when producers are consumed by consumers.

Answer:

B. Producers

Explanation:

Its correct i took the test

For the vast majority of time during elongation in translation, what will you find at the p site of the ribosome?

Answers

The first polypeptide

For an animal living a diplontic cycle, meiosis is limited to:

producing gametes
producing growth
fertilization
development of the zygote

Answers

Apparently the answer is the first choice. Producing gametes

Deer Cave cannot support photosynthesis is as not enough sunlight is present. In spite of this, it still has a complex food chain. What is the energy foundation of this food chain?

Answers

Answer:

A cave is a prime location for bats of all species.

Explanation:

Bat dung, or guano, on the cave floor has it's own ecosystem of insects, and other animals that feed on the guano, creating a self contained ecosystem.

Answer:

The energy foundation in a deer cave ecosystem are the organic material, such as guano, other animal droppings and washed-in plants during flooding. Excess rainwater washes leaves, twigs and plants into a cave, providing munchies for insects and other animals.

Explanation:

The food chain in the cave start from the poop of bats known as guano, other animal droppings and washed-in plants that provide nutrients for fungus and microscopic bacteria. Then, millipedes and tiny crustaceans feed on the fungus, bacteria and the nutrients left behind. Bigger insects, such as cave beetles, feed on these millipedes, crustaceans and even the eggs of cave crickets. Centipedes, cave spiders, salamanders and cavefish feed on insects smaller than them. Some cave centipedes grow so large that they feed on bats.

owls eat mice.what do we call the mice?
A.prey
B.predators
C.nutrients

Answers

Answer:

A.prey

Explanation:

The owl would be called the predator because it is going after the mice. Therefore, the mice would be called prey. Mice are also nutrients but, nobody uses that word in this situation.

Answer:

Explanation:

LOL! I'm not taking your question lightly. I think the answer you want is Prey. However, from the Owl's point of view, probably you could answer nutrients. Mice are not predators.  Mice are in the middle of the Food Chain. Grass or grains are on the bottom and the Owl is on top.

Thank you for the question.

Conscientiousness is a human trait that internalizes True or False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Conscientiousness is a human trait that internalizes.

What are the two lengths that all ellipses have (all planets)?


A. Conic and isoconic length

B. X and Y axes

C. Horizontal and vertical length

D. Minor and major axes

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

The major axis is usually the longest diameter of the eclipse while the minor axis is the shortest. It  is important to note that the axes have to pass through the center of the eclipse. In a circle, the two axes are usually of equal length.

The two lengths every ellipse has are the major and minor axes, with the major axis being the longest diameter and the minor axis being the shortest. The semi-major and semi-minor axes represent half of their respective full axes. The correct option is D.

The two lengths that all ellipses have are referred to as the major and minor axes. The major axis is the longest diameter of the ellipse and spans the full width from one side to the other, going through the center. The minor axis is the shortest diameter of the ellipse, also passing through the center, perpendicular to the major axis. Half of the major axis is known as the semi-major axis, while half of the minor axis is called the semi-minor axis. The semi-major axis is often used to specify the size of the ellipse, such as in the context of planetary orbits. For example, the semi-major axis of Mars' orbit is 228 million kilometers, which represents the average distance from Mars to the Sun.

Which correctly identifies the location of the asteroid belt?



Question 1 options:

A

B

C

Answers

Answer:

the correct choice is B

located roughly between the orbits of the planets Mars and Jupiter. It is occupied by numerous irregularly shaped bodies called asteroids or minor planets.

Answer:  B.

Explanation:

The Main asteroid belt in our Solar System is located  between the orbits of  Mars and Jupiter, therefore it is letter B the one that alludes to the location that better represents it graphically. Many asteroids shaped irregularly and also what is called minor planets is what this belt is made of.

A chromosomal mutation in which a segment is missing is called a deletion. True or false?

Answers

That would be true.

Deletion is when part of the chromosomes gets deleted(removed).

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Which of the following scenarios would prevent a population from being in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A. The population will fall out of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if natural resources such as food are limited.
B. The population mates at specific times of the year, causing the population to fall out of equilibrium at that time of year.
C. The population is stable, but younger generations of the population have a different allele frequency.
D. The population is evolving, and natural selection is favoring one allele over another.

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

One of the assumptions of the Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is that the population should not experience mutations. Mutations are usually the base on which natural selection acts by selecting the advantageous alleles and weeding out the disadvantageous ones. This is how populations evolve.

Other assumptions of this equilibrium are; there should be no migration (hence gene flow), the population is infinitely large, and mating is random.

Final answer:

The Hardy-Weinberg principle holds under specific conditions. Any scenario causing evolution, such as natural selection favoring a specific allele, will prevent a population from maintaining the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

Explanation:

The Hardy-Weinberg principle describes the conditions under which a population's genetic variation remains constant from one generation to the next. The populations that are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium should satisfy five assumptions: no mutation, random mating, no gene flow, infinite population size, and no selection. Out of the given options, the scenario which would prevent a population from being in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 'the population is evolving, and natural selection is favoring one allele over another'.

This scenario, also known as selection, violates the principle's assumption of no selection. If natural selection occurs, and certain alleles confer survival advantages leading to their increased future prevalence, the genetic makeup of the population will change. Hence, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium will be disturbed.

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The usefulness of microvilli to cells that have them is ___________________.
A.
to aid in their locomotion
B.
to help concentrate food particles
C.
for intracellular trafficking of molecules
D.
to increase their surface area
E.
None of the above

Answers

Answer:

D. to increase their surface area

Explanation:

The usefulness of microvilli to cells that have them is TO INCREASE THEIR SURFACE AREA.

Final answer:

Microvilli are essential for increasing the surface area of absorptive cells in the small intestine, enhancing nutrient absorption.

Explanation:

Micovilli are small projections found on absorptive cells that increase surface area and aid in the absorption of nutrients. For example, absorptive cells in the small intestine utilize microvilli to enhance their capability to absorb food efficiently.

The usefulness of microvilli to cells that have them is to increase their surface area. This increase in surface area is particularly important in the absorptive cells that line the small intestine, where it aids in the efficient absorption of food nutrients. Microvilli contribute to the digestion process by enlarging the surface over which nutrients can be absorbed, thus playing a critical role in ensuring that the body receives the necessary nutrients from the food we consume.

Gneiss goes through metamorphosis at a higher temperature than slate so it has a higher

Answers

Answer:

Grade of metamorphism

Explanation:

Gneiss forms at a higher grade of metamophic slate. Slate forms at low metamorphic conditions just about a few temperature and pressure.

From the prolith materials exposed to metamorphic conditions, transformations begins as metamorphic changes begins to take place. First, a sediment is transformed into slate, from slate to phyllite, from phyllite to schist, schist to gneiss, gneiss to migmatite and migmatite goes back to melt. These transformation of sediments is controlled by the nature of the prolith materials and the prevailing metamorphic conditions.

Gneiss has a higher metamorphic grade than slate, characterized by high-temperature and pressure conditions that lead to its unique banded texture, known as gneissic banding, and sometimes partial melting which can result in migmatite.

Gneiss undergoes metamorphism at a higher temperature than slate, so it has a higher metamorphic grade. This transformation indicates that the rock has been subject to more intense conditions, potentially including higher pressure in addition to temperature. As a result of this high-grade metamorphism, gneiss is characterized by its coarse, banded texture, known as gneissic banding, where silicate minerals separate into dark and light bands. Similar to the process that forms schist, the conditions for forming gneiss are so extreme that some partial melting may occur, with migmatite representing a transitional phase between metamorphic and igneous rocks.

The progression from slate to phyllite to schist and ultimately to gneiss represents an increasing degree of metamorphism, with visible changes in mineral composition and rock texture. Gneiss typically forms from the metamorphism of schists or granites and most gneisses form at higher temperatures than those that support the stability of minerals like micas found in slate or phyllite.

Celery kept in the refrigerator for several days becomes limp why does this happen

Answers

Answer:

Because celery has losen the cell turgidity.

Explanation:

Celery (Apium graveolens) belongs to the family Apiaceae, is a marshland plant. Celery is used as a salad and its extract is used fro the preparation of herbal medicine.

Celery when kept in refrigerator for several days becomes limp as celery lose its water content and become dehydrated. The cell turgidity has been lost and celery wilt.

Which of the following are advantages of endospores? Endospores reproduce more quickly and are more resistant to environmental toxins than vegetative cells. Endospores are more resistant to dry conditions and are more efficient at producing ATP than vegetative cells. Endospores reproduce more quickly and are more efficient at producing ATP than vegetative cells. Endospores are more resistant to dry conditions and are more resistant to environmental toxins than vegetative cells.

Answers

Answer:

B. Endospores are more resistant to dry conditions and are more efficient at producing ATP than vegetative cells.

D. Endospores are more resistant to dry conditions and are more resistant to environmental toxins than vegetative cells.

Endospores are highly resistant to dry conditions and environmental toxins, serving as a survival mechanism for bacteria in harsh environments. They do not focus on ATP production or reproduction while in their dormant state. Hence, the last option is correct.

Endospores serve as a survival mechanism, ensuring the bacterial genome can endure periods where conditions are not conducive for the active, metabolically functioning vegetative cell. They withstand a plethora of harsh environments including desiccation, chemical exposure, extreme temperatures, and even radiation. However, they are dormant and do not perform activities such as ATP production or reproduction during this state. When favorable conditions return, an endospore can germinate to become a vegetative cell.

In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and become full-fledged chromosomes that move to opposite poles.In anaphase, sister chromatids separate and become full-fledged chromosomes that move to opposite poles. In telophase chromosomes become less condensed and new nuclear envelopes form. In cytokinesis the cytoplasm divides.In telophase chromosomes become less condensed and new nuclear envelopes form. In cytokinesis the cytoplasm divides. Most of the cell's life is spent in interphase, when growth occurs. Cells that are about to divide replicate their DNA.Most of the cell's life is spent in interphase, when growth occurs. Cells that are about to divide replicate their DNA. In prophase microtubules form the mitotic spindle, and the nuclear envelope breaks up.In prophase microtubules form the mitotic spindle, and the nuclear envelope breaks up. At metaphase, the mitotic spindle is fully formed and chromosomes are lined up in the center of the cell.At metaphase, the mitotic spindle is fully formed and chromosomes are lined up in the center of the cell.

Answers

Answer:

Good Job

Explanation:

A geologist determines that a sample of a mineral can't be scratched by a steel nail but can be scratched by a masonry drill bit. Based on this information, the sample mineral has to be softer than A. orthoclase. B. corundum. C. fluorite. D. apatite.

Answers

Answer:

B. Corundum

Explanation:

Using the Mohs scale of hardness, the mineral has a hardness greater than 6.5 (Steel nail) but less than 8.5 (Drill bit). The corundum has a hardness of 9.0, which means it cannot be scratched by a drill bit, but all the other choices have a hardness scale less than 6.5 but the mineral was not scratched by the nail. So the best answer would be B.

Based on the given information,corundum is a  mineral that can't be scratched by a steel nail but can be scratched by a masonry drill bit.The correct option is B.

Minerals are defined as a chemical compound which has a well -defined composition and possesses a specific crystal structure.It occurs naturally in the pure form.

If a compound occurs naturally in different crystal structure then each structure is considered as a different mineral.The chemical composition of a mineral varies depending on the presence of small impurities which are present in small quantities.

Using the Mohs scale of hardness, mineral hardness is determined.The hardness of steel nail is 6.5 and that of drill bit is 8.5 . The corundum has a hardness of 9.0, which means it cannot be scratched by a drill bit, but all the other choices have a hardness scale less than 6.5 but the mineral was not scratched by the nail.

Thus, option B is correct.

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The first heart sound is made by...
A) blood moving to the atria
B) blood moving to the ventricles
C) opening of the valve between the atria and the ventricles
D) closing of the valve between the atria and the ventricles

Answers

Answer is D.

Heart sounds are made by valves closing. As the ventricles contract during systole, the pressure in them eventually exceeds that in the atria. This causes the atrioventricular caves to close (they remain open only when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure). This is the first heart sound.

The second heart sound occurs when the semilunar valves close at the beginning of diastole. Again it’s a question of pressure gradients. When the ventricles stop contracting, the pressure in the tube they connect to (pulmonary trunk or aorta) eventually exceeds the ventricular pressure and caused the semilunar valves to close.
Final answer:

The first heart sound, known as 'lub', is caused by the closure of the atrioventricular valves to prevent backflow of blood after the atria contracted to push blood into the ventricles. Therefore, the correct option is D.

Explanation:

The first heart sound, often referred to as 'lub', is caused by the closing of the valve between the atria and the ventricles. During the first phase of the cardiac cycle, the atria contract and push blood into the ventricles. After this, the valves close to prevent the backflow of blood which causes the first heart sound. This means that option D is the correct answer to your question.

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What is the role of DNA helicase during DNA replication? A. To unwind the duplex DNA B. To attach primers to the replicating strands C. To add bases in the sugar-phosphate backbone

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

DNA Helicase 1)unwinds and 2)unzips the double stranded DNA molecule by breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary nitrogenous bases.

Primase catalyses the addition of primers to DNA to provide a 3'-OH group that DNA polymerase can add free deoxyribonucleotides (or deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate) to elongate the primers during DNA replication.

DNA polymerase catalyses the addition of free DNA nucleotides to complementary bases and catalyses the formation of phosphodiester bonds between 3'-OH group of a DNA nucleotide and 5'-phosphate group of another DNA nucleotide.

One brief stimulus of a skeletal muscle may result in a single isolated contractile event, which is called a twitch. One twitch can generate max tension in a muscle. Are these statements true or false?

Answers

Answer:

These statements are true.

False. A muscle twitch is a response to a single stimulus and consists of a latent period, contraction, and relaxation phase. However, one twitch does not produce maximal tension.

The statements in the question are partially true and partially false. A single brief stimulus of a skeletal muscle can indeed result in a single isolated contractile event known as a muscle twitch. However, it is not true that one twitch can generate maximum tension in a muscle. A muscle twitch has three phases: a latent period, a contraction phase, and a relaxation phase. The tension produced by a single twitch can be measured but is not maximal. In order to achieve maximal tension, more motor units need to be stimulated, a process known as recruitment, which can lead to summation and tetanic contractions when stimuli occur frequently and rapidly.

A twitch occurs in response to a single stimulus and the tension produced can be affected by various factors, including the frequency of motor neuron stimulation. Multiple action potentials and an increased number of stimulated motor units are necessary to produce a sufficient amount of force for muscle contraction that can perform work.

Sea levels are rising due to climate change while increasing numbers of people are moving into coastal areas. To accommodate more people, there has been increased construction of beachfront resorts and condominiums. How is this impacting sea turtle numbers and biodiversity and why?

A. The increased human population in coastal areas has meant that more food is available to the turtles (e.g., dropped food, waste from restaurants), which has led to an increase in the numbers and diversity of sea turtles.
B. There has been very little change in the numbers and biodiversity of sea turtles because the planet is so vast that they can simply relocate to less crowded beaches.
C. This has resulted in a decrease in numbers and diversity of sea turtles because it is restricting available nesting sites, and hence reproduction.
D. This has resulted in an increase in numbers and diversity of sea turtles because people are around to protect them from natural predators.

Answers

Answer:C

Explanation:

Answer:

C. This has resulted in a decrease in numbers and diversity of sea turtles because it is restricting available nesting sites, and hence reproduction.

Explanation:

Climate change has become an increasing threat to all species across the planet. The adverse effects of the changing climate are transferred to the ocean, where the temperature of the sea surface is increasing and rising sea level can change the marine ecosystem at many levels.

And sea turtles in one species that is affected much by this climate change. Since the sea turtles lays their eggs on the sand beach and spend rest of their lives in the ocean, climate change is affecting their life on both the sea and the ocean.

As given in the question that there is a rise in the sea level due to climatic change while there is an increase in the numbers of people moving into the coastal areas. To accommodate these people, there has been increased construction of beachfront resorts and condominiums. But this will lead to less availability of beach sand for the sea turtle for breeding and to lay eggs. Thus there is a decrease in the number of the these species.

In the biosphere, what acquires carbon present in the atmosphere

Answers

Answer:

Plants.

Explanation:

Plants(namely, trees) absorb the carbon from the atmosphere and stores it within thenselves.

Answer:

The correct answer would be - Autotrophs or green plants.

Explanation:

Terrestrial autotrophs in the terrestrial biosphere capture the carbon present in the atmosphere in the form of the carbon dioxide directly to perform the photosynthetic process from the air. On the other hand, the marine biosphere the marine autotrophs obtain carbon from the water in the dissolved form of carbonic acid.

The autotrophs or the green plants present in both biosphere incorporated the carbon from the atmosphere into the biosphere.

Thus, the correct answer is - autotrophs or green plants.

How are endocrine and exocrine glands different from each other?

Answers

Answer:

Endocrine, or ductless glands, while Exocrine glands are all ducted glands.

Explanation:

Endocrine glands secrete substances (like hormones) into blood without the use of ducts, whereas exocrine glands use ducts to secrete substances into the external environment.

Final answer:

Endocrine and exocrine glands are differentiated by how they release their secretions. Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream, whereas exocrine glands release their secretions through ducts onto epithelial surfaces.

Explanation:

The endocrine and exocrine glands are types of glands in the body's system that classified based on how they release their secretions in the body. Endocrine glands are referred to as 'ductless glands' because they release hormones directly into the bloodstream where they travel to target tissues. Examples of endocrine glands include, the pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands.

On other hand, Exocrine glands release their secretions through ducts onto epithelial surfaces, such as the skin or the lining of the stomach or intestines. Examples of exocrine glands include sweat, salivary, mammary glands and liver that releases bile.

In summary, the main difference between endocrine and exocrine glands is/how/ they release their secretions in the body.

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Christie's doctor recommends that she eat 40 grams of protein a day. She's already consumed 50% of her protein recommendation for the day. How many servings of the given snack should Christie have to meet her daily protein recommendation? A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6

Answers

I believe the answer is C. 4

Hope this helps.

The servings of the given snack should Christie have to meet her daily protein recommendation with C.4.

What is protein?

Large, intricate molecules known as proteins play a variety of vital functions in the body. They are crucial for the structure, operation, and control of the body's tissues and organs and carry out the majority of their job inside cells.

Numerous thousands of amino acids, which are smaller building blocks of proteins, are linked together in lengthy chains to form proteins. To create a protein, 20 distinct kinds of amino acids can be mixed.

Each protein's specific function and distinctive 3-dimensional structure are determined by the order of the amino acids. Combinations of three DNA building blocks (nucleotides), which are determined by the order of genes, are used to code for amino acids.

Therefore, The servings of the given snack should Christie have to meet her daily protein recommendation with C.4.

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What are the pros and cons of Quadrat Sampling?

Answers

PRO: Quadrats work well for observing changes to whole populations over time, including distribution patterns, nesting and overall health. Some study techniques do not work with quadrats, however. For example, capture-recapture techniques that allow researchers to study individual animals do not work with quadrats because even slow-moving animals can move out of the study boundaries between sample periods.

CON: Despite the relative ease of designing quadrat studies, it is possible to introduce errors into a project. Quadrats that are too large, too small or spaced inappropriately often result in errors. For example, larger species require larger plots. Randomly spaced quadrats that are too small might miss too many individuals, resulting in under-representative estimates of population size.

Answer:

Pros and Cons of Quad-rats sampling are as follow:

Explanation:

It is a series of squares or Quad-rats, generally, use as a tool for the study of ecology and especially biodiversity, In these series of squares which are equal in size placed in the habitat of interest with the species which they recognized and then record its data.

Pros of Quad-rats:

Random placement is fast.Good for substrate and large species.

Cons of Quad-rats:

can cause biased results.Difficult to assess the precision of estimate from one survey.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the process of sweating?
a. Sweating is more likely to occur on hot days than cool days.
b. Excessive sweating can lead to dehydration.
c. Sweating is likely to occur after strenuous exercise.
d. Evaporation of sweat warms the body.

Answers

Answer:

D.evaporation of sweats warm the body.

Explanation:

It doesn't warmed the body, it races the heart beat when a person is being actively moved or doing something with great strength.

Evaporation of sweat warms the body is not true about the process of sweating.

Explanation:  

The main function of sweat is to reduce the elevated body temperature which is more than the normal body temperature of human body that is 37.2 degree Celsius. The sweat glands present all over skin and when the temperature rises the sweat is released. As the sweat gets evaporated from skin surface, the skin becomes cool. The content of sweat includes water and some salts.

Excessive sweating can leads to dehydration during the summer. During exercise the temperature of the body increases due to which the sweat is released from the sweat glands.

What name is given to the process in which a strand of dna is used as a template for the manufacture of a strand of pre-mrna?

Answers

That is called Transcription

Hope this helps :)

That process would be transcription.

Creating new biofuels is an example of ____. A) white biotechnology B) red biotechnology C) blue biotechnology D) green biotechnology

Answers

Answer:

A. White biotechnology

Explanation:

White biotechnology is also known as industrial biotechnology. White biotechnology converts microorganisms and enzymes into industrial goods like chemicals, plastics, and energy supply.

Biofuel is fuel made up of organic matter and are mostly used for transportation. A good example would be ethanol which is mixed with petroleum. The mixture increases the combustion performance and decreases the carbon monoxide emmisions of the vehicle.

Other Questions
Need help with this math question According to jourard (1969), when are people most likely to give false answers to research questionnaires or interviews?a. people are most likely to lie when they don't trust the researcher.b. people tend to lie when there are a lot of questions.c. people are most likely to lie during oral interviews.d. people tend to lie most of the time when they answer research questions. PLEASE HELP The two parts of tRNA molecule that function in protein synthesis are ____.a. an anticodon and an amino acid b. its shape and sizec. its base pair sequence and its loops d. a start codon and a stop codon which symbol in the first law of thermodynamics represents the sum of the chemical and thermal energy stored in atoms and molecules?a. Qb.Wc.Vd.U The region under a standard normal curve less than z = 0.05 is shaded. What is the area of this region? Use your standard normal table. Enter your answer in the box. The radius of a sphere is increasing at a rate of 9 cm/ sec. Find the radius of the sphere when the volume and the radius of the sphere are increasing at the same numerical rate. The Eagle Club wants to build a chain of 2,505 dominoes. If they have already set up 807 dominoes, how many more do they need to add to meet their goal? the perimeter of a triangle below is 6a + 2b -5 units. write expression to represent the length in units , of the missing side of the triangle2a-3ba-3As are know sides. How often does the total volume of blood circulate through the system? Ralph and Patrick play on a basketball team. Ralph played the whole first quarter and the first 4 minutes of the second quarter. Patrick played the rest of the second quarter and all of the third quarter. Ralph played the whole fourth quarter. Each quarter is 10 minutes long. How long did Patrick play during the second quarter? Read the excerpt from Fast Food Nation. Instead of relying upon a small, stable, well-paid, and well-trained workforce, the fast food industry seeks out part-time, unskilled workers who are willing to accept low pay. Teenagers have been the perfect candidates for these jobs, not only because they are less expensive to hire than adults, but also because their youthful inexperience makes them easier to control.Which of the following choices best presents a counterclaim to the argument presented in this excerpt?Teenagers have not yet developed skills that make them valuable employees in the workforce.Fast food restaurants are able to employ people who otherwise might not be able to find a job because of the low skill level required to perform the tasks.The McDonald brothers designed the Speedee Service System based on the assembly line systems of American factories in the early twentieth century.By law, fast food restaurants must offer equal employment opportunities to those seeking work. Resumes are not necessary for creative industries such as culinary arts A space station shaped like a giant wheel has a radius of 151 m and a moment of inertia of 5.10 108 kg m2. A crew of 150 lives on the rim, and the station is rotating so that the crew experiences an apparent acceleration of 1g. When 100 people move to the center of the station for a union meeting, the angular speed changes. What apparent acceleration is experienced by the managers remaining at the rim? Assume that the average mass of each inhabitant is 65.0 kg. What object has no momentum?- a bird flying north- a car parked in a garage- a satellite orbiting Earth-a truck with constant speed _____ are surface appendages that allow a bacterium to stick to a surface.1. Ribosomes2. Mitochondria3. Fimbriae4. Flagella5. Cell walls What is the best inference a reader could make from this excerpt? Which word best describes the range of a function? input output independent relation Is abc~def? If so, identify the similarity postulate or theorem that applies. What is the value of x in the equation 3x -1/9y = 18, when y = 27?5745 63 What is the orbital period of a spacecraft in a low orbit near the surface of mars? The radius of mars is 3.4106m.