Answer:
3- phylogenetic study
Explanation:
Hope this help!!!!!
A - DNA as the inheritance materials B - RNA as the inheritance materials C - The formation of organic molecules, e.g. nucleic acids, from inorganic precursors
EXPLANATION:
There are 2 types of nucleic acids: DNA(deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA(ribonucleic acid).
Living organisms have their genetic material in their DNA. Viruses use RNA as their genetic material but are usually called non-living things( because they can't reproduce without help from a host).
The function of nucleic acids has a progression from DNA to RNA to proteins. This is called the central dogma of molecular biology.
Nucleic acids are formed by a linkage of polynucleotide chains with phosphodiester bonds. These polynucleotide chains are formed from monomers called NUCLEOTIDES.
A nucleotide is made up of 3 parts:
i) a nitrogenous base
ii) a five-carbon sugar
iii) at least one phosphate group.
Answer and Explanation:
DNA as the inheritance materials
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase state the DNA as genetic material. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the natural substance in humans and all other organisms. Every cell in a person's body contains the same DNA. Chromosomes are made up of nucleic acids and proteins and are called hereditary vehicles. ... DNA (deoxyribose nucleic acid) has been found to contain genetic material in all organisms.
RNA as the inheritance materials
• Wandell Stanley, in 1935 proved RNA as genetic material. RNA in humans does not act as genetic material but plays various other roles such as adapters, enzymes, helps in protein synthesis, etc. RNA functions as a messenger for the information to be transferred. The genetic material of organisms and many viruses is DNA. However, some viruses use an alternative type of nucleic acid, ribonucleic acid (RNA), as genetic material. ... RNA has excellent abilities as a genetic molecule; once has to continue the process of hereditary itself.
Nucleic acids
• First, nucleotide are activated, nucleic acid precursors. As such, they are needed for genome replication and transcription of genetic information into RNA. Second, the adenine nucleotide, ATP, is a universal energy currency. Nucleic acids are formed when nucleotide combine through phosphodiester bonds between 5 'and 3' carbon atoms.
________ are molecules that form the core structure of cell membranes and micelles.
A) Phospholipids
B) Triglycerides
C) Steroids
D) Saturated fatty acids
E) Eicosanoids
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Phospholipids are the molecules that form the core structure of cell membranes and micelles due to their unique hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties.
Explanation:Phospholipids are the molecules that form the core structure of cell membranes and micelles. Phospholipids consist of a glycerol molecule, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group. The fatty acid chains are hydrophobic (water-repelling) and face inwards, inside the boundary, forming a hydrophobic core, while the phosphate group is hydrophilic (water-attracting) and faces outside, towards the water environment. This 'lipid bilayer' structure is integral to forming cell membranes, and is also what allows micelles (small lipid molecules that are arranged in a spherical form in aqueous solutions) to form.
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Eukaryotes that are not closely related and that do not share many anatomical similarities can still be placed together on the same phylogenetic tree by comparing their ______.
A. homologous genes that are highly conserved
B. homologous genes that are poorly conserved
C. mitochondrial genomes
D. plasmids
Answer:
Homologous genes that are highly conserved.
Explanation:
Phylogenetic trees are diagrams that represent evolutionary relationship between organisms.
It is set to represent the hypothesis that a set of species evolved fro the same ancestor.
Anatomical similarities are considered in the construction of the trees.
However , two organisms can be placed in the same tree by comparing their genes.
If the two eukaryotes have genes that are highly conserved that similar.
A coastline on Earth experiences two high and two low tides of about the same height each day. What type of tide is cycling in this location?
Diurnal tides
Mixed dinural tides
Mixed semidiurnal tides
Semidiurnal tides
Semidiurnal tides occur when a coastline on Earth experiences two high and two low tides of about the same height each day.
Explanation:
If the earth did not have continental, then the predominantly tides would be diurnal tides. This means there would be one high and low tide at a point in the ocean. However, the presence of continents causes the tides to vary across coastal regions of different continents -mixed. This is because the ocean waters are not free-flowing with the moon’s and sun’s gravitational pull. The blockage by continentals to this flow causes mixed diurnal and mixed semi-diurnal tides. Mixed semi-diurnal tides have two high and low tides of unequal amplitudes on a lunar day.
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Answer:
D. Semidiurnal tides
Explanation:
Imagine you want to learn more about Mike Smith’s osteosarcoma. How could you use microarray technology to determine which genes have been affected in his tumor cells? What does it tell us if two genes show the same levels of expression in cancer cells and normal cells? What does it tell us if there are some genes that are highly expressed in normal cells but not expressed in cancer cells? What can a DNA microarray teach us about oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes? Use the information you learned from the DNA microarray to write an argument to convince smokers to stop smoking. Be sure to reference any differences you saw in gene expression in smokers and nonsmokers studied in the experiment.
Explanation:
DNA microarrays exploit the capacity of correlative strands of nucleic acids to base-pair with one another and bind. For instance, ATATGCGC will tie to its supplement (TATACGCG) with a specific liking. This strategy was first utilized by Sol Spiegelman to quantify the homology (closeness) of two different nucleic acids; Spiegelman called the technique "hybridization" of nucleic acids. Afterward, the designers of the DNA microarray specked a variety of DNA duplicates (cDNAs) relating to an enormous number of various mRNAs of known succession onto a glass slide. Since this exhibit was so minor, it was named a microarray We could utilize the microarray technology to see which genes his malignant growth cells have expanded, reduced, turned on, or killed. DNA microarrays can show us what befalls the oncogenes and tumor silencer genes to cause cancer in cells.Compare and contrast water sustainability practices in named drought area vs water-rich examples.
In simple terms, water can be defined as it is in the form of a liquid state and it is colorless and transparent and it is the basic and important needs for all the living organisms
Explanation:
Drought Area:Probably the drought water can be defined as the lack of water supply and the due to the rainfall shortage it results in drought and it will leads to the water scarcity problemEffects of drought:
And the effects of drought are listed below,
Economic effects- Economic effects in the sense, farmers will suffer a lot due to the water scarcity for their irrigation and the pieces of stuffSocial effects - Social effects in the sense, due to the drought people living in the drought region will suffer from drinking water issuesEnvironmental effects - Environmental effects in the sense, it determines the habitats especially in the forest region and it affects the soil moisture and the soil moisture will lead to issues2.Water-rich:
Water-rich can be stated as the clean and quality of water provided to all the living organisms for their basic and necessary needs
Merits:
Countries like Canada, United States, Brazil, and China have a tremendous amount of water and these countries come under water-rich countriesWater-rich countries have a proper distribution of water supplyLess chance for drought and water scarcity problemsBack-up of water is more and comfortableAnd the quality of ground water supply is higher compared to drought affected areasThis group of questions consists of five lettered headings followed by a list of phrases or sentences. For each phrase or sentence, select the one heading to which it is most closely related. Each heading may be used once, more than once, or not at all. This group of questions refers to the following enzymes. (A) DNA ligase (B) DNA polymerase (C) RNA polymerase (D) Restriction enzyme (E) Reverse transcriptase Enzyme used during replication to attach Okazaki fragments to each other
Answer:
A (DNA LIGASE)
Explanation:
Replication of DNA cannot occur without certain enzymes with varying functions. After unwinding of the DNA double-strand by helicase enzyme, DNA polymerase attaches itself and starts adding nucleotides, however, DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the 5'-3' direction. Since the separated strands run in an anti-parallel manner i.e. one runs from 5'-3' while the other from 3'-5'.
Nucleotides are continuously added to the leading strand (runs from 5'-3') since that is the normal direction of synthesis by DNA polymerase but because of the 3'-5' direction of the lagging strand, nucleotides are added in small fragments called OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS. As the polymerase acts on the leading strand, these okazaki fragments are made on the opposite strand (lagging strand).
An enzyme called DNA LIGASE is responsible for attaching from end to end, the small okazaki fragments on the lagging strand to one another.
DNA Ligase is the enzyme that connects Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, preserving the genetic information carried in the DNA.
Explanation:The enzyme responsible for connecting Okazaki fragments during DNA replication is DNA ligase. DNA ligase performs a critical task during replication, it seals the gaps between these Okazaki fragments to create one continuous DNA strand. This action maintains the integrity and continuity of the new DNA strands being synthesized, which is crucial for preserving the genetic information carried in the DNA.
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In a study of genetic variation of the Graceland gene, a researcher finds that there are two alleles in a population. In a large sample (500 individuals), the frequency of heterozygotes is 0.63. Is the population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 1. No. The highest frequency of heterozygotes under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 0.5.2. No. The frequency of each genotype would be equal if the population were in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.3. No. The frequency of heterozygotes would be 1 if the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. No. There would be no heterozygotes if the population were in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Answer:
Option 1, No. The highest frequency of heterozygotes under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is 0.5
Explanation:
As per Hardy Weinberg’s equilibrium principle, the maximum frequency of heterozytotic individuals occur only when half of the population is dominant and recessive homozygous.
In other way when the sum of frequency of dominant and recessive species is equal to 0.5, only then the frequency of heterozygotes is maximum which in any case would not be higher than 0.5.
Hence, option 1 is correct
1. __________ Completing tasks with correctness and attention to detail
2. ____________ A trait that results in complete, neat, and correct tasks
3. ____________ Sensitivity to other people's feelings and situations
4. ____________ A trait characterized by working independently and offering to help others
5. ____________ Recognition given by associations that an individual has met high standards and has demonstrated competency in given knowledge and tasks
6. ____________ Provides certification opportunities for medical transcriptionists
7. ____________ Believing that one's own race, ethnic group, and/or culture is superior to all other groups
8. ____________ The ability to speak and act considerately in various situations
9. ____________ Logically and systematically planning steps to accomplish a task
10. ____________ Finishing tasks on schedule, without complaining, and offering to assist others
Answer:
1. Accuracy
2. thoroughness
3. empathy
4. initiative
5. certification
6. AHDI (Association for Healthcare Documentation Integrity)
7. ethnocentrism
8. tact
9. problem-solving
10. dependability
Explanation:
1. Accuracy is the efficiency to complete a work with due diligence and micro checks at individual level
2. thoroughness is the ability to complete a work with accuracy, neatness and on time
3. empathy is the emotional intelligence that leads to sensing of others’ problem and situation
4. initiative is the first action taken by an individual on his/her own to change some thing
5. certification is the proof of excellence in any work.
6. AHDI (Association for Healthcare Documentation Integrity) is an association that provides medical certification
7. Ethnocentrism is the centric thought process of considering oneself greater than all in terms of social differences such as caste , creed, color etc
8. Tact is an aspect of an individual’s behaviour to act and speak efficiently irrespective of place, people and situation
9. problem-solving skill allows one to solve a problem strategically and step by step
10. dependability is the behavioral aspect of a person that makes him/her reliable and trustworthy
The student's question addresses personality traits, with a focus on conscientiousness, as defined by the Five Factor Model. Answers include conscientiousness, perfectionistic, agreeableness, and more, all of which relate to behaviors or characteristics associated with high conscientiousness.
Explanation:The student's question appears to be related to the study of personality traits, specifically the conscientiousness dimension from the Five Factor Model of personality. Here are the answers to the blanks based on the information provided:
Conscientiousness - Completing tasks with correctness and attention to detailPerfectionistic - A trait that results in complete, neat, and correct tasksAgreeableness - Sensitivity to other people's feelings and situationsSelf-discipline - A trait characterized by working independently and offering to help othersCertification - Recognition given by associations that an individual has met high standards and has demonstrated competency in given knowledge and tasksCannot be determined from the provided information - Provides certification opportunities for medical transcriptionistsEthnocentrism - Believing that one's own race, ethnic group, and/or culture is superior to all other groupsTactfulness - The ability to speak and act considerately in various situationsOrganized - Logically and systematically planning steps to accomplish a taskReliable - Finishing tasks on schedule, without complaining, and offering to assist others
Increasing muscle mass and decreasing fat content in your body can increase ones use of energy. Why is this?
Explanation:
Muscle tissue is metabolically more dynamic and burn a larger number of calories than fat tissue. The more muscles you have, the greater your resting energy expenditure, which implies that your body burns more calories while sitting idle
The ____ relies upon the unique magnetic properties of oxygen in the blood to form representations of the brain.
Answer: fMRI
Explanation:
fMRI stands for Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging. It is an imaging scan that helps to evaluate the activities of the brain through changes that occurs in line with the flow of blood, and this is because there is a connection between neuronal activation and blood flow in the cerebral. It must be noted that the rate of blood flow in a particular area of the brain increase when such part is under use.
18. The minimum average kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance occurs at which
temperature?
A. -273 K
B. OK
C. 0°c
D. 273 c
A. -273 K
Explanation:
The minimum average kinetic energy of the molecules in a substance occurs at the temperature of -273K.
This is the lowest of the given temperatures.
Average kinetic energy of the molecules of substances is directly proportional to their temperature. The lower the temperature of a body, the lower their average kinetic energy. Increasing temperature leads to more kinetic energy between molecules. Since -273K is the lowest temperature, then it shows the minimum average kinetic energy of the molecules.learn more:
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the answer i got for this question was wrong the right answer is 60°C if it's for k12 though
Explanation:
Ichthyostega is a 370-million-year-old fossil from Greenland. Ichthyostega had digits, eyes on the top of its head, and strong, armlike bones. It also had no gills and a reduced tail—traits it had in common with Tulerpeton. Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik all had gills and full tails. Use the abbreviations provided to draw a phylogenetic tree that includes Ichthyostega.
Ichthyostega and Tulerpeton, sharing common traits, are closely related and would be placed together on a branch of a phylogenetic tree. Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik, sharing different traits, would be grouped on another branch.
Explanation:The phylogenetic tree traces the evolutionary relationships of different species. The information provided implies that Ichthyostega, Tulerpeton, Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik are distinct species that can be represented on a phylogenetic tree.
Based on their shared traits, we can hypothesize that Ichthyostega and Tulerpeton are more closely related to each other than either is to Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, or Tiktaalik. Thus, Ichthyostega and Tulerpeton would be placed together on a branch of the phylogenetic tree, with a shared ancestor. Acanthostega, Eusthenopteron, and Tiktaalik, if they share common traits, would be grouped together on another branch of the tree.
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If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development?
Answer:
Option A, a drug to treat high blood pressure that reversibly inhibits an enzyme catalyzing production of a chemical that causes blood vessels to contract
Explanation:
The complete question is
If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development?
a) a drug to treat high blood pressure that reversibly inhibits an enzyme catalyzing production of a chemical that causes blood vessels to contract
b) a drug to treat diabetes that irreversibly inhibits an enzyme in the metabolic pathway to synthesize glucose
c) a compound that acts as a competitive inhibitor for a digestive enzyme produced only in the presence of certain foods
d) a compound that inhibits enzymes by significantly changing the ph throughout the body
Solution
Productive avenue of a drug simply means producing an drug that not only treats the main disease or disorder but also functions to inhibit the causative agent activity. In case of option A, both the objectives of producing drug are met and hence it is the right choice.
High blood pressure usually affects the blood vessels by narrowing them and in severe cases may rupture them. If a drug as stated in option A is produced, it will not only rectify the effects of high blood pressure but will also prevent the blood vessels from narrowing by inhibiting the activity of enzymes responsible for producing chemical that leads to blood vessel contraction.
Hence, option A is correct
Final answer:
In drug development, focusing on selective enzyme inhibitors and reversible enzyme inhibitors offers promising avenues due to their specificity, safety, and potential in treating a wide array of diseases by targeting specific metabolic pathways.
Explanation:
If you were working for a pharmaceutical company as part of a drug discovery team, which of these enzyme inhibitors would you suggest as a productive avenue for drug development? In the realm of drug development, focusing on enzyme inhibitors is a strategic approach due to their potential in treating a variety of diseases by targeting specific metabolic pathways. The key to selecting a productive enzyme inhibitor for drug development lies in understanding the enzyme's role in the human body, its relationship to diseases, and the specificity and safety of the inhibitor.
One highly promising avenue for drug development involves selective enzyme inhibitors. These are molecules designed to specifically inhibit the action of an enzyme that plays a critical role in the disease process without affecting other enzymes. This specificity is crucial for minimizing side effects and maximizing therapeutic efficacy. Examples include inhibitors targeting enzymes involved in cancer cell growth and proliferation, such as tyrosine kinase inhibitors used in certain types of cancer treatment.
Another productive path could be the development of reversible enzyme inhibitors, which temporarily inhibit enzyme action. This approach is valuable in conditions where a temporary modulation of enzyme activity is desired, providing a way to finely control physiological responses with potential applications in a wide array of diseases including hypertension, diabetes, and neurological disorders.
Ultimately, the choice of enzyme inhibitor depends on the disease target, the enzyme's biological importance, the inhibitor's selectivity, and its pharmacokinetic properties. Drug discovery teams must continually assess these factors to identify and develop the most effective and safe therapeutic agents.
When asked to remember life events, vivid memories from which age range are most likely to be reported?
Answer:
Ages that come five years from the age the person is now.
Explanation:
Ages that come five years from the age the person is now have more vivid memories in people.
For example, if the person has 20 years, he would remeber more cleary from when he was 15 years old to his current age.
This is because the brain retains more information from the previews experiences, having all that memories more vivid.
This happens in any age.
Answer:
10 to 30 years
Explanation:
Studies have shown that adults, the period from 10 to 30 years of age produces reminder of the most accounts of life, the clear and intense memories, and the most important memories.
The process by which cells secrete cellular products into the extracellular environment is ________.
Answer:
Exocytosis.
Hope this helps.
describe the 4 major subtypes of beta lactam antibiotics.
Answer
Better lactam antibiotics are antibiotics used in treatment of of severe infection caused by Bacteria.
Beta lactam antibiotics contain beta lactam ring in their molecular structure.
The major subtypes of Beta lactam antibiotics include : Penicillin, cephalosporins, monobactams and carbapenems.
Explanation:
Penicillin : 1) Bind to Penicillin binding sites (PBS)
2) they are vulnerable to The enzyme penicillinase and other b-lactamase
3 ) Penicillin occurs naturally and can also be synthesized
Cephalosporins : 1) they also bind to Penicillin binding sites too
2) just like penicillin, they are vulnerable to B-LACTAMASE, unlike penicillin, they are not vulnerable to penicillinase
Monobactams:
1) binds only to PBP3 but binds weakly to other BPPs
2) is resistant to B-LACTAMASE but is inactivated by ESBLs (Extended spectrum Beta lactamASE ).
Carbapenems :
1) They bind PBPs of most bacteria
2) they are resistant to most B- Lactamase
Cici has a colorblind father. Her mother is not colorblind and does not carry a gene for color blindness. What are the chances that she will be colorblind?
Answer:
The Genotype: Cc
Explanation:
On a punnet square if the dad carries the gene as a homozygous dominant trait that the would make his genotype: CC
For the mother, she would have hers as cc which would mean that the probability of her being colorblind is 1/2 so she would not be color blind
"Which of the following central nervous system cells regulate ions, regulate the uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier?
A. microglia
B. neuroglia
C. oligodendrocytes
D. astrocytes"
Answer:D. astrocytes
Explanation:
glial cell are any of several types of cell that function primarily to support neurons its divided into four groups namely oligodendrocytes,
astrocytes, microglia, and ependymal cells. The astrocytes plays a key role in regulating ions, uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier.
When helping a choking child, you should give ________. a. CPR b. Compressions c. Thrusts into the abdomen d. None of the above
Answer: The answer is C. Thrusts into the abdomen
Explanation: When a child is choking, it means an object is stuck in the trachea of that child. To help that child, wrap your arms around the child's waist above belly button while backing you and then pull inward and upward; thrusting up to five times. This will help to
squeeze the air out of the lungs and may dislodge the objects.
Also, you can give up to five blows at the back in between the shoulder blades. This help to create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway and consequently, dislodge the object.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a rare, autosomal, dominantly inherited disease of the teeth that occurs in about one in 8000 people (Witkop, 1957). The teeth are somewhat brown in color, and the crowns wear down rapidly. Assume that a male with dentinogenesis imperfecta and no family history of the disease marries a woman with normal teeth. What is the probability that: a.their first child will be a girl with dentinogenesis imperfecta?
Answer:
The answer is 25%.
Explanation:
Let's say that x represents the gene for the disease. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta is an autosomal dominant disease which means one must possess either a genotype of Xx, one dominant and one recessive, or XX, two dominant genes for the disease to be observed.
Since the individual has no history of the said disease, we can say that his genotype regarding the disease must be Xx which means it has a 50% chance of affecting the child.
The probability of their first child being a girl is 50% and the probability of the child inheriting the disease is also 50% so we can calculate that the probability of both of these conditions being true at the same time is 25%.
I hope this answer helps.
Roger has been lifting weights seriously for years. His twin brother Steven does not exercise regularly. Which of the following statements would be a reasonable hypothesis to make regarding differences between their skeletons?a. stevens hydroxyapatite combination is less than roger'sb. roger's skeleton underdoes less osteolysis than steven'sc. roger's osteoblasts are more active than steven'sd. all of the listed responses are correct
Answer:
a. stevens hydroxyapatite combination is less than roger's
b. roger's skeleton undergoes less osteolysis than steven's
c. roger's osteoblasts are more active than steven's
Explanation:
The hydroxyapatite combination includes the minerals of the apatite group like calcium apatite. As the exercise enhances the bone stability and prevents it's deformity thus the hydroxyapatite or mineral density is expected to be higher in Roger than Stevens.
The osteolysis is the pathological destruction of the bone tissues. As Roger does regular exercise he is expected to have achieved more immunity over Stevens. Thus Roger is prevented from oesteolysis.
The osteoblasts are the cells that secrete matrix for bone synthesis as the exercise is responsible for strengthening the bone the osteoblasts in person who do regular exercise are expected to be more active. Thus Roger's osteoblasts are more active then Steven's.
Final answer:
Roger's regular weight-lifting likely results in more active osteoblasts compared to his sedentary twin Steven, which would contribute to a denser and stronger skeleton. This is consistent with the understanding that resistance training increases bone density and strength.
Explanation:
The question concerns the impact of physical activity on skeletal health. When comparing Roger, who lifts weights regularly, to his twin brother Steven, who is not as active, one can hypothesize that Roger's osteoblasts are more active due to the stimulus provided by regular resistance training. This increased activity promotes the deposition of bone tissue, which can lead to a denser and stronger skeleton in Roger compared to Steven.
Therefore, the most reasonable hypothesis from the given options is c. Roger's osteoblasts are more active than Steven's. This is consistent with the idea that regular weight-bearing exercise, like lifting weights, stimulates bone growth and density, a process that is less pronounced in sedentary individuals.
Furthermore, consistent with the hypotheses presented, a right-handed pitcher and a right-handed cyclist will likely have thicker bones in their dominant arm and leg respectively, and a broken bone typically heals to be thicker. In contrast, bedridden patients may experience bone thinning due to lack of activity.
Sergei Winogradsky Choose one: A. identified microbes using biotechnology. B. developed a pure culturing system using agar. C. discovered microbial fermentation. D. discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments.
Answer:
D. discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments.
Explanation:
Sergei Winogradsky is a Microbiologist, an Ecologist and a soil scientist from Russia who discovered chemolithotrophy mode of nutrition while studying a particular genus of bacteria.
He found that the bacteria genus had the ability to oxidize hydrogen sulfide with deposition of sulfur.
Which is not a guideline for avoiding hip dislocation after replacement surgery. A. The hip may be flexed to put on clothing such as pants, stockings, socks, or shoes. B. Never cross the legs when seated. C. Keep the knees apart at all times. D. Put a pillow between the legs when sleeping.
Answer: (A) The hip may be flexed to put on clothing such as pants, stockings, socks, or shoes.
Explanation: To avoid hip dislocation after replacement surgery. important guidelines should be communicated to the patient by the medical consultant.
Examples of important guidelines include:
1. patient should not flexed his or her hip to put on clothing such as pants, stockings, socks, or shoes.
2. ensuring that the patient keep his or her knees apart at all times to avoid secondary dislocation;
3. patient should apply pillow between the legs when sleeping;
4. patient should never cross the legs when seated;
5. The medical consultant should instruct the patient to limit hip flexion to 90 degrees when he or she sits and etc.
Which is the strip of brain matter near the front of the parietal lobe that is involved in receiving information from the senses?
Answer:
Somatosensory cortex strip
Explanation:
The parietal lobe is the lobe of the brain preset just behind the frontal lobe and is involved in the sensory perception.
The sensory perception in parietal lobe takes place in the somatosensory cortex which receives the signals from the senses.
The somatosensory cortex is organised in a similar spatial arrangement in the brain as in the body and forms a strip of the sensory cortex.
Thus, Somatosensory cortex strip is the correct answer.
A thoracic motion segment contains the fibrous joint between the intervertebral disc and vertebral bodies, 2 intervertebral facet joints, 4 costo-vertebral facet joints, 2 costo-transverse facet joints, the ligaments of those joints.A.True
B.False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The thoracic spine is the second segment of the vertebral column, located between the cervical and lumbar vertebral segments. It consists of twelve vertebrae, which are separated by intervertebral discs.
Along with the sternum and ribs, the thoracic spine forms part of the thoracic cage. This bony structure helps protect the internal viscera – such as the heart, lungs and oesophagus.
This article will look at the osteology of the thoracic vertebrae, examining their characteristic features, joints and clinical correlations.
Cell diffusion is not particularly limited by molecular distribution. The rate considers the external temperature, distance to travel, time, solute’s mass, solvent’s density, and possible imperfections to the membrane. Although the investigation will involve passive transport, it is important to note, within a cell, there are various forms of selectivity. The plasma membrane’s interior, exterior, protein channels, and amphiphilic nature all limit what molecules would enter the cell and how much. Understanding both active and passive transport occur simultaneously enforces molecular transportation to be complex.
Movement of molecules across the cell membrane occurs by diffusion, active or passive transport.
Explanation:
Cell membrane are specifically penetrable, controlling which substances can go through, just as the amount of every substance can enter or exit at a given time. Specific permeability is fundamental to cells' capacity to get supplements, take out wastes, and keep up a steady inside condition unique in relation to that of the environment (homeostasis). Passive transport doesn't require the cell to consume any ATP and includes a substance diffusing down its concentration gradient across its membrane. In active transport, molecules cross the membrane using ATP.
A young adult college student begins to throw objects, shout insults, and stamp his feet after an instructor returned work, noting that it was substandard. Using Erikson's theory of personality development, which developmental stage has this individual been unsuccessful in mastering? 1. Initiative versus guilt 2. Industry versus inferiority 3. Identity versus role confusion 4. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
Answer:
Option 4. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt is correct answer.
Explanation:
Erik Erickson presented theory of personality development which is very popular and acceptable. He divided his theory into 8 sages each having 2 components. I have attached an info graph explaining clearly each stage.
describe a test to assess the function of the olfactory nerve. why are we not doing that in our lab?
Answer:
The olfactory nerve is involved in conveying the sensory information of the smell. This is the first cranial nerve of the body. This nerve enter in the brain cribriform plate.
The function of the olfactory nerve can be tested by closing the eye of the individual and tell them to close their one nostril. The sample for smelling is put their nose and tell them to tell about the smell of object. This test is further repeated with the second nostril. If the individual identifies the correct smell, it means his olfactory nerve is working properly. This test cannot be done in the lab due to the hygiene problem and some substance can be allergic for the different individual.
Answer: The olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve which conveys the sensory information related to the smell.
The receptors are nasal mucosa and forebrain. The test to access the function of olfactory nerve has to be performed at a place which is free from any type of smell.
It should be clean and free from any type of smell. In this case the person is taken to a place which is clean and dry.
He is told that the test is being performed on him. He is being exposed to different smells such as vanilla, lemon which is not that strong.
Then person has to recognize the smell of different flavors if he is able to recognize the smell correctly then his olfactory is working correctly.
Hiking along a remote trail, Chen surprises a mother bear with her cubs. Chen's pupils dilate, his breathing rate increases, and his heart rate soars. Which part of the nervous system is MOST involved in this process?
Answer:
the sympathetic division of autonomic nervous system.
Explanation:
When the person experiences any stress or emergency conditions, the sympathetic division is activated. It triggers the release of stress hormones from the adrenal medulla. There is a series of physiological events called flight or fight response. It includes an increased breathing rate and increased heart rate to supply the extra oxygen as required under these conditions. The blood vessels supplying the blood to skeletal muscles are dilated and the pupils are dilated. All these responses prepare the person for emergency conditions such as facing a wild animal.
Final answer:
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for Chen's fight-or-flight response, preparing his body to confront or escape the threat posed by the bear.
Explanation:
When Chen surprises a mother bear with her cubs and experiences a rapid physiological reaction, the part of the nervous system most involved in this process is the sympathetic nervous system. This system is activated during high-arousal, stressful situations and is responsible for the fight-or-flight response, preparing the body to either face a threat or escape to safety. The release of adrenaline and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) from the adrenal glands leads to a series of changes: pupil dilation, increased heart and breathing rates, perspiration, and tensing of muscles. The sympathetic nervous system effectively tells the body to "go, go, go," enabling rapid response to the perceived danger.