Answer:
A. Lodging is included in his income.
B. He may exclude meals from his income.
C. The fuel used to power the boat is excluded from his income.
D. b & c are correct, not a (correct).
E. All are correct.
Explanation:
Since Anthony is doing a job in the field, he is most likely getting extra benefits because of his day and night at the workplace. So, lodging definitely should not be included in his income rather it will come as a benefit.
Similarly, it is also possible that he gets meal benefits as well. Further, fuel used to power the boat should come from the company's expenses and not from his pocket so it should be excluded from his income too.
Therefore, both B and C options are correct.
Anthony, a marine biologist, spends months living on a boat in the ocean studying the impact of runoff water a hundred miles off the coast.
Explanation:The most accurate statement pertaining to the task of Anthony, a marine biologist, would be that he spends time in the ocean investigating the effects of runoff water. This line of work focuses on studying what happens when water from the land, carrying various substances, reaches the ocean. Anthony's research is conducted hundred miles off the coast. Through his work, he is able to contribute to our understanding of how runoff water impacts marine ecosystems.
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Fresh foods lose nutritive value and spoil over time. People in urban areas often live far from the farms where fresh foods are grown. As a result, they can have a hard time accessing nutritious foods. Community gardens in high-density urban areas offer a solution to this problem, in that they allow people to grow their own fresh produce.
Which part of this problem would community gardens most likely solve?
A. Financial cost
B. Aesthetics
C. Safety
D. Public health
Answer:
Community garden would solve the "public health" problem
Explanation:
Community garden is a land where different fruits, vegetables and other plants are grown in shared land so as to meet the kitchen requirement. In the community garden people work combinedly in order to make a beautiful as well as productive space. Community garden idea allows people to interact with neighbors and can spend some time outdoor, able to make new friends in the colony and it can help in maintaining the mental and public health.
Answer:
public health
Explanation:
just finished the test on ap.ex
Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and has been tested for ADHD. A school psychologist suggests that Austin's hyperactivity might reflect the influence of some prenatal substance that did not affect his physical development, but instead influenced the development of his brain. Austin might be showing the effects of behavioral _____ that his mother ingested while he was in the womb.
Answer:
teratogens
Explanation:
The factors or any of the agent that can cause malformations in the development of the embryo are termed as teratogens. Behavioural teratogens are the ones that can cause harm to the development of the brain at the prenatal stage due to which the intellectual ability and the emotional functioning of the child can be affected in the future. The time the effect shows up in the future depends on the stage of the embryo/foetus development at which the child got exposed to the teratogen. In the given situation Austin is suffering from ADHD and hyperactivity that reflects a faulty brain development due to the exposure of teratogens that his mother consumed while he was conceived.Final answer:
Austin's hyperactivity may be due to prenatal exposure to teratogens like nicotine, which can lead to developmental issues such as ADHD, with factors like maternal stress also playing a role.
Explanation:
Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and might be showing the effects of behavioral teratogens that his mother ingested while he was in the womb. Teratogens are agents, like chemicals or viruses, that can cause harm to the developing fetus, leading to birth defects or developmental issues such as ADHD. Research has demonstrated that certain substances consumed during pregnancy can have significant impacts on child behavior and development. Notably, exposure to nicotine from cigarette smoke and maternal stress are associated with an increased risk of ADHD symptoms in children. Additionally, environmental toxins and factors such as lead exposure and high levels of prenatal stress from adverse life events are linked to ADHD. However, several misconceptions about ADHD's causes, including sugar intake, food allergies, and poor parenting, have been debunked through research.
A student observed a stained specimen of bacteria using bright-field microscopy. At 100x magnification, there appeared to be only one cell in the field of view, but at 1000x it was clear that there were two cells close together. The ability to distinguish these two cells as separate entities is called __________. View Available Hint(s) A student observed a stained specimen of bacteria using bright-field microscopy. At 100x magnification, there appeared to be only one cell in the field of view, but at 1000x it was clear that there were two cells close together. The ability to distinguish these two cells as separate entities is called __________. A.wavelength B.cell division C.resolution D.magnification
Answer:
Resolution (C)
Explanation:
The ability of a microscope to distinguish between two separate points is known as resolution. if a microscope is focused at two separate points. but can only see them as a point then the microscope can not resolve or give details of the two points.Hence it has poor magnification. Thus the greater the amount of details of object showed by the microscope the higher the resolution e.g light microscope with resolution of 200nm. can not separate or resolve specimens where the distance of separations is more than 200nm. The reason fro this is that:
the limit of resolution is one-half of the wavelength of light of the microscope used to view it, if a specimen is smaller than half of the radiation used to view it then it can not be resolved by the microscope.
For example from last paragraph, the resolution of light microscope is 200nm, because the shortest wavelength of visible light is 400 nm, thus any specimens that is closer together than half of 400nm that is (200nm) can not be resolved by light microscope.
Electron microscopes have higher resolution than light microscope because they makes use of electrons instead of light. Electrons have grater wavelength therefore more energy,
and
they are negatively charged so they can easily be used to focus on an object by deflection of beam of electrons with magnetic in electromagnets component of the microscope for alerting the resolution.
With these features of electrons two types of electron microscope are the the scanning and transmission electron microscope
.Electron microscopes have resolution close to 0,5nm, hundred times grater than the light microscope because of the electron features.
Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.)
Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.
a. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
b. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis Il. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis lI
d. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis !, and remains haploid in meiosisI.
e. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis I
Answer:
c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.
Explanation:
Anaphase-I of meiosis-I includes the movement of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles of the cell. This even reduces the chromosome number to half in the daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I. Therefore, diploid cells become haploid by the end of meiosis-I. Since chromosomes carry DNA, a reduction in chromosome number also reduces the DNA content of the cells to half in meiosis-I.
Anaphase-II in meiosis-II separates the sister chromatids of each chromosome from each other. These sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell. This event further reduces the DNA content of the cell to half but the chromosome numbers are maintained.
Therefore, a cell with 2C DNA and 2n (diploid) chromosomes form two daughter cells having "C" DNA and "n" chromosomes by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in each of these daughter cells would form a total of 4 daughter cells each having "n" chromosomes and "C" DNA content.
The DNA content is reduced by half in meiosis I and remains the same in meiosis II. The ploidy level remains the same in meiosis I and is reduced by half in meiosis II.
Explanation:Cellular DNA content and ploidy levels during meiosis I and meiosis II:During meiosis I, the DNA content is reduced by half, while the ploidy level remains the same. This is because homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in the formation of two haploid cells. In meiosis II, the DNA content remains the same, but the ploidy level is reduced to half. This is because sister chromatids separate, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells.
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Salvador would like to take a paternity test to determine if he is Pilar’s father. He asks Pilar’s mother, Antonia, to provide DNA samples for both her and Pilar. Which technique will most likely be used to compare the three DNA samples?
Answer:
d. Autoradiographies
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the technique that is mainly used for this are Autoradiographies. This is a technique that is mostly used for X- ray film to visualize molecules or fragments of molecules that have been radioactively but are also used for analyzing the length and number of DNA fragments using a special method called gel electrophoresis which is then used to compare the various DNA samples.
When you sneeze, air is forcefully exhaled from your nose. As the air exits the nose, what is the last structure the air will pass through?
The last structure the air will pass through will be External nares
Explanation:
The upper portion of the respiratory tract is the nasal cavity and the nose. The external nose forms the first and foremost respiratory tract area. Nose is the major part that is responsible in exchanging air with the atmosphere. It is responsible for the human survival.
There are two openings in a nose. These are called as nostrils. They are also called as exterior nares. The air from the atmosphere when inhaled it enters into the nostril. from there is is sent to the nasal cavity. Nasal cavity is the place where the air that is inhaled will be purified and it is transported to various human parts. thus, when air contains any dust or impurities it will make you to sneeze thereby the air gets out of the nose through External nares
Natural selection suggests that creatures with mutations disadvantageous to survival will not live to reproduce, yet there are examples, such as albino animals, found occasionally. Do these exceptions discredit natural selection? Explain your answer.
Answer: No
Explanation: It is beneficial if the animals that are disadvantageous doesn't reproduce so it doesn't discredit natural selection. The traits in which variation is occured are more suitable for organism to live and reproduce in the environment are preserved and are passed from generation to generation.
However, natural selection effects limited number of progeny.
Answer: These types of exceptions do NOT discredit natural selection.
Explanation: Natural selection is based on the odds that certain traits will not adapt well in certain environments and ecosystems. It recognizes that organisms with mutations may be disadvantageous or not since the mutation is non-specific. In instances such as albinoism, the mutation is more likely to be disadvantageous though in some environments (like the desert) it could be a benefit. Natural selection is not an exact science or absolute rule, it is based on probabilities and variations, so exceptions will always exist.
The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, what do all of these organisms represent?
Answer:
A community
Explanation:
In ecology, a community is used to describe a group of organisms of different species populations that live and interact together at a particular time in a common habitat or ecosystem.
The two cardinals, colony of ants, a wasp’s nest, two squirrels, and the millions of bacteria represent a community of different organisms dwelling at the backyard tree.
The organisms living in the tree represent a biological community. This is an ecological concept that refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other.
Explanation:The tree in your backyard with its inhabitants - two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria - together represent a biological community. A biological community, in ecological terms, refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other. The tree provides a habitat for various organisms and their interactions make up the biological community. For instance, the cardinals may eat the ants, while the bacteria may break down fallen leaves from the tree, contributing to nutrient cycling.
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The enacting of right-to-die legislation by a state government will become an environmental ______ for hospitals and doctors in that state
Answer: Environmental force
Explanation:
Environmental force in medicine are external force which cannot be controlled by the medical practitioners.
Government enactment (right-to-die) can be either economic or social influence on the medical practitioners and punishment can be awarded when there is no compliance.
A researcher asks participants to identify red shapes presented on a video screen. Following this, novel objects of various colors are depicted on the screen. Participants correctly identify red objects more quickly than objects of a different color. The result illustrates:
Answer:
Priming
Explanation:
Priming is a technique where exposure to one thing can alter behavior or thoughts. This occurs by exposure to a stimuli influences the response of a subsequent stimuli.
The participants were asked to identify red object on a video screen therefore when shown new objects of various colors on the screen it was easier for them to identify red objects. It is due to initial exposure of stimuli to red color that leads to subsequent stimuli to recognize red more easily.
Part A - Identifying X-linked inheritance in pedigrees
You are investigating the inheritance of two rare conditions (A and B) in an extended family of thoroughbred racehorses. You have constructed the following pedigree for these conditions.
Identify the inheritance mode of each condition by using the labels to complete the table. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Condition A Inheritance Mode: _____________________ ?
Condition B Inheritance Mode: _____________________ ?
PICK ANSWER FROM THESE CHOICES:
A) Autosomal Dominant
B) X-linked Dominant
C) X-linked Recessive
D) Autosomal Recessive
Sex-linked inheritance refers to genes linked to the sexual chromosomes, while autosomal inheritance refers to genes placed in autosomal chromosomes. Condition A: Option D / Condition B: Option C
--------------------------
According to the pedigree, we can assume that
Condition A Inheritance Mode is Autosomal RecessiveCondition B Inheritance Mode is X-linked RecessiveLet us first remember a few concepts,
Sex-linked ⇒ Refers to the gene that is linked to one of the sex chromosomes. In general, genes are linked to the X chromosome.
Autosomal ⇒ These genes affect men and women equally because they are located on autosomal chromosomes.
Also, remember that in a pedigree,
Circles represent women or females.Squares represent men or males. Empty symbols are healthy or not affected individuals.Solid symbols represent affected individuals.Each individual can be represented with a letter o a number.Generations are represented with roman numbers.Now, let us analyze each condition
Condition A.
This condition appears only in the female II-6. This female has two brothers, both of them not expressing the condition. Their parents do not express the condition either.If the condition was dominant, at least one of the parents should be heter0zyg0us expressing it. So we can assume that the condition is recessive and that female II6 is h0m0zyg0us recessive for that trait.
If the gene coding for this condition was sex-linked, then the mother of woman II6 should be heter0zyg0us, and the father should be affected.
The fact that individuals I-3 and I-4 (father and mother) do not express the condition, and only individual 6 does, suggests that the gene coding for this trait is autosomal recessive.
Both parents must be heter0zyg0us for the trait, the brothers might be either h0m0zyg0us dominant or heter0zyg0us, and the affected woman is h0m0zyg0us recessive.
So let us make a short cross:
Cross) man I-3 x woman I-4
Parentals) Aa x Aa
Gametes) A a A a
Punnett square) A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
F1) 3/4 AA + Aa ⇒ individuals II-5 and II-7
1/4 aa ⇒ individual II-6
According to this analysis, Condition A Inheritance Mode is Autosomal Recessive (Option D).
Condition B.
This condition appears in individuals I-2, III-1, III-3, and IV-2.All the other individuals do not express the condition.The fact that the condition is mostly affecting men, excepting for individual
IV-2, suggests that the gene coding for this trait could be sex-linked.
If it was dominant, at least one of the individuals II-1 and II-2 should carry the dominant allele and should express the trait.
The fact that these individuals do not express the trait, but their III-1 son does, suggests that this is a recessive trait.
According to this analysis, Condition B Inheritance Mode is X-linked Recessive (Option C).
------------------------------------
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Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism's physiology because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues in an endocrine axis and within the second messenger systems of individual cells.truefalse
Answer: True,
Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues due to the second messenger systems.
explanation:
Second messemgers are the intracellular molecules which are activated by the extracellular molecules. Second messengers intracellulary triggers physiological changes such as proliferation differentiation migration etc.
When hormones are released they bind to specific receptors such as G-coupled recptors,tyrosine recpetor which when activated further activates second messengers such as cAMP and STAT respectively.
These second messengers amplify the hormone secretion and production by phosphorylation and increasing transcription.
Hence this is true that second messnegers amplify the hormones and their physiological results.
You identify a rare purple plumed parrot. When you cross the parrot to a true breeding white parrot, you get ½ white and ½ purple parrots. When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. Which of the following best explains this result?a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state.b. White is dominant to purple.c. The white allele is lethal in the homozygous state.d. The purple allele is lethal in the heterozygous state.
Answer:
a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state
Explanation:
You cross a purple parrot with a true breeding (homozygous) white parrot and you get 1/2 purple parrots and 1/2 white parrots. This result can only happen if the purple parrot is heterozygous and the white parrot is homozygous recessive (if any of the parents had been homozygous dominant, 100% of the offspring would have had the dominant phenotype).
Then: Pp (purple) X pp (white) ---> 1/2 Pp, 1/2 pp
When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. The 2:1 phenotypic ratio is typical of a lethal allele in the homozygous state.
In a cross of two purple parrots: Pp
X Pp, one would expect the genotypic ratios 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1pp and the phenotypic ratios 3 Purple : 1 white.
But the PP genotype is lethal, so those individuals die and the only purple parrots we see are the heterozygous ones.
Final answer:
The best explanation for the observed 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots when two purple parrots are crossed is that the white allele is lethal in the homozygous state, causing the absence of white homozygous offspring.
Explanation:
The crossing of the rare purple plumed parrot with a true breeding white parrot yielding 50% white and 50% purple parrots indicates that purple is a dominant trait while white is recessive. This is further supported by the second cross between two purple parrots yielding 1/3 white and 2/3 purple parrots, which suggests that white allele is lethal in the homozygous state. When heterozygous parents with the lethal allele are crossed, we would expect a 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots because the white homozygous (recessive lethal) parrots do not survive.
With incomplete dominance a likely ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation resulting from a monohybrid cross between two true-breeding parents would be?a) 1:2:1b) 3:3c) 3:1d) 9:3:3:1e) 1:2:2:4
Answer:
A) 1:2:1
Explanation:
Incomplete dominance is an effect observed in the organisms in which the neither of the two alleles controlling a trait is dominant or recessive instead produces a phenotype formed by the mixture of the effect of the two alleles. Therefore in incomplete dominance, a new trait is produced which is formed by both the alleles.
In the given question, if incomplete dominance is observed in a monohybrid cross which results in two homozygous genotypes and two heterozygous genotypes. In F2 the phenotypic generation produced will be 1:2:1 as the heterozygous genotype will form a new phenotype.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer
A researcher wants to determine if a new treatment program of yoga and vitamin A will improve test-taking skills in college students. To ensure that participants in the experimental condition are very similar to participants in the control condition, the researcher should:a. Randomly assign the participants to the conditions.
b. Choose the first people who signed up for the study to be in the control condition.
c. Ask for volunteers from a local yoga school.
d. Let the participants choose whether they want to be in the experimental or control condition.
Answer:
Option a
Explanation:
Random selection or random sampling from a given population is the most appropriate way, especially in experimental studies. This method is simple and accurate. According to the above-mentioned case, if the researcher selects students randomly for the experimental and control group, then each of them would have an equal chance of selection. Hence, the results would be generalized and not biased.
How does a species survive a climate change over thousands of years?
answer choices
It reproduces more rapidly.It hibernates and waits for better climate conditions.It makes no changes.It adapts to the changing climate.
Answer:
It adapts to the changing climate
Explanation:
Species have to acclimatise to changing climate to enable them survive
A means of adaptation is key for survival of species during climate change
If species do not have acclimatisation strategy, they would not be able to survive the changing climate
Theodor Schwann and Matthias Schleiden were major contributors to the Cell Theory as we know it. In 1839 Schwann published a book including a summary of his observations into three conclusions about cells: 1. The cell is the unit of structure, physiology, and organization in living things. 2. The cell retains a dual existence as a distinct entity and a building block in the construction of organisms. 3. Cells form by free-cell formation, similar to the formation of crystals (spontaneous generation). Which one of Schwann's statements is no longer accepted as truth? A) Cells are found in both living and nonliving entities. Eliminate B) Cells are distinct identities, not just building blocks. C) Cells form via free cell formation from existing cells only. D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.
Answer:
D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.
The claim, which is also a component of Virchow's explanation of the cell theory, is that the cells developed from previously existing cells, hence d is the correct option.
What is cell theory?Rudolph Virchow was a German biologist who constructed his own hypothesis on the research of other scientists, including Theodor Schwann.
After conducting several research, Virchow disproved the theory of spontaneous generation and insisted that not all cells differentiate, but only a subset of them do.
Although Virchow wasn't the one to originally propose the theory that cells originate from already existing cells, he was the one to popularize the idea and add it to the original hypothesis that all living things are composed of cells.
Therefore, cells come from free cell formation which is similar to spontaneous generation is no longer accepted, hence d is the correct option.
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The Sea World animal trainers use rewards (reinforcements) to teach whales, sea lions and dolphins to perform tricks. These training techniques are based on principles from which early school of psychology?
A. Functionalism
B. Structuralism
C. Behaviorism
D. Cognitive
Answer:
The correct option is C) Behaviorism
Explanation:
In the world of psychology, behaviorism can be described as an idea that behaviour is influenced by environmental factors. In general terms, behavior is triggered by a stimuli from the environment on an individual.
For example, whales, sea lions and dolphins learn to perform certain tricks because they know they have learned that they will get a reward for their action. Hence, the reward acts as a stimuli for their actions.
Sea World animal trainers use techniques that align with the behaviorism school of psychology. Behaviorism is a theory that behaviors are learnt through conditioning, in this case, positive reinforcement is used to promote desired behaviors.
Explanation:The Sea World animal trainers make use of training techniques that align with principles from the early school of psychology known as Behaviorism. Behaviorism is essentially the theory that all behaviors are acquired through conditioning. It posits that our responses to environmental stimuli shape our behaviors. Conditioning is carried out through reinforcement or punishment, with the former being the strategy used in this context to train the sea world animals. Hence, when the animals perform a trick correctly, they receive a reward (positive reinforcement), promoting the repetition of that behavior.
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The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain Blank 1. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. . This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the Blank 2. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the Blank 3. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.
Answer:
The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain GANGLIA. This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the THORACOLUMBAR REGIONS' lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the VENTRAL AND DORSAL rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.
Explanation:
The sympathetic trunks (sympathetic chain, gangliated cord) are a paired bundle of nerve fibers that run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.
See the picture attached.
What name is given to the process in which the information encoded in a strand of mRNA is used to construct a protein?
Answer:
Translation
Explanation:
Translation is the process where mRNA is used to form polypeptide chains which fold into proteins.
Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. View Available Hint(s) Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. analysis of ribosomal RNA analysis of DNA metabolic characteristics physical characteristics?
Answer:
The three main domains into which the organisms are classified are archaea, bacteria and eukarya.
Archaea : The archaea is more closely related to eukaryotes. Although they have bacteria like metabolism and have 70'S chromosomes but shows presence of introns and shows similar molecular mechanism like replication, transcription and translation similar to eukaryotes. These are found in the extreme conditions as well.
Bacteria: The bacteria have circular DNA with 70'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ester linkage and no nucleosome formation occur in bacteria. The transcription and translation are coupled together with no further modification.
Eukarya: The eukaryotes have linear DNA with 80'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ether linkage and proper nucleosome fprmation occurs in eukarya. The transcription and translation occurs separately in the distinct compartments and further modification occurs.
Bacteria are extremely diverse in structure and in how they obtain energy and nutrients. This diversity enables bacteria to live in a wide variety of environments. Classify each statement or picture as applying to gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, or both. Drag each item to the appropriate bin.
Answer and explanation:
Gram positive bacteria :
1) They retain crystal violet stain thus staining purple
2)They only produce exotoxins.
3)Peptidoglycan is thicker and multilayered
4)Techoic acids are present in their cell walls.
5)Lipopolysaccharides are absent in their cell wall.
6)No periplasmic space present
Gram negative bacteria :
1) They retain red safaranin stain thus stain pink.
2)They produce both exotoxins as well as endotoxins.
3)Peptidoglycan is thinner and single layered.
4)Techoic acids are absent in their cell walls.
5)Lipopolysaccharides are present in their cell wall.
6)Periplasmic space in present.
Answer:
Gram staining is a technique for classifying bacteria based on differences in the structure of their cell walls. Gram-negative bacteria and gram-positive bacteria both have a plasma membrane surrounded by a cell wall that contains peptidoglycan. However, the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is composed of a thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane, whereas the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan. Gram-negative bacteria appear red or pink because the alcohol rinse washes away the crystal violet dye. Gram-positive bacteria appear purple because the alcohol rinse does not wash away the crystal violet dye.
Explanation:
DNA replication is said to be semiconservative. What does this mean?
a. Each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand.
b. The old double helix is degraded, and half of its nucleotides are used in the construction of two new double helices.
c. Half of the old strand is degraded, and half is used as a template for the replication of a new strand.
d. One of the two resulting double helices is made of two old strands, and the other is made of two new strands.
e. One strand of the new double helix is made of DNA, and the other strand is made of RNA.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Upon discovery of the DNA structure by Watson and Crick, three models were proposed in the 1950's to explain the method in which DNA replicated. One of these models stood out, this model is the SEMICONSERVATIVE MODEL.
In the semiconservative model, it was proposed that a single DNA strand serves as a template for synthesizing its complementary strand. The cell replicates its DNA in the S-phase of interphase. In this phase, the the double-helix of the DNA is separated into two single strands. An enzyme called DNA polymerase then synthesizes a new strand complementary to each separated single strand.
At the end, the replicated double-stranded DNA now contains one old template strand and a new complementary strand.
Semiconservative means that in DNA replication, each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand, where each strand is used as a template for the new strand, thus conserving half of the original molecule in each new molecule.
Option A
Explanation:When we say DNA replication is semiconservative, we mean that each new double helix created during replication consists of one 'old' or 'parental' strand and one new or 'daughter' strand. This means that the answer choice 'a. Each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand.' is correct.
The process works as follows: The DNA double helix unzips or unwinds, and each strand is used as a template to synthesize a new complementary strand. This results in two identical DNA molecules, each composed of one old strand (from the original DNA molecule) and one new strand. Thus, each new DNA molecule conserves half of the original molecule, hence the term semiconservative.
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Please help!! Punnett squares (biology)
Answer/Explanation:
For the woman to be blood type B, she must either have 2 B alleles (homozygous, BB) or 1 B allele (heterozygous, BO). We can draw two punnett squares to show each of the potential outcomes when she has children with an AB man.
The two punnett squares are attached. In order to have a child that is type A, she needs to be heterozygous, BO. Even then, there was only a 25% chance that their child would have type A blood. If she were homozygous BB, it would be impossible for her to have a type A child with an AB man.
What is the molecular movements is due to diffusion or osmosis?
Answer:
is the movement of substances due to random thermal molecular motion. is the diffusion constant, representative values of which are found in [link]. Osmosis is the transport of water through a semipermeable membrane from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
Explanation:
The assumption used in phylogenetics that says the simplest explanation is the most likely to be correct is called _____________ .
Answer:
Answer is occam's razor.
Explanation:
Phylogenetics explained the evolutionary differences and similarities associated or found in the relationship of two organisms.
Occam razor is a problem solving principle which states that the simplest explanation among sets of explanation on an event is usually the best or perfect one, meaning that simplicity is equal to perfection.
In this case, the simplest explanation of the of the phylogenetics is the best one.
if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of banormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?
Correct question:
if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of abnormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?
Answer:
100%
Explanation:
Nondisjunction at meiosis-I means that two homologous chromosomes of at least one homologous pair fail to separate from each other during anaphase-I. This would result in the formation of one cell with one extra chromosome and the other with one less chromosome by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in these two cells would maintain this chromosome number in the daughter cells. Therefore, out of the total four gametes formed by the end of the meiosis, two would have one extra chromosome and would be denoted as "n+1". The rest of the two gametes would have one less chromosome and would be denoted as "n-1".
Ira brags about how wonderful he is, talks endlessly about his accomplishments, and pushes people to admire him. He lashes out when his inflated sense of importance is threatened by others. Ira would rate high in a measure of ________.
Answer:
Narcissism
Explanation:
Narcissism is a kind of personality disorder in which a person has a sense of admiration, fragile self-esteem and heightened sense of self importance. People with such disorder face serious problems in their relationships and are always disappointed if not given favors and admiration. Other people do not prefer to stay around a narcissist. They have a tendency to monopolize communication ad perceive other people inferior to themselves.
What is a species? Question 10 options: A group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another.
Answer: The statement is true
Explanation:
Species is a group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another but a member of a species cannot interbreed with a member of another species.
For example, all human beings belong to a species, while all giraffes belong to a different species, So both human beings and giraffes cannot interbreed.
So, the statement is true
The relationship between abstract virtues (principles) and ________ (practice) is often difficult to grasp.
Answer:
Values
Explanation:
A virtue is a characteristic of a person that supports individual well being and moral excellence. They are also called principles.
Values on the other hand are what is culturally acceptable.
The relationship between them is that values are desirable qualities whereas virtues are rules.
Sometimes it is difficult to grasp the relationship between the two since most people presume they are similar.