Answer:
The organisms are obligate anaerobes.
Explanation:
At the bottom of the tube the level of oxygen is zero thats why the dense growth at the bottom of the tube show obligate anaerobic microorganisms.At the middle of the tube micro-aerophilic microorganisms growth can be observed.At the top of the tube obligate aerobic microorganisms will show their growth.The correct conclusion is that the organisms are obligate anaerobes.
In a thioglycolate medium, which is a reduced medium, oxygen is initially present throughout the tube but is gradually used up by the action of the thioglycolate as it is diffusing into the medium from the top. This creates an oxygen gradient with more oxygen at the top and less towards the bottom.
When an inoculated thioglycolate medium culture tube shows dense growth at the bottom and is clear throughout the rest of the tube, it indicates that the organisms have grown only in the absence of oxygen. This is because obligate anaerobes cannot grow in the presence of oxygen; they can only grow in environments where oxygen is absent or in very low concentrations.
The other options can be ruled out based on the growth patterns they would exhibit in this medium:
- Facultative anaerobes can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. They would show growth throughout the tube, not just at the bottom.
- Aerotolerant organisms can grow in the presence of oxygen but do not require it. They might show growth throughout the tube, but this would depend on the specific strain and its tolerance to the reduced conditions of the medium.
- Obligate aerobes require oxygen to grow and would only grow at the top of the tube where oxygen is present, not at the bottom.
Therefore, the observation of dense growth only at the bottom of the tube, where oxygen levels are lowest, leads to the conclusion that the organisms are obligate anaerobes.
Dieffenbachia plants usually grow well without fertilizer. A student wanted to see if adding liquid fertilizer would make a difference in the growth of the plant. Three plants were placed in the same type of pot with the same type of soil. Two plants received fertilizer and one plant did not. All plants received the same amount of light and water during the experiment.She watched the plants grow over a period of 30 days, only adding the same amount of water to each plant on a weekly basis.
Answer:
amount of Liquid fertilizer
Explanation:
Complete Question
Dieffenbachia plants usually grow well without fertilizer. A student wanted to see if adding liquid fertilizer would make a difference in the growth of the plant. Three plants were placed in the same type of pot with the same type of soil. Two plants received fertilizer and one plant did not. All plants received the same amount of light and water during the experiment.She watched the plants grow over a period of 30 days, only adding the same amount of water to each plant on a weekly basis. What variable is NOT being controlled in this experiment?
Solution
In an experiment the variables are categorized into two groups
a) Controlled and
b) Uncontrolled
Uncontrolled variable are the ones which are independent i.e any kind of variation in experiment or any of its factor does not impact the uncontrolled variable. Such variable when in itself are varied, affect all other controlled variable.
Thus, amount of liquid fertilizer is an uncontrolled variable while factors such as growth of plant etc. are controlled variable.
The student conducted a 30-day experiment comparing Dieffenbachia plant growth with and without liquid fertilizer under consistent light and water conditions.
The controlled variables included the amount of light, water, and frequency of watering provided to all plants.
This ensures that these factors did not influence the results, as all plants experienced the same conditions.
Light is crucial for photosynthesis, and water is essential for plant hydration and nutrient uptake.
The dependent variable was the growth of the Dieffenbachia plants, measured in terms of height, number of leaves, or overall vitality.
Over the 30-day period, the student observed and documented the growth of the plants, noting any noticeable differences in height, leaf development, or overall health between the fertilized and non-fertilized plants.
At the end of the experiment, by comparing the growth of plants with and without the liquid fertilizer, the student could determine if the addition of fertilizer had any significant impact on the growth and health of Dieffenbachia plants.
This information can be crucial for optimizing the care and growth of these plants.
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Stone fly nymphs live in beds of streams that contain a high level of dissolved oxygen (DO). When the dissolved oxygen decreases in the stream, stone fly nymphs can no longer live there. Stone fly nymphs are an example of
Answer:
Indicator species
Explanation:
Indicator species refers to the species whose presence or absence in particular ecosystem indicates about the condition of the ecosystem.
In the given question, the stonefly which cannot survive if the dissolved oxygen in the water gets reduced as a result of the pollution indicates that the ecosystem or habitat has some pollutants which have decreased the level of DO in the aquatic habitat.
Thus, the indicator species is the correct answer.
What theory of hearing contends that the perception of a sound's frequency depends on how often the auditory nerve fires?
Answer:
The frequency theory of hearing
Explanation:
The frequency theory of hearing contends that the perception of a sound's frequency depends on how often the auditory nerve fires.
The frequency theory of hearing pinpoints that the frequency of the auditory nerve's impulses coincides to the frequency of a tone, which makes it easy to distinguish its pitch. It causes the neural signals speed to go in line with the brain to distinguish the pitch.
Place theory says that the perception of pitch is connected with vibration of certain portions of the basilar membrane, and the frequency theory says the perception of pitch is connected with the frequency at which the whole basilar membrane vibrates.
Answer: The frequency theory of hearing
Explanation:
The frequency theory of hearing states that the rate at which auditory nerve impulses occurs is associated with the frequency of a tone whose pitch is been detected. It simply explains that it is the pulse which travels up to the auditory nerve that carries the sound that we hear for the brain to process and thus there is a match between the pulse rate and the sound being heard. The theory was created by William Rutherford a British Physiologist.
Drugs that create feelings of calmness, reduce muscle tension, and lower sympathetic activity in the brain are called _____.
Answer:
Drugs that create feelings of calmness, reduce muscle tension, and lower sympathetic activity in the brain are called Anti anxiety Drugs.
Explanation:
Anti anxiety Drugs:- These drugs are also known as anxiolyticor minor tranquilizer. These drugs are classified as any category of drugs that reduces the symptoms of or Anxiety. Anxiety is a state of pervasive apprehension or fear of missing out that may be activated by specific environmental or personal factors.
A person with anxiety may suffer several symptoms like palpitations, nausea, dizziness, headaches, and chest pains, sleeplessness and fatigue. When these conditions aresevere and not normal that person is advised to take care with both medication and psychotherapy.
Answer:
Antianxiety drugs or Anxiolytic
Explanation:
The antianxiety drugs refer to the drugs which can reduce the effects of the anxiety or inhibit the anxiety disorder.
The anti-anxiety drugs act on the neurons by producing the various neurotransmitters like the dopamine, serotonin, GABA which reduces the neuronal activity. The most commonly used anti-anxiety drugs are the Benzodiazepines and the Buspirone.
Thus, Antianxiety drugs are the correct answer.
Ribosomes are found: Select one: a. on smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. on the rough endoplasmic reticulum c. in the cytoplasm d. in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum e. on the Golgi apparatus
Answer:
The answers is D
Explanation:
Ribosomes are numerous, small, round organelles that perform the function of protein production in the cell. They are found as freely-floating organelles in the cytoplasm and attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Ribosomes found as free-floating within the cytoplasm produce protein to be utilized within the cell while ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum are used inside the cell or outside the cell.
Atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of ________ secreted by the zona glomerulosa. a. aldosterone b. epinephrine c. calcitonin d. antidiuretic hormone
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A. aldosterone.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is secreted by the Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland. It is mineralocorticoid which is a steroid hormone that signals the kidney to prevent sodium ion and water in case of low blood pressure and volume in vessels. To save the water and ion of salts it promotes the reabsorption and leads to low urine output.
On another hand, ANP or atrial natriuretic peptide which release from the heart and enhances the urine output in response to high blood volume and pressure as it ceases the release of the Aldosterone.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
An atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of aldosterone (Option a).
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland.The function of this hormone (aldosterone) is to control the amount of salt (and also water) in the body.An atrial natriuretic peptide is a molecule that induces the excretion of sodium by the kidneys.In conclusion, an atrial natriuretic peptide secreted by the heart has exactly the opposite function of aldosterone (Option a).
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If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?A) A and D
B) B and D
C) B and C
D) D and E
D and E
Explanation:
The organisms are classified on the basis of their similarities and dissimilarities.
The taxonomic ranks are: Kingdom > Phylum> class > Order > family > genus > species.
As we move from kingdom towards the species the degree of similarities increases i.e. organisms that are grouped within a kingdom may have greater number of dissimilarities among them again more similar organisms are grouped into phylum, further organisms whuich are more similar within a phylum are grouped into class and this goes on.
In a species the individuals are very similar and have least number of dissimilarities among them.
In the given situation, A,B and C are of same class But they are in different order but C,D and E are of same order.
So C is more similar to A and B when compared to D and E.
Thus, D and E are expected to show greatest degree of structural homology.
The ___________ is an important element of the drug experience because it affects how much of a drug reaches its site of action and how quickly it gets there.
Answer:
Route of administration
Explanation:
Drugs may be defined as the chemicals that are given against the particular disease for the treatment of the patient. The drugs must be given in the proper amount as directed by the medical practitioner.
The effects of the drugs depend on the individual and its route of administration. The oral administration of drug is more common but a diabetic patient needs to given drug intravenously. Intraperitoneal drug route is given to show the effect of drug quickly and drug cannot infiltrate a blood vessel.
Thus, the answer is route of administration.
Insect wings may have begun to evolve as lateral extensions of the body that were used as heat dissipaters for thermoregulation. When they had become sufficiently large, these extensions became useful for gliding through the air. Additional selection refined them as flight-producing wines. If this hypothesis is correct, modern insect wings would be an example of _ .58) A) an adaptive radiation B) mutations C) the loss of Hox genes in the evolution of new form D) an exaptation
Answer:
Exaptation.
Explanation:
Evolution is the process of the the change in the characteristics of the species with respect to time. Natural selection, mutation and genetic drift is important for the evolution.
Exaptation may be defined as the biological phenomena that describe the development of the trait that has been co opted or co evolved other than the trait that has been selected for the natural selection. The flight producing wines is the extra trait that has been developed in the insects.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
what PA projection of the chest may be used to evaluate the heart and great vessels when performing a cardiac series?
Answer:
The answer is 55-60 degrees left anterior oblique (LAO).
Explanation:
During a cardiac series to observe the heart and the great vessels, the PA Projection of the chest, which is a term describing the x-ray's going through the patient's chest from a posterior to anterior direction, a 55-60 degrees left anterior oblique projection (LAO) should be used to get the best results.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
55-60 degree LAO
Explanation:
The circulation of the chest radiography can mimic the normal pathological process and make it challenging to produce a proper diagnosis. The chest PA view is used to investigate a variety of situations, and it is the radiographer's responsibility to ensure that high-quality diagnostic images are obtained consistently.
The most common ideas are postoperative, intraoperative, and lateral. In the posteroventricular (PA) scenario, the X-ray source is determined because the X-ray beam enters from the back of the chest and exits the end (front), where the laser is detected.
A shared ancestral character is A) a character that originated in an ancestor of the B) shared by all mammals but not found in the new C) an evolutionary novelty unique to a clade D) an outgroup characters
Answer:
The correct answer is option A) "a character that originated in an ancestor of the taxon".
Explanation:
A shared ancestral character is defined as a character that originated in an ancestor of the taxon. This type of characters contrasts with shared derived characters, which are characters that develop within the taxon and do not include all the ancestors of a given phylogenetic tree. For instance, the presence of four limbs is a shared ancestral character for a large group of animals, including amphibians, birds, mammals, turtles, crocodiles, among others.
A shared ancestral character is a trait found in the common ancestor of a group and passed down to all its members. Therefore, the answer is A) a character that originated in an ancestor of the clade.
This type of character originated in an ancestor of the clade and has been passed down without significant changes. For example, having a vertebrate is a shared ancestral character for all vertebrates. This character does not change over time within the clade, unlike derived characters. This is different from a shared derived character, which is an evolutionary novelty unique to a certain sub-group within the clade. Therefore, the correct answer is A) a character that originated in an ancestor of the clade.True or false. The highlighted bone articulates with the ulna. True or false. The highlighted bone articulates with the ulna. FALSE TRUE
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
The ulna articulates with the humerus in the upper arm and the radius in the forearm, allowing for movement of the elbow and wrist. However, it does not interact with every bone, so the truth of the statement depends on which bone is highlighted.
Explanation:Without knowing exactly which bone is highlighted, it's hard to definitively answer your question. However, I can tell you that the ulna typically articulates, or forms a joint with, two bones: the humerus in the upper arm and the radius in the forearm. These articulations are responsible for the flexible and fluid movement of your elbow and wrist. However, the ulna does not articulate with every bone in the body. Therefore, whether the statement is true or false largely depends on which bone is being highlighted.
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A______________is a type of cell that receives and transmits information in the Central Nervous System
(CNS – brain and spinal cord) and the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS – afferent & efferent nerves).
Answer: Neurons
Explanation:
Neurons are the types of cells found in the body. It is like the other cells of the body but it is different in its functioning.
The neurons in the body is equipped for the transmission of signals throughout the body.
It is the basic functional unit of the brain and carries the information from brain to the various parts of the body.
Albinism is a recessive disorder in which the skin and hair fail to produce pigment. The following question(s) ask you to evaluate the pedigree chart shown here in which "N" is the allele for normal pigmentation and "n" is the allele for albinism. The shaded circles for Deirdre and Shannon represent the only individuals expressing the disorder.According to the pedigree above, who is a not a carrier of albino?
A. Aaron
B. Bill
C. Brandon
D. All of the above are carriers of albino
Answer:
D. All of the above are carriers of albino
Explanation:
Now according to pedigree:
1st generation both male and female are carriers of albino and in result of that Dierdre is disordered (nn) and when Dierdre (nn) is married to person who is carrier (Nn) because their daughter Shannon is also disordered (nn). It means one allele from mother (nn) and one allele from father (Nn) comes and affect the Shannon (nn).
As mother Dierdre is effective having both nn alleles so everytime she share n allele to her offsprings.
So, according to explanation above Aaron, Bill and Brandon all are carriers of albino.
Two parents are both heterozygous for the autosomal recessive allele for albinism. What is the probability that their first child will be an albino, their second child will be an albino, and their third child will have normal pigmentation in that order?
Answer:
Probability that their first child will be an albino = 1/4;
Probability that their second child will be an albino is 1/4;
Probability that their third child will have normal pigmentation = 3/4.
Total combined probability of these 3 children = 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64.
Explanation:
Autosomal recessive disorders are the ones in which disease occurs only if recessive alleles are present in both the locus of a particular gene's allelic positions.
Here both the parents are heterozygous for albinism allele. The probability of allelic combinations of their children is shown as under:
Parentals: Aa x Aa
/ | | \
Progeny: AA Aa Aa aa
The birth of children is independent event so rule of multiplication will be applicable here.
Probability that their first child will be an albino is 1/4 because out of 4 children 1 has the probability of being born with allelic combination 'aa'.
Probability that their second child will be an albino is 1/4 and the reason is same as above.
Probability that their third child will have normal pigmentation is 3/4 because AA, Aa and Aa are 3 children with normal pigmentation.
So the total combined probability is 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64.
For two heterozygous parents, the probability their first two children will be albino and the third will have normal pigmentation is 4.6875%, as each genetic makeup is an independent event.
Explanation:The subject of this question pertains to genetics, specifically the inheritance of the autosomal recessive allele for albinism. When both parents are heterozygous, each child has a 25% chance of being affected by albinism (both receive the recessive allele). Consequently, the probability of their first child, second child being albino and third child being normal (does not have the condition) would be calculated as 0.25 * 0.25 * 0.75 = 0.046875 or 4.6875%. The child's status does not influence the probability of the subsequent child's genetic makeup because each child's genetic makeup is an independent event.
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He is best known for developing a method to classify plants and animals and established the system of binomial nomenclature. A. Charles Darwin B. Carolus Linnaeus C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck D. Georges Cuvier
Answer: Option B) Carolus Linnaeus
Explanation:
The linnaean system of classification was introduced by a Swiss scientist named Carolus Linnaeus.
In this system, he first split living things into a general category called KINGDOM.
- The kingdom is further split into large smaller groups called PHYLUM (for animals) and DIVISION (for plants).
- Each phylum or division is broken down into CLASSES.
- Each class is broken down into ORDERS
- Orders into FAMILIES,
- Families into GENUS
- Genus into SPECIES
Also, he introduced the system of binomial nomenclature where an organism is described by two names:
- the 1st name is genus;
- the 2nd name is species.
For instance: Homo sapiens would means Man belongs to genus (Homo) and specie (sapiens).
Hence, binomial nomenclature consists of two names
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Mario is highly afraid of spiders. Which part of the brain would be activated if he were to enter a room that had a lot of spiders?
Answer: Hypothalamus
Explanation:
Due to the fear of spiders, Mario is likely to have the following sensations: sweating, shivering, increased heartbeat, raised blood pressure.
And all these are controlled by the hypothalamus, a part of the Fore-brain
The amygdala is activated when Mario enters a room with spiders, triggering a fear response as part of the body's sympathetic nervous system. This fear can be intense due to evolutionary predispositions and have significant impacts on one's life.
When Mario, who is highly afraid of spiders, enters a room filled with spiders, the part of the brain that would be activated is the amygdala. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, such as fear, and it triggers the fear response. This response involves a cascade of physiological changes including increased heart rate, rapid breathing, and sweating, which are all part of the body's sympathetic nervous system response to perceived threats. The amygdala works in conjunction with other brain structures, such as the hypothalamus, to orchestrate the body's reaction to fear-inducing stimuli. This nervous system activity is automatic and can occur even if the threat is not real—as in the case of a person mistaking a piece of fuzz for a spider—showing the power of perception in eliciting a fear response.
In Mario's case, his intense fear of spiders, also known as arachnophobia, may have been influenced by evolutionary predispositions, as humans have historically associated spiders with danger, despite the fact that most spiders are not harmful to humans. The effect of fear on an individual’s life can be profound, as observed with Janet's extreme reaction to spiders limiting her activities and leading to job loss.
Predict how many genetically different offspring could be produced by outcrossing two 2n=4 individuals?
Answer:
16 genetically different offsprings
Explanation:
The diploid state of this organism has 4 chromosomes, hence, when it undergoes meiosis, it will produce gametes with 2 chromosomes each.
The number of different possible gamete combinations can be got using the formula 2^n, which n is the number of chromosomes in each gamete.
Therefore, 2^2 = 4 possible combinations of gametes.
If one of the individuals will produce 4 possible combinations of gametes, a combination of two of these gametes will result in offsprings with (4)^2 possible combinations of different offsprings. i.e. 16 possible genetically different offsprings.
How is systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) different from multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
Explanation:
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome is an inflammatory state affecting the whole body. It is an noninfectious or infectious insult.
Whereas the multiple organ dysfunction syndrome is also known as multiple organ failure which is altered organ function in which the different organs of the body stops working. This is not a kind of response, a kind of organ failure.
This condition requires intervention to maintain homeostasis inside the body.
Epigenetics usually refers to heritable changes in the expression patterns of chromatin. Is it appropriate to refer to this term to describe changes that occur during memory formation?
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation: Yes because epigenetics which simply the talks about the modification of genes is a major component in the changes that occur during memory formation. One cannot talk about Memory Formation without Gene expression which has been shown to be needed for long-term memory to form.
Answer:YES.
Basically one characteristic feature of Epigenetic is the ability to provide a chromatin frameworks which can produce a set of gene expression that can be passed to subsequent generation by mitotic cell division, and which is unique to a class of cell.
Basically long term memory formation has been linked to a well organized pattern of gene expression. Therefore if Epigenetics could provide a particular chromatin framework for a specific set of gene expression; then it can be used to describe set of changes that occurred during memory formation since the gene expression for memory formation will be mediated by the particular chromatin framework unique to the group or family memory formation cells only. Therefore the gene expression will be well coordinated for memory expression.
Explanation:
In a medium where lactose is the only carbon source, transcription of the lac operon is _______, because lac repressor is ________ to the ________.
Question is incomplete i have added full question in ask for detail section.
Answer:
Option c. unblocked, not bound, operator is the correct option.
In a medium where lactose is the only carbon source, transcription of the lac operon is _unblocked_, because lac repressor is _not bound_ to the _operator_.
Explanation:
See attached images for explanation
Which type of selection tends to increase genetic variation? A. Disruptive selection B. Directional selection C. Stabilizing selection
Answer:
Which type of selection tends to increase genetic variation? A. Disruptive selection B. Directional selection C. Stabilizing selection
The Answer is option A (Disruptive selection)
Explanation:
Selection can either shift the mean value of a trait, reduce the trait's variation, or increase its variation.
Genetic variation which allows natural selection to increase or decrease frequency of alleles already in the population is a source of phenotypic variation as it refers to differences in all the hereditary information of members of the same species.
Disruptive Selection is important in maintaining variation and initiating speciation as it Increases Variation by favoring alleles corresponding to more extreme phenotypes. But for it to occur, the mean phenotype has to experience the lowest fitness. Disruptive selection affects the frequency distributions of alleles and genotypes within a population.
Disruptive selection is based on the variance of a trait in a population as it increases genetic variance by equalizing the frequencies of existing alleles at polymorphic loci (a genetic loci with two or more alleles). Disruptive selection maintains and may even increase variation in natural populations by favoring extreme phenotypes, individuals with extreme values for a trait have greater reproductive success than individuals with intermediate values.
B) Disruptive selection is the right response. Natural selection that promotes extreme phenotypes while decreasing the predominance of intermediate phenotypes is known as disruptive selection.
A population's genetic diversity may rise as a result of this kind of selection.
Individuals with extreme qualities at both ends of the phenotypic continuum benefit more from disruptive selection than do people with moderate features.
As a result, while the intermediate qualities are being chosen against, the extreme features gradually grow more widespread in the population.
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Two European men and two Polynesian women settled on a previously uninhabited tropical island. All four of the settlers have brown eyes, a dominant trait, but one of the Europeans is heterozygous and carries the recessive gene for blue eyes.
No new settlers arrive,and nobody leaves the island.After a few generations,the percentage of blue-eyed individuals increases from the original zero to 25 percent.This is probably due to which of the following factors?
A) genetic drift
B) mutation
C) gene flow
Answer:
Two European men and two Polynesian women settled on a previously uninhabited tropical island. All four of the settlers have brown eyes, a dominant trait, but one of the Europeans is heterozygous and carries the recessive gene for blue eyes. No new settlers arrive,and nobody leaves the island.After a few generations,the percentage of blue-eyed individuals increases from the original zero to 25 percent.This is probably due to which of the following factors?
genetic drift
Explanation:
Genetic drift entails when there are changes in the gene frequency which occur in a gene that is existing. From the analogy above, it is a known fact that only gneetic drift could allow such to happen as mutation will only occur with a sudden change of gene which is not the case described above
Final answer:
The increase in blue-eyed individuals in an isolated island population is likely due to genetic drift (option A), a random fluctuation in allele frequencies that is pronounced in small populations.
Explanation:
The increase in the percentage of blue-eyed individuals in a small, isolated population from 0 to 25% is most likely due to option A) genetic drift. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution that refers to random changes in the frequencies of alleles within a population's gene pool. This can lead to the increase or decrease of specific alleles, and is especially pronounced in small populations where chance events can have a more significant impact on the gene pool. An initial population where all individuals have brown eyes, but one individual carries the allele for blue eyes, is an example of how genetic drift could cause a notable change over generations if the alleles are passed on randomly.
In the given scenario, the heterozygous European man carrying the recessive gene for blue eyes could have passed it on to his offspring, and due to the small population size and isolation of the island, these traits could become more common by chance over a few generations. A mutation would imply a change in the genetic material which is not mentioned in the scenario, and gene flow requires the movement of genes between populations, which is also not applicable here as the population is isolated.
When individuals of the same species are reproductively isolated, genetic differences may accumulate in sufficient number so that new species could emerge. Such an event would be an example of Group of answer choices A.equilibrium. B.macroevolution. C.microevolution. D.the founder effect.
Answer:
B.macroevolution
Explanation:
Macroevolution is a type of evolutionary change pattern and process that brings about the emergence of new species through isolation, genetic drift, natural selection or gene flow. Macroevolution occurs on a larger scale above species level, unlike microevolution that is restricted to within a species or population.
Answer:
B. Macro-evolution.
Explanation:
It is a type of macro-evolution because in a separated and isolated specie there is a gradual but abrupt change is going to take place and a new specie is going to emerge in the environment. The new specie will have a effect on the value of it's mother specie and because the new specie is better adapted version of the previous one in particular environment. It may become possible that the new specie will continue to thrive and her mother specie will become extinct as the time passes by...
In a certain species of plant, flowers occur in three colors: blue, pink, and white. A pure-breeding pink plant is mated with a pure-breeding white plant. All of the F1 are blue. When the blue F1 plants are selfed, the F2 occurs in the ratio 9 blue:3 pink:4 whitE. How many gene pairs control the flower color phenotype?
Answer: If the F2 occurs in the ratio 9 blue:3 pink:4 white, one gene pair (i.e 2 genes) control the flower color phenotype.
Explanation: This principle is called INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE where one gene (dominant) won't completely override the other (recessive).
Let assume B represents the dominant gene and b represents the reccesive gene. Let also assume that Blue color is dominant over white color. We can assign the genotype as follows;
Homozygous dominant genes BB will produce Blue color
Homozygous recessive genes bb will produce white color
Heterozygous genes Bb will produce pink color.
Therefore, a pair of gene ( 2 genes) will determine the flower color phenotype.
In a certain species of plant, the flower color phenotype is controlled by two gene pairs. The F1 generation consists of blue flowers, which suggests that blue color is dominant over pink and white. The F2 generation exhibits a 9:3:4 phenotypic ratio of blue:pink:white.
Explanation:The flower color phenotype in the given species of plant is controlled by two gene pairs. Each gene pair contains two alleles, which can either be dominant or recessive. The pink parent plant is homozygous for the dominant allele, resulting in the pink color, while the white parent plant is homozygous for the recessive allele, resulting in the white color.
When the pink plant is crossed with the white plant, their offspring (F1 generation) all have the dominant allele for blue color, resulting in blue flowers. This suggests that the blue color is dominant over both pink and white. As a result, the blue F1 plants are heterozygous for the blue allele
When the blue F1 plants are self-fertilized, the resulting offspring (F2 generation) show a phenotypic ratio of 9 blue:3 pink:4 white. This indicates that the blue color is controlled by two gene pairs, as the ratio follows a classic Mendelian dihybrid ratio.
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uring which period of prenatal development would exposure to teratogens most likely cause defects to major body structures? a. embryo b. implantation c. fetus d. zygote
Answer:
The answer is option a. embryo
Explanation:
There are three stages in the prenatal period, namely the germinal, embryonic and foetal period.
The germinal period begins at conception and last for two weeks.
The embryonic period begins after germinal stage and last for two months. It is a period where organogenesis and development of limb buds occurs. These makes it a delicate period during prenatal development.
In the fetal period, sex organs bones and muscle tissues form. There is rapid growth of the foetus. It is a period which begin after two months of conception until birth.
The period of prenatal development during which exposure to teratogens is a. embryo.
Understanding Teratogens: Teratogens are substances that can cause malformations or defects in a developing fetus. They can include drugs, alcohol, infections, and environmental chemicals.
Critical Periods: The embryonic stage is known as a critical period in prenatal development, meaning that this is when the foundations for major body structures are laid out. This timing is crucial because during this phase, the major organs and systems (such as the heart, brain, and spinal cord) begin to form and are particularly sensitive to harmful influences.
Development of Major Structures: During the embryonic stage, cells differentiate and change into various types that will become the major structures of the body. For example, within just a few weeks after conception, the neural tube develops, which eventually becomes the spinal cord and brain. If teratogens are introduced during this time, they can disrupt the normal development of these critical structures.
Consequences of Exposure: Teratogenic effects can vary depending on the timing of exposure, the dose, and the genetic susceptibility of the embryo. The earlier the exposure occurs during the embryonic stage, the more severe the potential defects may be.
While exploring a local wooded area, you encounter what you believe to be a previously uncharacterized organism. Upon microscopic evaluation, you notice a single-celled organism about 1 micrometer, lacking a nucleus. What type of cell is this?a. nucelote b. prokaryote c. not enough information provided d. eukaryote
Answer:
B (prokaryote)
Explanation:
Life, in general, has been classified into three domains viz: Eukarya, Bacteria and Archaeae. The first (Eukarya) are organisms with a well defined membrane-bound compartment that houses their genetic material (DNA) called NUCLEUS. On the other hand, the other two domains are generally referred to as prokaryotic organisms because they lack this membrane-bound nucleus. Hence, their genetic material is found naked in a region of the cytoplasm called NUCLEOID.
Therefore, in this question, after microscopically observing and evaluating the uncharacterized organism, It showed that its cell lacked a nucleus. This immediately points out that the cell must be PROKARYOTIC CELL.
In the interactive activity, what are the possible phenotypes for fur color and what gene represents each?
Answer:
Fur colour can be represented by both the dominant and the recessive alleles of the gene encoding the fur color.
Explanation:
Considering that the fur colour trait follows Mendelian laws of inheritance.The dominant allele can express itself in both the homozygous and heterozygous condition.The recessive allele can represent itself only in the homozygous condition.Therefore, there will be two phenotypes, one will be represented by both the homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant genotypes and the other represented by the homozygous recessive genotype.Considering that the fur colour trait does not follows Mendelian laws of inheritance (Incomplete Dominance or Codominance).In Incomplete dominance, three phenotypes are observed, for each of homozygous dominant, heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive genotypes respectively.In Codominance, phenotypes of both the dominant and recessive genotype is shown in the same individual.In the activity, rabbit fur color phenotypes relate to the 'C' genes, with four possible alleles leading to different color expressions. In mice, an example of epistasis is shown where the 'C' gene can override the 'A' gene's color determination, leading to an albino mouse. These cases illustrate the concepts of phenotype (observable traits) and genotype (genetic makeup).
Explanation:In the activity, the possible phenotypes for fur color in rabbits are represented by the 'C' genes. The wild-type allele is expressed as brown fur, the chinchilla phenotype is expressed as black-tipped white fur, the Himalayan phenotype has black fur on the extremities and white fur elsewhere, and finally, the albino phenotype is expressed as white fur. Therefore, this 'C' gene is represented by four alleles; wild-type (C+C+), chinchilla (cchcch), Himalayan (chch), and albino (cc). This indicates a dominance hierarchy, with the wild-type being most dominant and the albino being the least.
In mice, an example of epistasis is demonstrated. The 'A' gene determines the coat color, with the wild-type coat color, agouti (AA), being dominant over solid-color (aa). However, the 'C' gene, which impacts pigment production, can override the 'A' gene when present as a homozygous recessive (cc), resulting in an albino mouse irrespective of the 'A' gene configuration.
These illustrate the concepts of phenotype and genotype. The phenotype is the observable physical characteristics, in these cases the fur color, which are determined by the genotype, or the genetic makeup of an organism.
Learn more about Phenotypes and Genotypes here:https://brainly.com/question/26124553
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In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on pronghorn antelopes. In thewestern United States, pronghorns and cattle often associate with one another in the same openrangeland. Some of these fleas develop a strong preference for cattle blood and mate only withother fleas that prefer cattle blood. The host mammal can be considered as the fleasʹhabitat. If thissituation persists, and new species evolve, this would be an example of _____.A) allopatric speciation and gametic isolationB) sympatric speciation and temporal isolationC) allopatric speciation and habitat isolationD) sympatric speciation and habitat isolation
Answer:
D) sympatric speciation and habitat isolation
Explanation:
Sympatric isolation is a form of evolutionary process whereby different species from an ancestral origin evolve within the same geographical environment as a result of reproductive isolation.
Habitat isolation is a form of reproductive isolation which occurs when two populations of a species inhabiting overlapping habitats become unable to interbreed with each other.
Reproductive isolation (habitat isolation) that occurs in the fleas is as a result of the new species becoming separate from it's ancestral species which feed only on pronghorn antelopes, although both species can still be found in the same geographical location (rangeland). The new species now have preference for cattle blood, and so are now found on cattle.
In the situation of the two new species of flea that would evolve, it can be said to an example of sympatric speciation and habitat isolation, since the host mammal is assumed to be their habitat and both the cattle and pronghorns often associate with one another in the same open rangeland.
"Founders of social psychology" Norman Triplett and Max Ringelmann both did research examining _______.
A) the influence groups exert on their members.
B) the impact of the presence of others on performance.
C) how behaviors are shaped by perceptions.
D) the impact of different leadership strategies on group performance.