An individual experienced the death of a parent 2 years ago. This individual has not been able to work since the death, cannot look at any of the parent’s belongings, and cries daily for hours at a time. Which nursing diagnosis most accurately describes this individual’s problem? a) Posttrauma syndrome related to parent’s death b) Anxiety (severe) related to parent’s death c) Coping, ineffective related to parent’s death d) Grieving, complicated related to parent’s death

Answers

Answer 1

Post trauma syndrome related to parent's death- nursing diagnosis most accurately describes this individual's problem.

Option: A

Explanation:

Trauma- an intense grief or shock that person receive when they face any untimely death or accident of his nearest one. When a person is under severe traumatic syndrome he used to behave in an unnatural way and suffers from depression in a large scale.

In this condition he needs medical attention and psychological consultant who have knowledge about this kind of mental health problem and can diagnose them with proper medical care. Traumatic attack takes years long to recover or sometimes whole age.  

Answer 2

The most accurate nursing diagnosis for the described individual is 'Grieving, complicated related to parent’s death' due to the persistent and intense symptoms of grief that impair daily functioning and exceed normal bereavement periods.

The most accurate nursing diagnosis for an individual who experienced the death of a parent 2 years ago, has not been able to work since the death, avoids looking at any of the parent’s belongings, and cries daily for hours at a time is d) Grieving, complicated related to parent’s death. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as an intense preoccupation with the deceased, persistent difficulty in moving on with one's life, and a significant impairment in daily functioning. These symptoms, which closely align with the individual’s experience described, typically last for an extended period beyond what is considered a normal or socially accepted bereavement period.

According to research, complicated grief is a unique condition that can be distinguished from depression and other trauma-related disorders. It is marked by intense longing, extreme focus on the loss, and problems accepting the death. Complicated grief can severely affect one's ability to function on a day-to-day basis and is more profound than typical grief reactions that resolve over time without clinical intervention.


Related Questions

Which of the following statements is true? a. deviance is not at all related to the amount of stratification in society​ b. less stratified societies create more criteria on which to make judgments about deviance than more highly stratified societies​ c. societies produce roughly the same amount of criteria on which to make judgments about deviance regardless of how stratified they are​ d. ​ highly stratified societies create more criteria on which to make judgments about deviance than less stratified societies

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

highly stratified societies create more criteria on which to make judgments about deviance than less stratifies societies

Highly stratified societies create more criteria on which to make judgments about deviance than less stratified societies, is the true statement. Hence, option D is appropriate.

What is the meaning of a Stratified Society?

A stratified society has been there for quite a long period and has been present from the beginning of the creation of civilizations. Even in the 21st Century, it is very difficult to understand and speak about.

A stratified Society is one where individuals are being kept segregated as a whole based on caste, creed, and sex. the most important divulgence is the promise and the essentiality with which both things have been created.

A society divided based on income, lifestyle, and all other social conditions is known as a stratified society. Hence, option D is correct.

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While playing "Ring Around the Rosie" with your little cousins, you are spinning around and around. When you stop, you still feel as though you are still spinning because your ________________ haven't returned to their neutral state.

Answers

Answer:

You still feel as though you are still spinning because your semicircular canals haven't returned to their neutral state.

Explanation:

The semicircular canals are located inside the inner ear and they are 3 tubes filled with a liquid or fluid known as endolymph. These are in charge of keeping an individual's balance.

When the individual's head moves, the liquid moves hairs within the tubes, which turn the movement into signals. These are sent to the brain and it decides the individual's balance.

When you spin, the liquid begins to spin and you tend to still feel dizzy afterwards because these canals have not returned to their neutral state and the movement is being sent as signals to the brain.

How many people must have heard or read a statement for there to be publication for purposes of defamation? a. it must be heard simultaneously by at least two people b. at least two c. one d. there must be widespread community knowledge

Answers

Answer:

C. One

Explanation:

Defamation is the sending out of false/information in order to tarnish someone’s reputation.

Defamation is a big offence due to the damage it causes. Once a person’s reputation is called into question it is always difficult to repair it. Defamation may be aimed at just a group of people or just a person. It may also involve a person or people as the target audience.

Which Section is responsible for all support requirements needed to facilitate effective and efficient incident management, including ordering resources from off-incident locations?

Answers

Answer:

Logistics section

Explanation:

Logistics is the process of planning and executing the efficient transportation and storage of goods from the point of origin to the point of consumption. The goal of logistics is to meet customer requirements in a timely, cost-effective manner. So for effective incident Management, logistics section does that.

Using the motives for mergers and acquisitions described in Chapter 1, which do you think apply to Charter’s acquisition of Time Warner Cable? Discuss the logic underlying each motive you identify. Be specific.

Answers

The correct answer to this open question is the following.

the motives for mergers and acquisitions that apply to Charter’s acquisition of Time Warner Cable was that Charter wanted to consolidate ist big business to form a big conglomerated in the Industry of Mass Media Communications. The merger allowed Charter to increase its entertainment offer due to the fact that Time Warner already had a respectable and well-positioned place in the industry. The agreement was reached on May 26, 2015, in amicable terms.

We are referring to the book "Mergers, Acquisitions, and Other Restructuring Activities," written by Donald M. DePamphilis.

Siying's mother and father both lacked any formal education and supported their family by working as shoe shiners in a New York City subway station. Siying got a scholarship to attend an Ivy League university, went to medical school, and is now a neurosurgeon at a hospital in Boston. This is an example of:____________

Answers

Answer: Vertical social mobility.

Explanation:

Vertical social mobility is defined as mobility that take place in shifting from one social status to another social status in status hierarchy. This movement can be in upward shift or downward shift.

According to the question, vertical social mobility is displayed through the shifts occurring in social status of Siying and her family. Siying's social status got upgraded from getting scholarship and becoming neurosurgeon.

Your uncle Pete is unemployed, uninsured, and has no savings. He has a motorcycle accident and suffers a compound fracture to his leg. Explain how he could still obtain health care, given his circumstances. How would this work?

Answers

Answer:

Charity Care

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario the only way that Pete can obtain health care would be from Charity Care. This is a health care provided for free or at reduced prices to low income individuals. In order to get this health care Pete will need to prove that his annual gross income for the 12 months before your hospital care was not more than 200% of the federal poverty level, which in 2018 was $24,280

Answer:

Charity care

Explanation:

Uncle Peter will obtain health care through CHARITY CARE because of his circumstances.

Charity care are free health care provider that is responsible for providing free health care for those that cannot afford it and at reduce price for those that can afford it but those does not have enough money that will cover their medical bill this are the low income patient.

Therefore CHARITY CARE will fully take care of Uncle Peter health or injury because he is unemployed, uninsured, and has no savings.

In a discipline that Kant called ____, he discussed such topics as gender differences, marriage, insanity, and the production and control of human behavior.

Answers

Answer:

anthropology

Explanation:

Anthropology -

It refers to the study of the behavior of humans , in the past and present scenario , is referred to as anthropology .

The study involves the descriptive method of analysing the pattern of behavior including all the values and norms .

The study uses the terminology like gender , insanity and marriage .

Hence , from the given information of the question ,

The correct answer is anthropology .

Final answer:

Immanuel Kant discussed various topics within the realm of philosophy, focusing on ethics, reason, and duty in the framework of his normative moral theory. He envisioned a society based on categorical imperatives, leading to his idea of the Kingdom of Ends. Kant's philosophical work, particularly in ethics, has been subject to feminist critiques and remains influential in modern philosophical discourse.

Explanation:

Immanuel Kant discussed topics such as gender differences, marriage, insanity, and the production and control of human behavior in a discipline that can be broadly categorized under philosophy. Kant, a central figure in modern philosophy, attempted to reconcile rationalism and religious belief, individual freedom, and political authority, and he advocated for an ethical framework built upon categorical imperatives and universal maxims. His ideas contributed significantly to the fields of ethics, epistemology, and political philosophy.

Feminist critiques of Kant's philosophy focus on the tension between rationality and emotion, and the historic association of women with the latter, which some felt to imply a lesser worth and dignity. Kant's normative moral theory, with its emphasis on human reason and duty, suggests that we act out of obligation rather than emotional inclination, allowing the formation of what he called the Kingdom of Ends—an ideal society where everyone is treated as an end in themselves and not merely as means to other ends.

In his Groundwork of the Metaphysics of Morals, Kant presents his argument for an ethical system based on reason, proposing what he identifies as perfect and imperfect duties. He envisions a society oriented towards moral progress and advocates for the intrinsic value of 'good will', where actions are taken from duty and contribute to the ethicality of the will.

It has been suggested that older men in all cultures tend to marry women younger than themselves because men are genetically predisposed to seek female features associated with youthful fertility. This suggestion best illustrates
a. social learning theory.
b. behavior genetics.
c. freudian psychology.
d. an evolutionary perspective

Answers

Answer:

The answer s d. an evolutionary perspective.

Explanation:

According to the evolutionary perspective to mate-choosing, people tend to look for potential partners that posses beneficial evolutionary traits, such as fertility and strenght. This is supported by the idea that humans and other animals seek to perpetuate the species, so they look for the best genetic characteristics available.

Ants release pheromones, which are detected as a smell to other ants, when they have found food. This lets the other ants know that they can return to the nest in order to feast. Once the food runs out, the ants release a separate pheromone that lets the ants know that the food is gone. What type of pheromone are they expressing AND where are they sensing these pheromones

Answers

Final answer:

Ants use trail pheromones to lead others to food and may use repellant pheromones to indicate the food is gone; ants detect these pheromones with their antennae.

Explanation:

When ants discover food, they release a trail pheromone to mark a path back to the nest, guiding other ants to the food source. This trail pheromone is constantly renewed as long as the food source remains available. However, when the food supply starts to run out, the production of this pheromone stops, which allows it to evaporate quickly so other ants are not misled by the old trail. In some ant species, a repellant pheromone may even be used to actively deter ants from following a trail that no longer leads to food. Ants detect these pheromones through their antennae, which are sensitive to the chemical signals left by other ants.

Final answer:

When ants find food, they release a trail pheromone to direct other ants to the source, which they detect using their antennae. The trail pheromone guides ants to the food, and as the food diminishes, the trail ceases, with some ants possibly marking old trails with a repellant pheromone.

Explanation:

Ants release various types of pheromones for communication within the colony. When they find food, they release a trail pheromone to help other ants locate the food source. This is a guide pheromone that forms a chemical trail on the ground which other ants follow. Ants detect these pheromones through their antennae, which are highly sensitive to the chemical signals.

Once the food supply starts to run out, ants stop renewing the trail pheromone, and it quickly evaporates. This prevents confusion and ensures that ants do not follow a trail to a non-existent food source. In some cases, ants may also release a repellant pheromone to actively dissuade others from following a trail that no longer leads to food.

Individuals who live together in a specific geographical area, who interact with each other more than they do with outsiders, cooperate for the attainment of common goals, and share a common culture over time constitute a:______.1. Society2. Culture3. Lifestyle4. Collective

Answers

Answer:

1. Society

Explanation:

The individual who lives together in a specific geographic area is one who interacts with each other and they do it more with the outsiders and cooperate for the attainment of a common goal. And they have shared common goals and share a common culture over time and thus constitute society.

A teacher tries to help a student recall an event that took place during a field trip to the natural history museum by saying, "Remember, it was the time when you went off to see the skeletons." Which memory component was most directly involved?
A) Semantic memory
B) Short-term memory
C) Massed practice
D) Episodic memory

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D) Episodic memory.

Explanation:

Episodic memory refers to the ability to remember certain events in a person's life. These memories may be general or specific. For example, when you remember your first day at school (the environment, your partners' attitudes, the face of your teacher) specific episodic memory is a work; on the other hand, general episodic memory would store your overall experiences at school, over the years.

First, explain two of Caesar Augustus’s greatest accomplishments. Next, what do you consider to be the three most important causes of the collapse of the Western Empire? Please justify your choice.

Answers

1. Two accomplishments of Caesar Augustus are the Pax Romana and the financial reforms.

Explanation:

Caesar Augustus was a Roman emperor that has made a huge positive impact on the empire, even after his death. Among his many accomplishments, two tat stick out are the Pax Romana and the financial reforms.

The first Roman emperor managed to unite the people, but also through diplomacy, he managed to secure the borders and maintain good relations with the traditionally hostile tribes and empires. This resulted in a long period of relative peace, known as Pax Romana, making the majority of the European continent very safe and secure, as well as prosperous.

The financial reforms that he implement, especially the taxation system, brought in order in the empire. Not just that, but it made the empire much more powerful, as it constantly had an influx of money from the taxation, which in turn was used for further development of all sectors.

2. The three most important causes for the collapse of the Roman Empire are constant attacks by numerous tribes and empires, internal conflict, economic problems.

Explanation:

The mighty Roman Empire didn't lasted forever. At its peak it was the main power in the region, but that started to change gradually, with the end result being a collapse of it. There are numerous factors that contributed to this, some of which are the financial problems, constant attacks, and internal conflict.

The financial problems came to be because of the crumbling of the taxation system, poor harvests for prolonged period of time, as well as overusing the gold and silver and practically being left without any more to use. The internal conflict was sprung mostly because of the financial problems, as multiple local powerful people tried to be more independent and tried to obtain as much wealth as possible, neglecting the good of the empire.

A major problem were the constant attacks as well, as they contributed to gradual weakening of the military and the ability of the empire to defend itself. People like the Huns, the Gothic tribes, Vandals and others gradually managed to cause enough damage so that the empire is no longer able to defend itself and fell into the arms of foreign forces.

Gabe's roommate fell asleep about 25 minutes ago. Now, Gabe needs to awaken his roommate so that they can both get to a party on time. His roommate is sleeptalking about his girlfriend's cat. When Gabe begins laughing, his roommate wakes up. Gabe's roommate was MOST likely in _____ sleep.

Answers

Answer:

NREM- 2 sleep

Explanation:

NREM- 2 sleep -

It refers to as the very second stage of the sleep ,

In this step -

This stage of sleep is for around 20 minutes . The person gets very less aware about the surroundings .The heart rate and breathing rate becomes very regular . The temperature of the body reduces .

The living organism spend almost half of the sleep in this very stage .

The brain starts to generate rhythmic brain wave activity , which is known as the sleep spindles .

hence , from the given scenario of the question ,

The correct answer is NREM- 2 sleep .

Final answer:

Gabe's roommate was likely in a lighter stage of non-REM sleep when Gabe heard him sleep talking and could awaken him easily.

Explanation:

Gabe's roommate was most likely in non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) sleep, specifically in stage N1 or N2, when Gabe heard him sleep talking. Sleep talking can occur during any stage of sleep but is most commonly associated with non-REM sleep. This is further supported by the fact that Gabe's roommate woke up fairly easily, which is more likely to happen during the lighter stages of non-REM sleep than during the deepest stage (stage N3) or during REM sleep, when most muscles are paralyzed and the sleeper is less responsive to external stimuli.

Carl Rogers would say that a child who has done something wrong and whose parents communicate love while letting the child know the parents are unhappy with their action has experienced:_________ a) anger displacement. b) conflicted feelings. c) unconditional positive regard. d) a repressed expression of aggression. e) a positive phenomenal field.

Answers

Answer:

C. unconditional positive regard

Explanation:

a child who has done something wrong and whose parents communicate love while letting the child know the parents are unhappy with their action, but that they still love the child are practicing what Carl Rogers would refer to as unconditional positive regard. It means that the parent still completely accept and support the person as their child with agency to choose how to respond to the child's situation, and that no matter how wrong the child seem to be, they still love the child and even show it while letting the child know the parent are not happy with his/her actions.

Dr. Jones is developing a research study in which he plans to use the length of a participant's ring finger to determine mathematical prowess. At the most basic level, his indicator fails which test for validity?

Answers

Answer:

face validity

Explanation:

Face validity refers to the degree to which an assessment or test subjectively appears to measure the variable or construct that it is supposed to measure. In other words, face validity is when an assessment or test appears to do what it claims to do

Final answer:

Dr. Jones's research study using ring finger length as an indicator to determine mathematical prowess lacks content validity, as there is no established correlation between the two.

Explanation:

Dr. Jones's research study plan fails the content validity test for validity at the most basic level. Content validity refers to the extent to which a measurement reflects the specific intended domain of content. In this case, using the length of a participant's ring finger as an indicator to determine mathematical prowess does not seem to have a substantiated theoretical foundation that connects ring finger length with mathematical abilities. Hence, the measure does not appear to adequately reflect the content it is supposed to measure.

An agreement between a business seller and buyer, in which the seller agrees not to open a competing business within a specific time period and geographic area, is called a: Nondisclosure statement Restrictive covenant Bulk transfer Letter of intent

Answers

Answer:

Restrictive covenant

Explanation:

The restriction on the use of land to preserve the enjoyment and value of the adjoining land is called restrictive covenant.

They are binding legal obligation that are written into deed  of a property seller, the covenants can be compel or simple and penalty is levied against the buyers who do not obey them.

e.g A restrictive covenant on a residential property can prevent any business activities from being conducted on that property, it prevents the occupant from running a having a home office or running a home based business.

Answer:

restrictive covenant.

Explanation:

Restrictive covenant -

It refers to a type of agreement between two business partners , where one of the partner is disabled to start business with any other person for some specific period of time , is referred to as restrictive covenant .

Not following the condition can lead to pay penalties .

Hence , from the given information of the question ,

The correct answer is  restrictive covenant .

People tend to fixate first on high contrast or unique (relative to the surrounding area) points in a visual scene. This is a result of __________ and is a ___________ process.

Answers

Answer:

stimulus salience; bottom-up

Explanation:

Stimulus salience: In psychology, the term "stimulus salience" is defined as different features of specific objects in the surrounding environment that tends to attract an individual's attention. Salience may involve any of the feature's number such as fast movement, bright colors, and personal prevalence, etc,

Bottom-up processing: In psychology, the term "bottom-up processing" is determined as a phenomenon in which sensory information is being processed as soon as it comes in.

health According to recent research, happy marriages allow both partners to ____, meaning that they have opportunities to develop to their fullest potential.

Answers

Answer:

self actualize

Explanation:

happy marriages allow partners to be fulfilled with each other by making marriage a happy union which encourages them to develop to their full potential hence making their health and easier to live.

Final answer:

Happy marriages provide professional and personal opportunities for both partners to achieve their fullest potential, leading to greater life satisfaction, fewer health problems, and opportunities for personal and joint growth.

Explanation:

According to recent research, happy marriages offer professional and personal opportunities for both partners, meaning they have opportunities to develop to their fullest potential. These opportunities include coping well or living more healthily, having more time and less pressure, exploring new possibilities and activities, enhanced social connections, and acquiring new skills. Such marriages not only contribute to greater life satisfaction and fewer health problems, as described by Gallagher & Waite (2001) and Liu & Umberson (2008), but they also set a foundation for a society where individuals can lead healthy and successful lives.

This is achieved through the strengthening of relationships, finances, physical health, and other personal areas, thereby opening doors to never-before-thought-possible opportunities and encounters. Additionally, joint efforts in addressing health declines can strengthen rather than undermine a marriage, suggesting that marital happiness is a continuous effort that rewards partners with enriched lives both mentally and physically.

College provides a haven for several million potential workers who are classified as students rather than unemployed, which helps stabilize the job market. The stabilization of the market represents what Merton would describe as a ______________ of education. a.latent function b. complimentary function c. latent dysfunction d. manifest function

Answers

Option A

The stabilization of the market represents what Merton would describe as a latent function of education.

Explanation:

A latent function is one that is not consciously planned, but that, although, has a helpful impact on society. Latent functions are neither purposive nor leisurely but also provide benefits.

Latent functions of the institution of education involve the development of friendships among scholars who enroll at the corresponding school; the prerequisite of entertainment and socializing events and supplying poor students lunch when they would contrarily go hungry. Latent functions are that they usually go overlooked or uncredited, that is except they create negative outcomes.

wu observes children's responses to bulliying by watching them play in a park .This is an example of an A)Ethnographic study B)Natruralistic observation C0Structured observation D)Clinical interview

Answers

Answer:

Naturalistic observation B

Explanation:

Naturalistic  observation is a type of research observation method used by psychologist to monitor the behavior of the research subject in their natural environment. Example includes observing animals in their natural habitat.

Why do they make use of this method?

Sometimes it is just impossible to carry out some experiments in the laboratory, it might be very costly if you try it. Also if you monitor subjects in its natural environment they will be at ease, showing their true nature.

The Children's response will come naturally since they are in a natural fun environment. The researcher is employing naturalistic observation to monitor them

Final answer:

Observing children's responses to bullying by watching them play in a park is an example of an ethnographic study.

Explanation:

Naturalistic observation involves observing behavior in its natural context. In this case, Wu is observing children's responses to bullying by watching them play in a park. This type of study is an example of ethnographic study or field research. Ethnographic studies involve immersing oneself in the natural setting of a social community to observe and experience their everyday life and culture. Wu is observing the behavior of children in a natural setting, which falls under the category of a naturalistic observation.

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Suzanne works in an animal hospital. When a woman brings in a pet carrier, Suzanne can see from across the room that the animal inside is a cat. Suzanne is able to identify the animal quickly and accurately because she has seen many cats in her work experience. Suzanne's situation is an illustration of size, a monocular cue in vision.

Answers

Answer:

familiar                                                                                                                                                            

Explanation:

In psychology, the term "monocular cue" is being utilized to perceive "depth" by an individual using a single eye. Monocular cues generally involve "size". It is being used in-depth perception.

Familiar size: In psychology, the term "familiar size" is described as one of the visual cues which are being utilized to judge any specific object's distance. Therefore, an individual by discovering an object's size he or she can examine "depth perception" and the distance of the object.

In the question above, the given statement signifies the "familiar size" of monocular cue.

Final answer:

The scenario describes 'perceptual learning', a monocular cue. This is where recognition is improved through past experiences. Suzanne can immediately recognize a cat due to her previous experiences with cats.

Explanation:

The situation represents an example of a monocular cue in vision, specifically, perceptual learning. Monocular cues are depth cues that involve one eye, and perceptual learning refers to the process by which we learn to make more refined differentiations based on our experiences. In Suzanne's case, she can distinguish that the pet is a cat because of her past experiences with cats. Hence, over time, she has developed a refined ability to make quick and accurate differentiations between different animals.

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If an air parcel is given a small push upward and it falls back to its original position, the atmosphere is said to be ____. a. adiabatic b. unstable c. stable d. isothermal

Answers

Answer: stable

Explanation: An imaginary body of air to which may be assigned any or all of the basic dynamic and thermodynamic properties of atmospheric air and If an air parcel is given a small push upward and it falls back to its original position, the atmosphere is said to be stable. furthermore, The value of the environmental lapse rate is one of the main factors that determines whether the atmosphere will be stable or unstable. Warming the air above the ground and/or cooling the air next to the ground will make the atmosphere more stable.

College men and women were asked to rate their assessment of what is an attractive body size and what is an ideal body size in both men and women. Read the following statements and select which best reflects the findings of this very important study.

a. Females rated the smallest female body size as idea, while males' assessment of an attractive female size was larger a larger estimate.
b. Females rated an attractive female body size as being slightly larger than a male assessment of an attractive female body size.
c. Females felt that a smaller, more slender male body size was very unattractive, while males felt the same way about females' body size.
d. Females rated the largest male body size as attractive, while males' assessment of an attractive male size was the smallest.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option a. Females rated the smallest female body size as ideal, while males' assessment of an attractive female size was larger, a larger estimate.

Explanation:

The idea of body sizes is highly subjective. Each individual has a different liking towards the kind of body sizes they are attracted to and consider ideal.

According to the study, most Females rated the smallest female body size as idea, while males' assessment of an attractive female size was larger a larger estimate.

This clearly shows the perception of body sized among men and women from the vision of the opposite gender.

This is the second highest officer of state in 42 of 50 united states states.

Answers

Answer:

Lieutenant Governor

Explanation:

The Lieutenant Governor is the second highest officer in 42 of the 50 states of the United States. The role of the Lieutenant Governor is to assist the governor or act as the governor in his/her absence from office. He also presides over the states senate.

Answer: Lieutenant Governor

Explanation:In most cases, the lieutenant governor is the highest officer of state after the governor, standing in for that officer when they are absent from the state or temporarily incapacitated. In the event a governor dies, resigns or is removed from office, the lieutenant governor typically becomes governor. The qualifications for Lieutenant Governor are the same as that of the Governor: at least thirty years old, a citizen of the United States for at least fifteen years, and a resident of this state at least ten years before election. In the event a governor dies, resigns or is removed from office, the lieutenant governor typically becomes governor. In 26 states, the governor and lieutenant governor are elected on the same ticket, ensuring that they come from the same political party.

The Lieutenant Governor of the State of Georgia is an elected constitutional officer, the second ranking officer of the executive branch and the first officer in line to succeed the Governor of Georgia. The lieutenant governor is popularly elected every four years by a plurality and, unlike the governor, is not subject to term limits.[1]

The lieutenant governor must be:

at least 30 years old on the day he assumes offices

a resident of Georgia for at least six years on the day he is elected

an American citizen for at least 15 years.

states elects lieutenant governors in the midterm elections, that is, even years that are not presidential election years. For 2018 and 2022 are both lieutenant gubernatorial election years. Legally, the lieutenant gubernatorial inauguration is always set for the same day that the states General Assembly convenes. Future inaugurations will occur on the day fixed by legislature to convene itself.

Although he was wearing a pair of glasses that shifted the apparent location of objects20 degrees to his right, Lars was still able to play tennis very effectively. This best illustrates the value of:__________A) perceptual adaptation.B) retinal disparity.C) binocular cues.D) perceptual set.E) shape constancy

Answers

Answer:

This best illustrates the value of A) perceptual adaptation.

Explanation:

Perceptual adaptation refers to the ability our brain has to adjust to new visual conditions so that we can function normally. Even if Lars had been wearing glasses that shifted the apparent location in 40 degrees, his brain would still adapt and he would still play tennis normally. Psychologist G. M. Stratton conducted a series of studies in which he confirms perceptual adaptation can take place even when we see the world upside down. After a while, our brain gets used to it, and we are able to walk normally.

Answer:

This best illustrates the value of Shape Constancy (E)

Explanation:

Shape constancy is the tendency to perceive an object as having the same shape regardless of its orientation or the angle which we view it.

When children are developing phonological awareness skills, they typically start with developing capacity to manipulate ________ sound units before moving on to __________ sound units.

Answers

Answer:

words  , individual

Explanation:

As the children are developing their sense of the phonological awareness skills they tend to starts with the manipulation of the words with a rhythm sound unit and before they tend to arrive at the individual units of the words.

The correct choices for the blanks will be that the children develop the capacity to manipulate the rhythmic words sound units before they move to individual sound units.

Children develop their phonological awareness skills in a more fast, better and efficient way as they cannot exactly guess the word being spoke but they get used to the word's rhythm.

Phonological awareness skills refer to the skills inculcated by a child due to being in surroundings of a talkative environment and they get used to reacting to certain sentences they hear.

Rhythmic words sound units refer that the children may not be able to exactly guess or spell the word but it gets used to the rhythm of the word being spoken.

Individual sound units refer to the voice of an individual that differs from person to person in such a way that the sound is recognizable and the person can be identified by listening to such voice.

Hence, the correct choices for the statements are rhythmic words and individual sound units respectively.

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In order for the federal government to perform the functions that are expressly delegated to it, it is assumed that it has certain powers. What are these powers called?

Answers

Answer:

Implied Powers.

Explanation:

* The federal government is a national government which is considered as divider of power between the small and local government and the large and strong government.

* The federal government has some specific powers which are known as implied powers and expressed power also. Federal Government is responsible to set up post offices, managing the commercial and economical level of the Nation, maintaining the army force, declaration of the war, etc.

Renovation of a small compartment in a house boat or camping trailer that is too small for more than one person is an example of a(n) ________ resource constraint.

Answers

Answer: Physical

Explanation: physical resource constraint refers to the limitations of inputs available to complete a particular job which are primarily people time, equipment and supplies. in this scenario, Renovation of a small compartment in a house boat or camping trailer that is too small for more than one person is an example of a physical resource constraint.

A new client uses the services of an Investment Advisor and has requested that duplicate copies of statements and confirmations from his account be forwarded to the IA. Which of the following is true with regard to this request?[A] Such a request must be confirmed with each trade and the order ticket must specify that a duplicate copy is being sent.[B] The request and the name and address of the IA should be noted on the new account form.[C] The sales department of the firm should be informed since they will handle all paperwork.[D] The IA must have a power of attorney to receive duplicate copies.

Answers

Answer:

B] The request and the name and address of the IA should be noted on the new account form

Explanation:

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