An F1 plant that is homozygous for shortness is crossed with a heterozygous F1 plant. What is the probability that a seed from the cross will produce a tall plant? use a Punnett square to explain your answer and to compare the probable variations in the F2 plants.
Answers
Answer:
1/2 or 50%
Explanation:
Let's assume that the allele "T" gives a "tall" phenotype while the allele "t" gives a "short" phenotype to the plants. The genotype of the homozygous short plants would be "tt". The genotype of the F1 heterozygous tall plant would be "Tt". A cross between "Tt" and "tt" would give progeny in following ratio=
Tt x tt = 1/2 tall (Tt): 1/2 short (tt)
Therefore, there is 1/2 or 50% chance that the seeds from the given cross produce a tall plant.
The probability that a seed from the cross will produce a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{1}{2}\)[/tex] or 50%.
Here is the Punnett square for the cross between the homozygous short (tt) plant and the heterozygous (Tt) plant:
Out of these four possible outcomes, three result in a tall plant (since tallness is dominant and only one tall allele is needed for the tall phenotype). Therefore, the probability of getting a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\).[/tex]
However, the question asks for the probability that a seed will produce a tall plant, which means we are looking for the proportion of tall genotypes in the offspring. Since heterozygous tall (Tt) and homozygous tall (TT) are both tall, we count all instances of Tt and TT. In this case, there are no TT offspring, so we only count the Tt offspring.
There are three Tt offspring out of four total offspring, so the probability of a seed producing a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\)[/tex] or 75%.
For the F2 generation, if we were to self-fertilize the heterozygous tall (Tt) plants from the F1 generation, we would expect the following Punnett square:
The expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation would be 1:2:1 for homozygous tall (TT), heterozygous tall (Tt), and homozygous short (tt), respectively. This is because there is one TT, two Tt, and one tt outcome in the Punnett square.
In summary, the probability that a seed from the cross between a homozygous short plant and a heterozygous plant will produce a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\)[/tex] or 75%. The expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation from self-fertilizing the F1 heterozygous tall plants is 1:2:1 for TT:Tt:tt.
Related Questions
1. Psychologists have used four perspectives in their efforts to explain motivation. These include an emphasis on instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and: A) drive reduction. B) 360-degree feedback. C) refractory periods. D) basal metabolic rate. E) a fixed behavior pattern.
Answers
Answer:
A) drive reduction
Explanation:
Motivation is the urge that fuels and directs human with the energy to accomplish a given task. Motivational theory is accustomed with the role of searching for what drives individuals to work towards a goal or a task.
The drive reduction theory explains physiological ideology required bring out an aroused tension state that motivates an organism to satisfy the need.
Instincts Theory reflects innate and fixed pattern of complex behavior in animals. For example, making holes of crabs for safety.
Optimum Arousal Theory drive people to engage in certain activities in the quest to keep up with an optimum level of physiological arousal.
Hierarchy of motives: According to Maslow's pyramid, hierarchy of motives is explained based on need to satiate or quench the least physiological needs in order to be active before subsequent level needs.
The four perspectives psychologists use to explain motivation include instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and drive reduction. The correct answer is drive reduction, as it posits that our behavior is motivated by the need to fulfill biological needs.
Explanation:The four perspectives psychologists use to explain motivation are instincts, optimum arousal, a hierarchy of motives, and drive reduction. The drive reduction theory, option A, proposes that our behavior is driven by biological needs. For example, when you're thirsty, that need creates a drive to find water. This drive is then reduced once you've had a drink, thus fulfilling your body's need for water.
Others options like 360-degree feedback, refractory periods, and basal metabolic rate, although relate to psychology, they aren’t typically connected with the theory of motivation. The concept of a fixed behavior pattern could possibly be linked to the instinct theory of motivation, but it's generally not considered a separate theory of its own.
Therefore, the answer is A: drive reduction.
Learn more about Drive Reduction here:https://brainly.com/question/33042915
#SPJ6
most cells that have become transformed into cancer cells have which of the following when compared to normal, healthy cell?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation: Normal cells stop growing (reproducing) when enough cells are present.cancer cells will continue to grow even when there are enough cells present. This continued growth often results in a tumor (a cluster of cancer cells) being formed.
Cancer cells don’t interact with other cells as normal cells do. cancer cells dont respond to signals from other cells. Normal cells are either repaired or die (undergo apoptosis) when they are damaged or get old. Cancer cells are either not repaired or do not undergo apoptosis.
Normal cells secrete(release) substances that make them stick together(cluster) in a group. Cancer cells fail to make these substances, and can “float away to a distant region in the body.
cancer cells dont have the ability to spread metastasize.
Cancer cells dont exhibit maturity because they produce at a faster rate before each cell matures
Cancer cells have the ability to hide that is re-occur after it has shown to be gone.
Which phenotypic ratio is likely to occur in a dihybrid cross of two completely dominant, independently segregating gene pairs when both parents are fully heterozygous?
Answers
Answer:
9:3:3:1
Explanation:
If two parents for a dihybrid cross are fully heterozygous for two genes, the phenotype ratio comes 9:3:3:1. Here, the alleles of both genes should exhibit complete dominance-recessiveness. This means that one allele of a gene should be able to mask the expression of its another allele. Similarly, alleles of one gene genes should assort in a random manner during anaphase-I irrespective of the assortment of alleles of another gene.
Under these conditions, each parent produces four types of gametes in equal proportion. And the random fusion of these gametes gives progeny in 9:3:3:1 phenotype ratio.
For example, a dihybrid cross between TtRr and TtRr would produce progeny in the following phenotype ratio=
9 tall and red: 3 tall and white: 3 dwarf and red: 1 dwarf and white
Here the allele T gives "tallness" while the allele "t" gives "dwarfism". The dominant allele "R" gives "red flowers" while the recessive allele "r" gives white flowers.
In a dihybrid cross of two completely dominant, independently segregating gene pairs when both parents are fully heterozygous, the phenotypic ratio will likely be 9:3:3:1. This is because of independent assortment and dominance, and these proportions can be confirmed using a Punnett square.
Explanation:In a dihybrid cross of two completely dominant, independently segregating gene pairs when both parents are fully heterozygous, the phenotypic ratio is likely to be 9:3:3:1. This is due to independent assortment and dominance. When considering specific traits such as seed texture or seed color, you could expect that three quarters of the F2 generation offspring would express the dominant trait and one quarter would express the recessive trait. This can be broken down into two 3:1 ratios. Applying the product rule, the proportion of round and yellow (both dominant traits) F2 offspring would be (3/4 x 3/4) = 9/16. Similarly, the proportion of wrinkled and green (both recessive traits) would be (1/4 x 1/4) = 1/16. These proportions can also be confirmed using a Punnett square.
Learn more about Dihybrid cross here:https://brainly.com/question/30239727
#SPJ12
Simple sweat glands dispersed over the body surface that respond to increases in core and/or skin temperature and facilitate thermoregulation?
Answers
Answer:Eccrine sweatglnds.
Explanation:
These are major sweat gland concerned with sweat production in human,and other mammals.They are less distributed in the trunks and body extremities.But very distributed at the soles and palm.
The sweat they secreted help to cool the body temperature by making use of high latent heat of vaporization of water, to cool the core body temperature as the sweat evaporates through the sweat pores.
On a full-moon day, the moon rises at the time of sunset. When is the moon expected to set? A) At the time of sunset next day B) At the time of midday next day C) At the time of sunrise next day D) At the time of midnight next day
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is C) At the time of sunrise next day
Explanation:
As the moon moves in its orbit, its side where it gets illuminated by the Sun also changes.
On a full moon day, the moon rises at the time of sunset and sets at the time of sunrise the next day.
On the night of a third quarter, the moon rises at midnight and sets during the noon period of the other day.
At first quarter, the moon rises at noon and gets set by the time of mid- night.
Annie was recently told that she produces physiologically low level of leptin. What does this mean in terms of her likelihood of becoming obese compared to someone who produces physiologically normal levels of leptin?
A) she has a greater likelihood of becoming obese
B) she has a much less likelihood of becoming obese
C) she has an equal likelihood of becoming obese
Answers
Answer:
A) she has a greater likelihood of becoming obese
Explanation:
The arcuate nucleus and the paraventricular nucleus are the two regions of the hypothalamus that regulate the food intake by a person. The neurons of these regions release neuropeptide Y and melanocortin. Leptin is secreted by adipocytes in the body. When more triglycerides are stored in the body, more leptin is secreted into the bloodstream.
Leptin reduces the total fat content of the body as it inhibits the pathway that makes the person eat food. Leptin stimulates the release of neurotransmitter melanocortin that inhibits food intake. Under the lower leptin concentration in the blood, the neurotransmitter neuropeptide Y stimulates food intake. Therefore, lower leptin production is more likely to make Annie obese.
Fossilization continues even today. If you wanted to increase the probability that your deceased favorite pet would become fossilized, what actions would you take?
Answers
Answer:
Place the corpse in an environment where decomposition is slow (such as a swamp or bog).
Explanation:
If any living thing gets preserved or its trace remains after a long period of time then a fossil is said to be formed and the process by which it is formed is termed as fossilisation.
There are several factors which affects whether a particular component will get fossilised or not, some of them are :
1. Hardness of the material - the harder the substance the higher the chances of getting fossilized.
2. The environment - whether it causes decay or preservation.
3. Speed of burial - the faster the burial the higher the chances of fossilisation .
Therefore, keeping these factors in mind to increase the probabilty of fossilization the corpse should be placed in environemnt where there is slow decomposition and such environment is provided in places such as bogs or swamps.
Final answer:
To increase the chance of a pet's fossilization, one should bury it quickly in sediment and in an environment with mineral-rich water, protecting it from decomposition and environmental fluctuations.
Explanation:
If you wanted to increase the probability that your deceased favorite pet would become fossilized, you would need to take actions that mimic the conditions that lead to fossilization. Permineralization is the most common method of fossilization. To facilitate this, after the death of the pet, it should be quickly buried in sediment to protect it from scavengers, bacterial activity, and environmental fluctuations in temperature and moisture. The burial should also be in an environment with mineral-rich water to allow minerals to gradually deposit into the pet's bones and any other hard parts, forming a fossil over time. Information such as the location of the burial, type of sediment, and other environmental factors should also be recorded for future paleoanthropologists or scientists who study fossils.
Fill in the blank below with the vocabulary word that best completes the sentence.Natural selection leads to , a process of change in a population over time.
Answers
Answer:
Evolution
Explanation:
Natural selection is usually defined as a process by which an organism or a specific type of living species adapts to a new environment in order to grow, develop, reproduce and protect themselves from the predators. During this time of migration, evolutionary changes occur in organisms over a specific period of time. It occurs naturally and there are several factors that affect these changes occurring in an organism.
Evolution simply refers to the growth, development, and expansion of an organism that occurs over a definite time period.
Answer:
evolution
Explanation:
How do the external structures of the respiratory system coordinate with the internal structures of the respiratory system in the process of respiration?
Answers
Answer:
The co-ordinate efficiently and effective...
Explanation:
Well...it is a type of antagonistic mechanism based of Dalton's Law for PArtial Pressures. We take in O2 and Exhale CO2 very effectively because the partial pressure of oxygen is higher outside and lower inside lungs and vice versa for CO2. when the Air with 21% O2 content enter the lungs, the Alveoli that are special sacs filled with air absorb some of it through their membranes and by a process called membrane diffusion of gases. The Air with 16% O2 content is exhaled out by the antagonistic action of lungs and Diaphram muscles combined.
I observe that squirrels that live in the southeastern United States are much thinner than squirrels that live in the northeastern part of the country. I theorize that this is because the squirrels that live in the northeast have greater fat reserves for the winter months when food is scarce. Is this a scientific theory?
Answers
Answer:
No, it is not a scientific theory.
Explanation:
A scientific theory is a proposition that is made to explain the various phenomena that are occurring in nature and it is supported by experiments that have repeatability and well-analyzed results. Scientific theories are usually tested in experiments under controlled conditions and verified as well.In the given situation, the theory made by the observer is not being tested through any experimentation or quantification and therefore, it is just a hypothesis and not a scientific theory.In this activity, you will explore how DNA microarrays are being used as a tool for studying-and possibly treating--cancer 1 2 3 4 567 89 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 The data shown here were obtained from a DNA microarray study of gene expression patterns in 16 cancer patients. Although data for many more genes were obtained from the DNA microarray, only 12 specific genes of interest are shown. gene F gene T gene 2 gene P gene X gene U gene B gene H gene S ene K gene G gene Q
The data in the chart are color-coded as indicated by the key that appears below the chart. Red represents high relative gene expression and blue represents low relative gene expression.
Dala frem T R edub ㎡ ' Molecular Clessiicafor, of Cancer: Class Discovery rd Clos Prodcin by Gone Expresson Monikring Science 2BB 531 537 1999)
Which of the following conclusions do the data support? Select all that apply
3 -2.5 21.5 1 0.5 0 0.5 1.5 2 2.5 3 Normalized Expression low high
A) Gene K is more highly expressed in cells from patients in Group I than in cells from patients in Group ll.
B) For some genes, there is variation in the amount of mRNA present, even among patients in the same group
C) Cells from patients in Group I carry different sets of genes than cells from patients in Group II.
D) A different set of genes is transcribed in cells from patients in Group ' oompared to cells from patients in Group II
E) If you were given microarray data from the cells of a new patient belonging to either Group I or Group II, you would probably be able to tell which group the patient belongs to.
Answers
Microarray data attached
Answer:
B, D, E are consistent with the data in the microarray
Explanation:
A) False, if you look at the microarray graph, Gene K is red on the right side of the graph (where patients in group II are) and generally more blue on the left side where group I patients are, meaning it is less expressed
B) This is true, look for example at gene F, individual 3 expresses it strongly, whereas individuals 6 and 7 are quite low.
C) No - microarray data looks at the expression of genes, not the genes themselves.
D) Yes, you can see that generally, genes B-Q are highly expressed in group II patients but not group I. In contrast, genes F-U are not expressed in group II but more expressed in group I.
E) Yes, although the data is not always consistent, there are clear patterns in group II patients not present in group I.
Final answer:
The DNA microarray data support conclusions about differences in gene expression levels between cancer patient groups, with color codes indicating relative gene expression. Gene K shows higher expression in Group I if indicated by red, and there is variation within groups. The data do not suggest different sets of genes but rather varying expression levels, which can potentially assign a new patient to a group.
Explanation:
The analysis of DNA microarrays involves comparing patterns of gene expression between different samples, in this case between cancerous cells from different patients. The color codes on a DNA microarray heat map provide valuable insights:
Red indicates a high relative gene expression specific to cancer cells.Blue indicates a low relative gene expression or genes that are more active in non-cancerous tissue.Yellow indicates genes that are expressed at similar levels in both cancerous and non-cancerous tissues.Considering the given scenarios and color codes, let's assess the conclusions that the data support:
Gene K is more highly expressed in cells from patients in Group I than in Group II if the spots corresponding to gene K are predominantly red for Group I and less intensely red or blue for Group II.There is variation in the amount of mRNA present, even among patients in the same group, if the color intensity varies within a group for a particular gene.Patients from Group I and Group II do not carry different sets of genes; instead, the same genes can have different levels of expression in the two groups.A different set of genes is not necessarily transcribed; rather, the same genes may be transcribed at different levels in cells from the two patient groups.Using microarray data, you could likely determine to which group a new patient's cells belong based on the pattern and intensity of gene expression.According to the Clean Water Act, when is it legal to release pollution into a body of water?
A. when a permit has been issued
B. in an emergency situation
C. if it is organic
D. never
Answers
Answer:
A. when a permit has been issued.
Explanation:
The Clean Water Act refers to the primary federal act in the United States administering water pollution. The chief objective of this act is to preserve and rebuild the physical, chemical, and biological honor of the water of the nation.
According to the Clean Water Act, it is legal to release point source of pollution only in case of permission has been issued by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) which is introduced by Clean Water Act (CWA).
A nurse educator for a local home care company is teaching staff nurses on the use of the Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS). What statement will the nurse include when teaching about the OASIS?
Answers
Answer:
"Results are used to improve overall quality improvement efforts."
Explanation:
The Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) can be described as data which includes the elements for the detailed assessment of a home care patient. Outcome-based Quality Improvement can be framed from the outcome and assessment information set (OASIS). The Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) contains the descriptive clinical status, functional status and services needed by the hoke care patient. It is used for planning further patient care.
Results are used to improve overall quality improvement efforts are the correct statement when teaching about the OASIS.
What does a nurse educator neutralize a hospital?
Nurse educators assist nursing staff in developing and maintaining their competencies, advancing their professional nursing practice, and facilitating their achievement of educational and career goals.
These professionals understand the challenges faced by nurses and the way to convey critical and lifesaving knowledge to them.
The Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) can be described as data that includes the elements for the detailed assessment of a home care patient.
Outcome-based Quality Improvement can be framed from the outcome and assessment information set (OASIS).
The Outcome and Assessment Information Set (OASIS) contains the descriptive clinical status, functional status, and services needed by the hoke care patient. It is used for planning further patient care.
Therefore, Nurse educators in OASIS improve overall quality improvement.
Learn more about the Nurse educator here:
https://brainly.com/question/7212310
Mrs. Jones is to have hip surgery next Tuesday. She and her doctor have discussed using an auutologous blood transfusion. What does this mean for Mrs.Jones?
Answers
Answer:
The medical surgery is done to remove the damaged part or to make the body parts functional again if there is any problem in the proper functioning of the body.
Mrs. Jones has an autologous blood transfusion. This means the individual's blood is used for the transmission. Mrs. Jones will receive her own blood that she has deposited before the surgery. After the surgery the same deposited blood is used in the blood transfusion.
An ionic bond is formed when _____. See Concept 2.3 (Page 37) An ionic bond is formed when _____. See Concept 2.3 (Page 37) both atoms are equally attractive to electrons one atom transfers an electron to another atom both atoms are electrically neutral atoms are subjected to radioactive isotopes both atoms are nonpolar
Answers
Answer: The ionic bond is when one atom transfers an electron to another atom
Explanation:
Ionic bond is formed between oppositely charged substances - a positively charged substance, and a negatively charged substance.
Usually, an atom donates its electron (become positively charged) to another atom to complete its outermost shell (becoming negatively charged).
Thus, the formation of transfer of electrons creates an IONIC BOND
answer the question correclty please 50 POINTSS
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is A) 0%- no chance.
Explanation:
As we can depict from the chromosomes that the child gets, the child will have the alleles Dd for hair colour. As the allele for dark colour is dominant, hence the child will most likely have dark hair.
The punnet square for the child can be drawn as follows:
d d
D Dd Dd
D Dd Dd
The results of the punnet square show that there will be no chance for the child to have red hair.
Answer:
The correct answer is A)
Explanation:
There is only dark and blonde so there is no way it can come out red.
Childbirth in mammals would be an example of endocrine-controlled negative feedback, because the production of oxytocin during childbirth results in additional oxytocin being synthesized by the posterior pituitary gland.
a.trueb.false
Answers
Answer:
The answer is option a. False.
Explanation:
Childbirth in mammals is not an example of endocrine-controlled negative feedback mechanism. In negative feedback mechanism one of the end product controls the activity of the pathway to stop further release of the product. In the example, the production of oxytocin during childbirth resulted in further synthesis and secretion of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary.
Childbirth in mammals is an example of endocrine-controlled positive feedback mechanism.
Because organisms are made primarily of water, they resist rapid temperature changes. This useful quality is based on water's _____
Answers
Answer:
High specific heat capacity.
Explanation:
The specific heat capacity of water is the quantity of heat energy needed to raise 1 kg of water by one degree.
The high specific heat capacity of water is due to high hydrogen bonds which holds water molecules together, preventing their free movements.Therefore, large amount of energy is needed to raise water temperature. The hydrogen bonds also enabled water to store energy.
This features of water makes, plasma resistant to fluctuations in body and environmental temperature, and allows biochemical reactions to occurs at relatively constant rate.
For multicellularity to develop, there must be a mechanism of signaling among cells in the multicellular organism. Which of the structures in the cell membrane receives signals from the environment or from other cells?
Answers
Answer:
Receptors
Explanation:
The cell membrane has receptors integrated or embedded into to it known as Membrane receptors or trans-membrane receptors . Membrane receptors are specialized proteins and act in cell signalling by receiving extracellular molecules by binding to them.
In multi-cellular organisms cell signalling allows speciation o groups of cells and when the signal is released the membrane receptors are the ones that will receive it.
Swabbing the surface of your skin anywhere on your body and culturing that sample in the lab is likely to result in the growth of millions of bacterial cells on the culture plate, even if you practice good hygiene. True / False.
Answers
Answer: True
Explanation:
There is something called Skin flora. This refers to a group of microorganisms that reside on the skin. Staphlococcous aureus and Staphlococcous epidermidis are common examples. The Skin flora protects the skin from pathogenic organisms.
The allele for dimples (D) is dominant to the allele for no dimples (d). A man heterozygous for dimples marries a women who is also heterozygous for dimples. What is the mans genotype and the woman genotype .
Answers
Man's genotype is Dd and women's genotype Dd.
Man's phenotype= dimple
woman's phenotype =dimple
Explanation:
Dimples are usually considered a dominant trait, this means that the presence of a dominant allele will pass the trait of the dimple to the progeny.
Dimples are dominant traits that are said to be irregular as the trait appearance is affected by other genes also.
The allele dominant for dimple will pass the trait and those with recessive allele will have no dimple is the logic.
Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of the three
domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) rather than in a fourth separate domain?
A) Some viruses can incorporate their genome into a host's genome.
B) Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells.
C) Viruses are obligate parasites.
D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is D) Viruses are not composed of cells.
Explanation:
The reason why virus is not classified into the three-domain of life is that virus is not made up of cell and organisms that are present in the three-domain(bacteria, archaea, eukarya) are composed of cell.
Virus is only composed of nucleic acid and a protective protein coat called a capsid. So the virus is considered non- living when it is present outside the host because it does not show metabolic activities outside the host cell.
They are considered living when they are present in the host cell because there they perform metabolic activities and they reproduce there. So the correct answer is D). Viruses are not composed of cells.
Viruses are not classified in the three domains of life because they are not composed of cells and rely on host cells for reproduction.
Explanation:The main reason for not classifying viruses in one of the three domains of life (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) as opposed to a separate domain is because viruses are not composed of cells (Answer D). This characteristic distinguishes them fundamentally from all cellular life forms. Unlike the organisms in the three domains, which are all composed of one or more cells, a virus is simply a piece of genetic material (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat known as a capsid. They cannot carry out cellular processes on their own, including reproduction. Instead, they invade host cells and use the host's cellular machinery to reproduce, which is why they are also referred to as obligate parasites (Answer C). Answers A and B also touch upon these unique characteristics of viruses.
Learn more about Classification of Viruses here:https://brainly.com/question/35402185
#SPJ3
If you wanted to test whether or not a particular pain reliever was effective in the general population, you would need to design an experiment with an experimental group and a control group. What should be the only difference between these two groups?
Answers
Answer:
The explanation of any natural phenomena requires the proper observation, experiment and research methodology. The experimental design should not violate the ethics and do not cause harm to the living organisms.
The testing of any drug requires the involvement of the experimental group and control group. The experimental group must given the tested drug to known its effect and compared with the control group that will get the placebo understand the psychological effect of the drug.
The experimental group is given the experimental treatment and the control group is given either a standard treatment or nothing.
Using the same subject as control and experimental group will depend on the study design. If it is a crossover study, then it may be fine as different groups would undergo different interventions or control at various time points.For example: The testing of any drug requires the involvement of the experimental group and control group. The experimental group must given the tested drug to known its effect and compared with the control group that will get the placebo understand the psychological effect of the drug.Learn more:
brainly.com/question/17853081
A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify acetylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments using this procedure in Drosophila, she was readily successful in increasing acetylation of amino acids in histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see?a) decreased chromatin condensation.
b) inactivation of the selected genes.
c) activation of histone tails for enzymatic function.
d) increased chromatin condensation.
e) decreased binding of transcription factors
Answers
Answer:
a) decreased chromatin condensation.
Explanation:
Chromatin Condensation is the reordering of the long thin chromatin strands into pact short chromosomes that occurs in mitosis and meiosis. Decreased in chromatin condensation is depicted by a reduction in the volume of Chromosomes which is brought by certain Histone modifications. For example as given in the question; increasing acetylation of amino acids in histone tails takes place on the NH3+ groups of Lysine amino acid residues which therefore decreased chromatin condensation.
This is because increased acetylation take away the positive charge on the histones, thus decreasing the interaction of events occuring between the N-terminai tails of histones with the negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA. The effect of that event therefore contributes to the decrease chromatin condensation.
ction potentials typically move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body. This is due to which of the following?A. the temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spikeB. the temporary inactivation of sodium and potassium channels following the action potential spikeC. the movement of sodium ions out of the cell D. the myelination of the axon membrane
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. "the temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spike".
Explanation:
Action potentials, also known as "spikes" or "impulses", are electric impulses that neurons use to send information from the cell's body down to the axon. The impulses are created when ions travel across the neuron's membrane creating a depolarization current. This depolarization current is responsible for an temporary hyperpolarization of the axon membrane following the action potential spike. When neurons are hyperpolarized they are not able to produce another action potential. In consequence, actions potentials move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body, as well as, adjacent locations go trough similar depolarization processes.
ANSWER:
NONE OF THE ABOVE OPTIONS GIVEN ARE CORRECT.
Correct answer is that Action potentials typically move in one direction along the neuron away from the cell body because the absolute refractory period prevents a depolarization from occurring in the direction from which the impulse came.
EXPLANATION:
Axons are a key component of a neuron, they conduct electrical signals in the form of an action potential from the cell body of the neuron to its axon terminal where it synapses with another neuron. An axon is insulated by a myelin sheath throughout its length to increase the velocity of these electrical signals allowing signals to propagate quickly.
Axons which are covered by a myelin sheath, a multilayer of proteins and lipids, are said to be myelinated. If an axon is not surrounded by a myelin sheath, it is unmyelinated. Myelination is the formation of a myelin sheath. Myelin sheaths insulate axons to increase the speed of electrical signal conduction. This allows myelinated axons to conduct electrical signals at high speeds.
Once an action potential has occurred at a patch of membrane, the membrane patch needs time to recover before it can fire again. At the molecular level, this absolute refractory period corresponds to the time required for the voltage-activated sodium channels to recover from inactivation, i.e., to return to their closed state.
THE ABSOLUTE REFRACTORY PERIOD ensures that the action potential MOVES IN ONLY ONE DIRECTION along an axon. The currents flowing in due to an action potential spread out in both directions along the axon. However, only the unfired part of the axon can respond with an action potential; the part that has just fired is unresponsive until the action potential is safely out of range and cannot restimulate that part.
You can more easily prevent ___________________ or at least make sure they are detected early and managed well if you research those associated with your patient's diagnoses, diagnostics, and treatment, and if you report all abnormal dat
Answers
Answer: Diseases
Explanation:
As the saying goes 'prevention is better than cure', so also diseases can be easily prevented or managed well if only it is detected early or abnormal symptoms are quickly reported for diagnosis and treatment.
Early detection/diagnosis could help in disease prevention or its management in your body by
- administering vaccine to boost the immune system
- administering drugs to combat premature disease-causing organisms (pathogens)
- adjusting surroundings, lifestyle or diets to enhance body fitness
The scope and character of nursing practice underwent significant changes in the years following the Civil War. Which activity exemplifies nursing practice in the early years of the 20th century?
Answers
Answer:
Providing basic health care to recent immigrants to the United States.
Explanation:
The nursing profession includes the proper study of the health care and provide medical support to the patient. The nursing profession must include the respect and moral support for the nurses in the society.
The nursing practice increase in 20 century. The nurses construct the settlement house for the medical help of the poor immigrants of the U.S. The nurses provide the free medical checkups, schooling and medicine to the poor people.
Thus, the answer is providing basic health care to recent immigrants to the United States.
A 41-year-old woman has made the recent decision to start a family and iseager to undergo testing to mitigate the possibility of having a child with Down syndrome. Which of the following tests is most likely to provide the data the woman seeks?
A. Genetic testing of the woman
B. Genetic testing of the woman and the father
C. Prenatal blood tests
D. Ultrasonography
Answers
Answer: Prenatal blood tests
Explanation:
There is a more chance of occurrence of down syndrome in baby of the mother who are more than 35 years of age.
The prenatal blood tests of the child will led to the confirmation whether the child is suffering or not.
Before the prenatal blood tests there is no way for this confirmation. The tests of mother and father can only be used to find the chances of the baby suffering from down syndrome.
Although hydroelectricity is the least expensive energy source used to generate electricity most utility companies in The United States do not use this form of energy because?
Answers
The usage of hydroelectricity in the US is limited by geographical conditions, the potential environmental impacts of hydroelectric stations, the high costs and time consumption of setting up these stations, and inconsistency in electricity supply due to variability in water flow.
Explanation:Hydroelectricity, although a renewable and relatively inexpensive source of energy, is not more dominantly utilised by utility companies in the United States due to several reasons. Firstly, this method of generating power is dependent on geographical locations with considerable amounts of running water, making it less feasible in certain parts of the country where such resources are not readily available.
Secondly, despite hydroelectric power being a cleaner energy source compared to fossil fuels, the process of establishing hydroelectric stations and dams can lead to environmental concerns such as the displacement of habitats and ecological systems. The installation of these power plants can also be costly and time-consuming.
Lastly, despite hydroelectricity being renewable, the variability in water flow due to seasonal changes can impact the consistency of electricity supply. Therefore, while the United States does use this form of energy (around 10% of the total usage), it is limited by geographical, environmental, and operational factors.
Learn more about Hydroelectric Power here:https://brainly.com/question/15228003
#SPJ12
Identical twins in humans, which are deuterostomes, are formed when cells at the four-cell stage are separated. A grasshopper, which is a protostome, will die if the cells are separated at the four-cell stage. What does this indicate about when the cells are differentiated in the zygote? Why might deuterostomes differentiate their embryonic cells later than the protostomes?
Answers
Answer:
Identical twins or deuterostomes, at the four-cell stage are separated. A protostome, will die if the cells are separated at the four-cell stage:
What does this indicate about when the cells are differentiated in the zygote?
This indicates that although in both, deuterostomes and protostomes, the zygote first early four-stage stage divisions occur into a blastula or hollow ball of cells, deuterostome embryos develop into a parallel or perpendicular to the polar axis division, known as radial cleavage, w
hile many protostomes develops under spiral cleavage, this is when the protostomes and the deuterostomes start to differ.
Why might deuterostomes differentiate their embryonic cells later than the protostomes?
Because in deuterostomes display indeterminate cleavage, in which the developmental fate of the cells in the developing embryo are not determined by the identity of the parent cell. The notochord, a flexible rod structure in mesodermal cells, a structural element of chordates and of the early embryo of vertebrates, plays an organizational role in the nervous system development. In later vertebrate development, it becomes part of the vertebral column. The anus forms first from blastopore, and then followed by the mouth. This all occurs in the gastrulation stage, by the other hand in the protostomes the mouth opening is the first to be formed from blastopore, and later followed by the anus. Most protostomes are schizocoelomates, which means a strong mass of the embryonic mesoderm parts to frame a coelom, which develops through enterocoely.
Explanation:
The main difference between protostomes and deuterostomes are how they develop in the early embryo stages.
While in protostomes in the lower invertebrate phyla, the mouth appears before the anus during development, cleavage is spiral and determinate, and the coelom forms as a splitting of the mesoderm, but if the first four cells are separated, each cell is capable of forming a complete small larva; and if a cell is removed from the blastula, the other cells will compensate, i
n the deuterostomes, the oral end of the animal develops from the second opening on the dorsal surface of the animal; the blastopore becomes the anus.
Animals from both groups possess a complete digestive tract, but in protostomes the first opening of the embryonic gut develops into the mouth, and the anus forms secondarily. In deuterostomes, the anus forms first while the mouth develops secondarily.