Streptococcus infection carries all the symptoms mentioned.
Explanation:Streptococcus pneumoniae and Diplococcus pneumoniae are the organisms that gram positive bacteria. These bacteria enters the respiratory system from droplet method propagation which is through aerosol or water droplet inhalation which are infected with these bacteria. These bacteria leads to the severe antigen antibody reaction inside lungs which leads to high rate of mucous secretion. This leads to formation of pneumonia.
These bacteria are mainly seen in tropical countries with warm climate and humid environment. These bacteria doesn't spread through contagious methods like touching. But the protection must be taken as these patients cough can contain lakhs of these bacteria which are enough to infect a healthy individual.
Legionella infection
Explanation:
Legionella genus of bacteria are pathogenic gram-negative bacteria. The species Legionella pneumphila causes legionella infection which leads to legionellosis.
Legionellosis includes both the flu-like Pontiac disease as well as the acute highly severe pneumonia called the Legionnaires.
Legionellosis occurs when water droplets or aerosolized water contaminated with Legionella species is inhaled. These bacteria mostly are present in aquatic environment and can thrive and survive in water with warm temperatures.
Legionella infections are non-contagious and does not spread from person to person but only spreads through inhalation of contaminated water droplets.
Legionnaires causes lung inflammation and severe pneumonia and if untreated can also be fatal
.
Which of the following statements is false in reference to heart regulation? at rest, parasympathetic stimulation predominates baroreceptors measure the amount of sodium ions present in the blood sympathetic stimulation triggers the release of norepinephrine the movement of limbs is monitored by proprioceptors parasympathetic fibers travel via the vagus nerve
Explanation:
Baroreceptors are splash type nerve endings in the walls of veins and the heart that are invigorated by without a doubt the degree of, and changes in, blood vessel pressure. They are amazingly rich in the mass of the bifurcation of the inner carotid corridors (carotid sinus) and in the mass of the aortic curve. The essential site of end of baroreceptor afferent strands is the NTS. The capacity of the baroreceptors is to keep up foundational circulatory strain at a moderately steady level, particularly during an adjustment in body position. Flawless baroreceptors are very viable in keeping quick changes in pulse from minute to minute or hour to hour, but since of their versatility to delayed changes of circulatory strain (> 2 or 3 days), the framework is unequipped for long term regulation of blood vessel pressure.When you stifle a sneeze, you can damage delicate tissues because the pressure of the air that is not allowed to escape may rise by up to 45 kPa. If this extra pressure acts on the inside of your 8.4-mm-diameter eardrum, what is the outward force
Answer: The outward force is 5934.6N.
Explanation: Pressure is force per area. As the eardrum is a circular organ and has 4.2·[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]m of radius, the area of the organ will be:
Area = π·r²
Area = 3.14·(4.2.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex])²
Area = 13.2·[tex]10^{-2}[/tex]m²
To calculate force:
P = F/A
F = P·A
F = 45.[tex]10^{3}[/tex]·13.2·[tex]10^{-2}[/tex]
F = 5934.6N
The outward force is F=5934.6N.
The outward force would be 2.49 N
By definition, pressure is the ratio of force and area. In other words, the pressure exerted by a force on an object is the magnitude of the force divided by the area of the object on which the force is acting.
Mathematically;
Pressure = force/area
In this case,
pressure = 45 kPa (45,000 Pa)
diameter of eardrum = 8.4 mm (0.0084 m)
radius = 0.0042 m
area of eardrum = πr2
= 3.14 x 0.0042^2
= 0.0000554 m2
Force = pressure x area
= 45,000 x 0.0000554
= 2.49 N
More on force calculation can be found here: https://brainly.com/question/24107203
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________. A) it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation B) contractions would last as long as the refractory period C) tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action D) pacemaker cells would cease to spontaneously depolarize
Answer:
C. tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action.
Explanation:
The absolute refractory period of the cardiac muscle action potential refers to the time interval when the voltage gated sodium channels are inactivated. The absolute refractory period lasts ~180 msec. The action potential lasts 200-220 msec.
The refractory period of cardiac muscle is dramatically longer than that of skeletal muscle. This prevents tetanus from occurring and ensures that each contraction is followed by enough time to allow the heart chamber to refill with blood before the next contraction.
In order words, It is important for the cardiac muscle cells to have a longer refractory period, because if they were short like the skeletal muscles, the heart could enter tetanic contraction/summation which is when muscle is stimulated so rapidly that it does not have a chance to relax at all between stimuli.
The tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action. Thus the option C is correct.
What are tetanic contractions ?The tetanic contraction is the muscle that contraction is evoked when the motor nerve innervates the skeletal muscle and has an action potential at a very high rate.
At this stage, the motor unit has a max stimulated by the motor neuron and remains the same way for some time. An example is that of holding a heavy box.
Find out more information about the cardiac muscle.
brainly.com/question/24571594.
A scientist wants to be able to artificially produce a protein that is produced in the livers of frogs. The scientist has located all of the mRNA produced by the liver and produce the cDNA. What should the scientist do to find the gene that produced the protein apex?
Answer:
Mix the cDNA with the liver DNA.
Explanation:
DNA is the genetic material of all the living organisms except few viruses only where RNA acts as the genetic material. The eukaryotes genome consists of intron as well.
The complementary DNA is produced that are free from the introns. This cDNA can be used to identify the specific sequence and production of desired fragment. The cDNA must be mixed with the liver DNA and then the desired DNA must be produced in the specific vector to obtain the desired protein.
What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains
Answer:
Molecular Evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains.
Explanation:
There was an OLD 5 classification system :MoneraProtistsPlantsFungi2. NEW 3 domain system reflects :
A greater understanding of evolutionMolecular evidenceThus, the new domain includes :
Prokaryote : BacteriaProkaryote : Achaebacteria3. Eukaryotes :
ProtistsPlantsFungiAnimalsThe inhabitants of the planet Mendel have three alleles for hair color: red (R), white (W) and blue (b). The R and W alleles exhibit codominance, and individuals with an RW genotype have pink hair. The b allele is recessive, so only individuals with a bb genotype have blue hair. If a red-haired Mendelian mates with a white-haired Mendelian, what are all the possible hair color phenotypes their offspring might theoretically have
Answer:
4 RW pink hair color
Explanation:
Let the allele for red hair color = R
Let the allele for white hair color = W
Let the allele for blue hair color = b
Since R and W exhibit co dominance it means none of both traits have the tendency or capability to masked the other .
As such individual with RW genotype = PInk hair color
Allele b is recessive and only individuals with the genotype bb exhibit the blue allele
Now; if a cross occurs between a red-haired Mendelian and a white-haired Mendelian
i.e
RR × WW
we have
R R
W RW RW
W RW RW
So we have the following offspring :
4 RW = 4 pink
So theoretically , the possible phenotypes results to 4 RW pink hair color
All of them will have pink hair,that is RW
When a homozygous red hair (RR) is crossed with a homozygous white hair (WW), all the offsprings will have pink hair(RW).
This is because self y pollination of the pink hair F1 generation offsprings produces a mixture of F2 generation offsprings bearing red(RR), pink(RW) and white (WW) in the ratio of 1:2:1.
This reappearance of the red hair and white hair offsprings in the F2 generation shows that the alleles (R) and (W) have remained unaltered in the F1 generation.
All the offsprings will have a phenotypic pink hair because the (R) and (W) are not dominant over each other.
The effect of each allele is modified by the presence of the other to produce a third phenotype (the pink hair offspring). This is known as incomplete dominance. Here, the way the alleles for hair are segregated and transmitted agrees with Mendel's proposals.
The observed phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 in the F2 generation instead of the typical Mendelian 3:1 ratio is due to the hetero zygote showing a hair colour of its own.
Incomplete dominance is the ability of two alleles to produce a heterozygous phenotype that is different from the two homozygous phenotypes
Thomas Hunt Morgan selected Drosophoila melanogaster as his experimental organism. List at least three reasons the fruit fly is an excellent subject for genetic studies
Answer:
1. Single mating will produce hundreds of offspring.
2. A new generation can be bred every two weeks.
3. The fruit fly has only four pairs of chromosomes, which are easily distinguishable with a light microscope.
Answer:
1. Fruit flies are cheap can be grown fastly and easily
2. Fruit fly produces large number of offspring
3. There are only four easily distinguishable chromosomes in fruit fly
4. Breeding of new generation can be done after 2 weeks.
5. Female can be distinguished from male by size.
Explanation;
Thomas Hunt Morgan selected Drosophila melanogaster as his experimental organism because fruit flies are small size about the size of the pea. You can grow hundred of fruit flies in a bottle. They can be grown easily easily on a yeast culture. These can be inactivated and used for lab examination. Breeding of fruit fly can be done throughout the year and produces hundreds of offspring. Fruit fly grow fastly so less time is consumed. The Y chromosome is hooked and can be distinguished because female poses yy chromosomes.
Prokaryotic organisms have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic organisms have many origins where replication occurs simultaneously. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this observation?
Prokaryotic DNA is much smaller than eukaryotic DNA.
Answer:
Prokaryotic DNA is much smaller than eukaryotic DNA.
Explanation:
Prokaryotes are microscopic and simple organism and their genetic material is very much smaller than eukaryotes. So as the DNA of prokaryotes is smaller therefore only one origin of replication is sufficient to replicate the DNA in them on time.
As eukaryotes have much larger DNA so one origin of replication is not sufficient to replicate the DNA of eukaryotes until the cell cycle completes, therefore, to complete the DNA replication at the time the DNA must have multiple origins of replication.
Which features is a significant difference in the function of dna polymerases versus rna polymerases?
Answer:
the ansier is
Explanation:
c adobina;
DNA polymerases require a primer and have proofreading functions, while RNA polymerases can initiate synthesis without a primer and use uracil-containing ribonucleotides. RNA polymerases are more complex in eukaryotes, involving different types for synthesizing various RNA molecules.
Explanation:A significant difference in the function of DNA polymerases versus RNA polymerases is found in their operational mechanics and biochemical requirements. DNA polymerases, such as DNA polymerase I in prokaryotes, require a primer to initiate DNA synthesis and possess 5'→3' exonuclease activity to remove these RNA primers. DNA polymerases also have proofreading abilities, enabling them to correct errors during DNA replication.
In contrast, RNA polymerases do not require a primer to begin transcription. Instead, they are capable of initiating RNA synthesis from scratch. Furthermore, RNA polymerases use ribonucleotide triphosphates (NTPs) that contain uracil, instead of thymine found in DNA. RNA polymerases in eukaryotes are also more complex than those in prokaryotes, with three main types (RNA polymerase I, II, and III) each made up of more than 10 subunits and needing a distinct set of transcription factors to initiate transcription.
Dr. Sue Jickells is doing research to learn how things criminals may touch, such as explosives, cigarettes, and drugs, can leave behind traces on the skin. When identified and studied, these trace substances could tell us much more about the lives of fingerprint donors than just their ___________________.
Answer: Identities
Explanation:
When studying about the explosives, cigarettes and drugs then they tend to trace the identities and lives of the people.
The finger prints of the criminals can tell us different things about their lifestyles. They can give us an idea that whether they already have a previous criminal record or not.
Touching anything that can leave a finger print on it which can be used used to reveal the identity of the person.
Final answer:
Dr. Sue Jickells's research into trace substances on criminals' skin can reveal more than just their unique fingerprint patterns. Forensic geneticists use DNA fingerprinting to match tiny amounts of tissue found at crime scenes to suspects' DNA. This technology has broad applications in both forensic science and other fields of study.
Explanation:
Dr. Sue Jickells's research aims at understanding how trace substances left by criminals on surfaces they come into contact with can provide in-depth information about the individuals, beyond just their fingerprint patterns. Fingerprints are unique to every individual, with their general characteristics being genetically determined yet forming uniquely during development, even in identical twins. Traces of substances like explosives, cigarettes, and drugs can be analyzed to gain insights into the activities and habits of a person leaving a fingerprint, implying a potential connection to a crime.
Forensic geneticists can match traces of human tissue found at crime scenes to a specific person's DNA. Even small amounts of tissue can be used for DNA evidence, which is then amplified using PCR and compared to DNA databases such as CODIS to find matches. This process, known as DNA fingerprinting, is pivotal in forensic science for identifying suspects and has applications ranging from paternity testing to wildlife studies and food provenance.
Kangaroo rats, kangaroo mice, and pocket mice are found only in the deserts of the Southwestern United States. They share a number of features, including external, fur-lined cheek pouches, which they use to gather and transport seeds to their burrows. But they are also quite different from one another in size, overall shape, behavior, and other features. The best explanation for their similarities and differences is that A. the species are not closely related evolutionarily and that any similarity is due to the fact that they live in similar environments. B. the desert environment forced each species to develop traits allowing it to survive and reproduce. Each species represents a different way in which a small mammal can survive and reproduce in the desert. C. the species share a common ancestor (one that had, among other traits, external fur-lined cheek pouches), and natural selection has resulted in each having specific adaptations for its own environment. D. natural selection has resulted in each species having specific adaptations to its own environment, but the species do not share a common ancestor. E. None of the above.
Answer:
C. the species share a common ancestor (one that had, among other traits, external fur-lined cheek pouches), and natural selection has resulted in each having specific adaptations for its own environment.
Explanation:
The best explanation for their similarities and differences is that kangaroo rats, kangaroo mice, and pocket mice must have evolved from a common seed-eating ancestor that has eternal, fur-lined cheek pouches, which serve as structures for gathering and transporting of grains. We can infer that: evolutionary change by natural selection, as a result of change in environmental conditions, brought about divergence as several species evolved differently in response to their changing environment. Thus, different features were developed by each species to make them better adapted to their environment.
The similarities and differences among kangaroo rats, kangaroo mice, and pocket mice can be best explained by their common ancestry and natural selection shaping each species into adapted forms for their specific desert environments. Hence the correct option is C.
The best explanation for the similarities and differences among kangaroo rats, kangaroo mice, and pocket mice . the species share a common ancestor (one that had, among other traits, external fur-lined cheek pouches), and natural selection has resulted in each having specific adaptations for its own environment.These species have adaptations that allow them to survive in harsh desert conditions. The presence of external fur-lined cheek pouches is a shared trait suggesting a common ancestor, whereas the variations in size, overall shape, behavior, and other features point towards the role of natural selection in shaping these species to fit into their specific niches within the desert ecosystem.The convergent evolution seen in these species, due to living in similar arid environments where water conservation is critical, is an example of similar ecological pressures leading to similar adaptations, such as highly efficient kidneys found in the kangaroo rat, which enable it to survive with minimal water intake.
When two plates form a subduction zone, which plate will subduct?
A. The continental plate
B. The less dense plate
C. The denser plate
D. Both plates are equally likely to subduct.
Answer:
C. The denser plate
Explanation:
The denser plate of the two (usually the oceanic plate) will subduct down into the mantle. I remember learning this in Geology 101 last year!
In subduction zone, the denser plate subduct under the less dense plate. Option C is correct.
Subduction Zone:
It is an area where one tectonic plate thrust over the other at the rate of several centimeter per year. These are the seismogenic zone, where earthquake occur frequently.
In the subduction, denser tectonic plate is recycled in the mantle with slow rate because less dense plate float over the mantle more than the dense plate.
Therefore, when two plates form a subduction zone, the denser plate will subduct into the mantle.
To know more about Subduction Zone:
https://brainly.com/question/1358208
Where is dense connective tissue found on the surface of a long bone
Answer: In the diaphysis.
Explanation:
Infants are born with a passive immunity that occurs when immunoglobulin antibodies cross the placenta from the maternal circulation prior to birth. Which immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta?
Answer:
Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
Explanation:
There are five classes of human antibodies:
IgG IgM IgD IgAIgEIgG is the most abundant and the only one capable of crossing the placenta. IgG is present in all body fluids and protects against infections.
Antibodies typically act extracellularly in body fluids and are therefore considered part of the humoral branch of adaptive immunity. True or False
Answer: True
Explanation:
Antibodies typically act on the extracellular fluid and is a part of the humoral branch of the adaptive immunity.
The humoral immunity can be defined as the immunity which is mediated by the macro molecules found in the extracellular fluid.
It is called humor because found in the fluids of the body. It also involves antibodies mediated immunity.
The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following except
OPTIONS:
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) the venae cavae.
C) the spleen.
D) lymph nodes.
E) lymph.
Answer:
B) the venae cavae.
Explanation:
The lymphatic system is an organ system that consists of a network of lymphoid tissues, lymphatic vessels and organs, which perform functions such as removal of toxins and unwanted materials, as well as production of immune cells that helps primarily in fighting against infection.
Lymphatic vessels, the spleen, lymph nodes, and lymph are all part of the lymphatic system.The venae cavae are two large vessels that empty deoxygenated blood received from all parts of the body into the right atrium. They are not part of the lymphatic system.
18. Which of the following statements describes one reason that plant oils are generally healthier for human consumption than animal fats? A) Plant oils usually contain more unsaturated fatty acids than animal fats. B) Plant oils usually contain more trans fatty acids than animal fats. C) Plant oils usually have a higher degree of saturation than animal fats. D) Plant oils are glycerol based rather than phospholipid based. E) Plant oils have shorter chain fatty acids than animal fats.
Answer: A) Plant oils usually contain more unsaturated fatty acids than animal fats.
Explanation: Plant oil have more unsaturated fats which is more healthier to consume than saturated fats. Animal fats are known to contain saturated fats which makes it unhealthy for consumption.
Saturated fats have a high health risk when consumed, it builds up cholesterol level in the body. This cholesterol can cause atherosclerosis, cardiovascular disease and other health issues.
What is the ploidy of the zygote produced by fertilization
Answer:
The ploidy of the zygote produced by fertilization is diploid.
The ploidy level of a zygote that is produced by fertilization is diploid.
A zygote is the initial cell formed when two gametes, an egg (female gamete) and a sperm (male gamete) fuse during the process of fertilization. It is the earliest stage of development in sexually reproducing organisms.
After fertilization, the zygote contains the complete set of chromosomes, half from each parent. It carries the genetic information that determines the characteristics of the offspring. The zygote undergoes rapid cell division through a process called cleavage. It results in the formation of an embryo.
Learn more about zygote, here:
https://brainly.com/question/29769026
#SPJ6
The phylogeny of the family Hominidae indicates that living humans share a most recent common ancestor with the lineage including chimpanzees and bonobos. Modern humans and gorillas share a more distant common ancestor. Gorillas, chimpanzees and bonobos walk on the knuckles or fists of their forelimbs while humans do not. What trait that evolved in the Tribe Hominini lineage explains this difference?
Answer:
The trait of walking on the knuckles or fists of their forelimbs explains this difference.
Explanation:
A phylogenetic tree can be described as a diagram which shows the ancestral history of organisms, It helps us to recognize which organisms might have had a common ancestor in the near past.
Hominini can be described as a primate of a taxonomic tribe which comprises those species regarded as human or directly ancestral to humans.
The above description shows that humans got separated from these organisms because these organisms had the trait of walking by knuckles.
The trait that evolved in the Tribe Hominini lineage explains the given difference is called;
Bipedalism
In the history of the phylogeny of the family, it shows the history of formation of organisms.
Now, we are told that Gorillas, chimpanzees and bonobos walk on the knuckles or fists of their forelimbs while humans do not.
Now, this motion of movement described in the question is one of terrestrial locomotion where an organism moves by means of its two rear limbs or legs.
This manner of movement is called Bipedalism.
Read more at; https://brainly.com/question/2877671
A student builds a model of an atp molecule out of some scraps she finds at home. she uses a block of wood for the bulk of the molecule which she labels adp. she attaches the block to a spring and then compresses the spring between the block and a smaller round paper weight. what does the coiled spring represent in an actual molecule of atp?a) the covalent bond between the last phosphate and the middle phosphateb) the adenine partc) the covalent bond between the ribose and the first phosphated) the very last phosphate groupe) the ribose sugar
Answer:
a) the covalent bond between the last phosphate and the middle phosphate
Explanation:
The ADP is composed by a molecule of Adenine, Ribose and two Phosphate groups. The addition of a paper weight in the spring represents the last phosphate added in a ADP, resulting in a ATP. The last phosphate connected with Ribose by a covalent bond, represented by the round paper weight connected to a spring, can be easily detached in order to provide energy to the cell by a process called dephosphorylation. The spring compressed represents the energy of the bond. In the model the compressed spring is represents the potential energy, but in the bond the energy is chemical, which will lead into a electron transference reaction.
An articulation in which bones are joined by ____________ is called a synchondrosis. Functionally, all synchondroses are ____________ and thus are classified as ____________ . The ____________ in children form synchondroses that bind the epiphyses and diaphysis of long bones. When bones stop growing, ____________ replaces the synchondrosis and it no longer exists. Other examples of synchondroses are the ____________ synchondrosis found between some cranial bones of the skull and ____________ , the articulations between each bony rib and its respective costal cartilage.
Answer:
1. hyaline cartilage
2. immobile
3. synarthroses
4. epiphyseal plates
5. osseous tissue
6. sphenoid-occipital
7. costochondral joints
Explanation:
Synchondroses is a cartilaginous joint that is attached by hyaline cartilage in the body that can be temporary or permanent. These bones are immobile as the are not freely mobile or movable so classified as the synarthroses.
The great example of such joints is epiphyseal plates. In children epiphyseal platees form Synchondroses that bind the epiphyses and diaphysis of long bones. Osseous tissue occurs and replace synchondrosis once it does not grow further. Two other examples are sphenoid-occipital costochondral joints.
Thus, the correct answers are :
1. hyaline cartilage
2. immobile
3. synarthroses
4. epiphyseal plates
5. osseous tissue
6. sphenoid-occipital
7. costochondral joints
Synchondrosis is an immovable joint formed by the presence of cartilage between bones. It is found in children's growth plates and other areas of the body. When bones stop growing, the synchondrosis is replaced by ossification.
Explanation:An articulation in which bones are joined by cartilage is called a synchondrosis. Functionally, all synchondroses are immovable and thus are classified as fibrous joints. The growth plates in children form synchondroses that bind the epiphyses and diaphysis of long bones. When bones stop growing, ossification replaces the synchondrosis and it no longer exists. Other examples of synchondroses are the spheno-occipital synchondrosis found between some cranial bones of the skull and costochondral joints, the articulations between each bony rib and its respective costal cartilage.
Learn more about Synchondrosis here:https://brainly.com/question/34358797
#SPJ3
You have learned that tape or adhesive bandages must be removed carefully from the skin on patients who are elderly to avoid tearing their fragile skin. What accounts for the fragility of their skin?
Answer:
There are fewer collagen and elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis as we age, contributing to wrinkling and increased susceptibility to tearing of the skin.
Explanation:
As we age, environmental damage, such as ultraviolet radiation, and decreased ability of our fibroblasts to renew collagen and elastic fibers make our skin thinner and more vulnerable to mechanical trauma.
Loss of collagen and elastic fibers from the dermal layer of the skin accounts for the fragility of the skin of elderly people.
What are the layers of the skin?
Our body’s largest organ is the skin. It is made up of proteins, water, fats, and minerals. The skin performs the function of protecting the body against the attack of germs. It also helps in regulating the temperature of the body. There are nerves present in the skin which can aid one in feeling different sensations like heat and cold.
The skin of our body, in combination with our nails, hair, oil glands, and sweat glands. All of these are part of the integumentary system of our body. The word Integumentary refers to the outer covering of the body.
There are three layers of tissue that make up the skin. These are
Epidermis: It is the top layer of the skin. Dermis: it is the middle layer of the skin. It is also the thickest layer of the skin. Hypodermis: It is the bottom or fatty layer of the skin.
Therefore, the loss of collagen and elastic fibers from the dermal layer of the skin accounts for the fragility of the skin of elderly people.
Read more about skin layers, here
https://brainly.com/question/12057617
#SPJ6
An old dna strand is used as a _____ for the assembly of a new dna strand.
Who is considered to be the first nursing theorist who conceptualized nursing in terms of manipulating the environmentWho is considered to be the first nursing theorist who conceptualized nursing in terms of manipulating the environment
Florence Nightingale is recognized as the first nursing theorist to conceptualize nursing by manipulating the environment for better patient care.
Explanation:The individual who is considered to be the first nursing theorist who conceptualized nursing in terms of manipulating the environment is Florence Nightingale. Nightingale is renowned for her work during the Crimean War, where her approach to improving sanitation, hygiene, and patient care fundamentally changed the practice of nursing. Her theories on the role of the environment in patient health led to the development of modern nursing as a profession that emphasizes not only medical care but also the management of a patient's environment to promote recovery.
In a phospholipid bilayer, the __________.a. phosphate groups are hydrophobic. b. fatty acid tails are ionized. c. fatty acid tails are hydrophilic. d. proteins are located only between the two layers. e. phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm.
Answer:
Option-E
Explanation:
The phospholipid bilayer is the layer which forms the outer membrane of the cell.
The phospholipid layer is amphipathic as it contains both the hydrophilic and hydrophobic portions.
The phospholipid is composed of the glycerol attached to phosphate groups which form head or hydrophilic region and the 3 fatty acid tails which form the hydrophobic portion.
The head or hydrophilic portion is arranged in the layer facing the outer external portions and the inside of the cytoplasm as the lipid layer exist in the bilayer.
Thus, Option-E is correct.
During exercise we might expect blood vessels in the skeletal muscle to be somewhat _______________ and the blood vessels in the digestive organs to be somewhat ____________. A) Constricted, ConstrictedB) Dilated, DilatedC) Dilates , constricted
Answer:
C. Dilated and Constricted
Explanation:
Why does synthetically produced RNase refold incorrectly if the reducing agent is removed before urea removal?
Explanation:
The high concentration of urea causes unfolding of protein and thus results in loss of function of a protein. The urea interacts with the protein and prevents the folding of a protein. During oxidation, the disulfide bonds that are required for proper functioning and stabilization of protein are formed, while in the presence of urea, the disulfide bonds are not positioned correctly. The protein oxidation results in covalent modification of a protein that results in the change of physical and chemical properties of a protein. The change of physical and chemical properties of protein after oxidation and in the presence of urea cannot be modified even after the removal of urea. Thus, protein does not fold properly.Hence the right answer is "disulfide bonds are not positioned correctly rather than week bonding interaction"
A drug is tested in the laboratory and is found to create holes in both mitochondrial membranes. Scientists suspect that the drug will be harmful to human cells because it will inhibit
Answer:
D) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation:
From the available options:
A) the citric acid cycle.
B) oxidative phosphorylation.
C) glycolysis.
D) the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
The mitochondrial membrane is a structure that surrounds the matrix of the organelle. The inner membrane of the mitochondrion has proteins that functions in electron transport and synthesis of ATP. Electrons are supplied into the chain from the citric acid cycle that takes place in the matrix.
Hence, if a drug is known to damage mitochondrial membranes, it will affect both the citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation accordingly because the the electron generated from citric acid cycle will be redundant and causes the cycle to stop and without the electron transport chain, ATP cannot be synthesized through oxidative phosphorylation.
The correct option is D.
Two members of the excavate clade that can cause disease are:______. a. euglenids and kinetoplastids. b. dinoflagellates and apicomplexans. c. loboseans and plasmodial slime molds. d. cercozoans and foraminiferans. e. diplomonads and parabasalids.
Answer:
Two members of the excavate clade that can cause disease are diplomonads and parabasalids
Explanation:
The excavate clade comprises of unicellular organisms which are eukaryotic. This group contains free-living organisms as well as organisms which form symbiotic relationships.
The diplomonads can be described as a group of flagellates which are considered to be parasitic. Some of them are even parasites to the humans.
The parabasalids are a group of flagellated protists within the supergroup Excavata. These organisms also form parasitic relationships.
If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?1. A and D2. B and D3. B and C4. D and E
Answer:
The correct answer is 4. D and E
Explanation:
Organisms are divided into seven major levels of classification and these are Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. The highest level here is the kingdom and the smallest level is species.
If we move from kingdom to species the structural homology increase and when we move from species to kingdom structural homology and relatedness decreases.
Therefore as class is higher domain than order so the organism in order will show more degree of structural homology with each other than class therefore the correct answer is 4.
There are different levels on which each animal is classified and these levels are known as hierarchy levels.
These levels are as follows:-
Kingdomphylumclassorder and etcThese are the levels on which animals are placed that have same characters. These lower-level shares the same feature as they shared the same habitat.
According to the question, the correct option for the problem is 4 that is D and E as they belong from the lower hierarchy level.
For more information, refer to the link:-
https://brainly.com/question/23345126