After 2 weeks of training Amanda learned a total of 5 appetizer recipes after 6 weeks of training how much appetizers will she learn?

The answer to this one would be 2.

Answer: 2

Step-by-step explanation:

1 1/2 divided 3/4

First make all a fraction

3/2 divided 3/4

3/2*4/3 inverted

2

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

You would start by dividing

3 by 4. Then multiply 3/4 and 4. The 4s would cancel out leaving you with 3.  3/ 4×4=3

hope this helps

Final answer:

To answer the student's question, first find the quotient of 3 and 4, which is ¾, and then multiply that result by 4 to get the final answer of 3.

Explanation:

The student is asking for the result of multiplying 4 with the quotient of 3 and 4. To solve this, first calculate the quotient of 3 and 4, which is ¾. Then, multiply this result by 4.

Step 1: Quotient of 3 and 4 = 3 ÷ 4 = ¾

Step 2: Multiply the quotient by 4 = ¾ × 4

When you calculate step 2, you get:

¾ × 4 = (3 × 4) / 4 = 3

So, 4 times the quotient of 3 and 4 is 3.

Answer:

8

x

2

+

22

x

y

+

15

y

2

Step-by-step explanation:

yeet

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

36x + 12y + 24 = T

Step-by-step explanation:

If Sahil has 36 packs of x pencils, then x would equal the number of pencils in each pack. Same thing goes for y. 12 packs of y pencils and y will be the number of crayons in each pack.

36(x) = Total number of pencils.

12(y) = Total number of crayons.

24 = The numbers of erasers which is given.

36x + 12y + 24 = Total numbers of items.

Answer: [tex]0.8[/tex] pages per hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this exercise it is important to know that, by definition, Direct variation equations have the following form:

[tex]y=kx[/tex]

Where "k" is the constant of variation.

Therefore, it is a straight line that passes through the origin.

In this case, given the graph attached in the exercise, you can follow these steps in order to find the constant of variation:

Step 1: You need to choose any point on the line. Let's choose the point (5,4).

Step 2: Now you must ubstitute the coordinates of that point into  [tex]y=kx[/tex]. Then:

[tex]4=k(5)[/tex]

Step 3: Finally, you must solve for the Constant of variation "k", in order to find its value. Therefore, you get that this is:

[tex]k=\frac{4}{5}\\\\k=0.8[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

a vertical line has an undefined slope....(8,6).....its equation is x = 8 because no matter what y is, x will always be 8.

but u need it in standard form Ax + By = C

so it is written as : x + 0y = 8 <===

A = 1

B = 0

C = 8

Ax + By = C will be a vertical line passing through point (8,6) for values of A = 1 , B = 0 and C = 8.

What is a vertical line ?

In a coordinate plane, a line parallel to the Y-axis is called vertical Line. Any point in this line will have the same value for the x-coordinate.

We know that the x-axis has lines that run vertical then if you have a point use your x-ordinate.  

The equation of a vertical line is :

x = C

here : C is the value of the x- coordinates the line passes through.

In the given question we have to find out the values of A , B and C for which Ax + By = C be a vertical line passing through point (8,6).

Here , the coordinate of point (x , y) is (8 , 6).

So , the equation of vertical line will be x = 8.

So , if we compare it with the general form of line , Ax + By = C, then we get :

8A + By = 8

So , values of A , B and C :

A = 1, B = 0, C = 8

Therefore , Ax + By = C will be a vertical line through point (8,6) for values of A = 1 , B = 0 and C = 8.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5) D  2000/200 = 10

6) C 90/9 = 10

7) B 80/8 = 10

8) A)   10 times 2 =10*2 = 20

Answer:

The true statement is: A. The range for Week 1 equals the range for Week 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's recall that the range of a data set is the difference between the largest number and the smallest number.

As we can confirm in the plot for week 1, the range is:

Range for week 1 = Largest number - smallest number

Range for week 1 = 89 - 62 = 27

In the same way, we can confirm in the plot for week 2 that the range is:

Range for week 2 = Largest number - smallest number

Range for week 2 = 89 - 62 = 27

Ranges for week 1 and 2 are equal, thus,

The true statement is: A. The range for Week 1 equals the range for Week 2.

Answer:

21

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

18 and 9/10

Step-by-step explanation:

if you add 4/5+3/5=7/5 or 1.4.       3.5*5=17.5, then you add them together to get 18.9 or in the fraction version= 18 and 9/10

Answer:

0.36 or [tex]\frac{9}{25}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

9/20=.45

4/5=.8

Answer: .36

15/60+12/60+10/60= 37/60

Answer:

$56?

Step-by-step explanation:

I think you get 100%-30%=70%.

70%=0.70

0.70*$80= $56

Answer:

1/5 3/8 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The AP is, 1 , 6, 11, 16, 21, 26, 31, .....................

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question;

We are required to find the AP;

nth term = a + (n-1) d , where a is the first term and d is the common difference

5th term = a + 4d

7th term = a + 6d

5th term + 7th term = 2a + 10d = 52  ..........eqn 1

10th term = a + 9d

2a + 10d = 52

a + 9d = 46

Multiplying the second equation by 2, we get;

2a + 10d = 52

2a + 18d = 92

Eliminating a by subtracting the two equations; we get;

-8d = -40

   d = 5

Solving for a

a + 9d = 46

   a = 46 - 9d

      = 46 - 9(5)

      = 46 - 45

   a  = 1

Thus, the first term, a= 1 and the common difference, d= 5

Therefore;

First term = a = 1

Second term = a + d = 1 + 5 = 6

Third term = a + 2d = 1 + 2(5) = 11

Fourth term = a + 3d = 1 + 3(5) =16

Fifth term = a + 4d = 1 + 4(5) = 21

Sixth term = 1 + 5d = 1 + 5(5) = 26

Seventh term = 1 + 6d = 1 + 6(5) = 31

Thus,

The AP is, 1 , 6, 11, 16, 21, 26, 31, .....................

Answer:

$45

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information;

We need to determine the amount of interest the money will earn after three years.

Therefore, in this case;

Simple interest = ($300 × 5 × 3) ÷ 100

                         = $45

Thus, the money invested earned a simple interest of $45

Using the formula for simple interest, we find out that Edin will earn £45 as interest on his savings of £300 over a period of 3 years at a simple interest rate of 5% per annum.

The subject of this question is simple interest. The formula for simple interest is: Principal * Rate * Time. Let's plug in the given values into the formula. Here, the principal amount is £300, the rate of interest is 5% per annum (or 0.05 in decimal form), and the time is 3 years. So, the calculation will be: £300 * 0.05 * 3.

After performing the calculation, we find that the interest Edin will earn after 3 years is £45.

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Answer:

4 hours = 14400 seconds.

Step-by-step explanation:

i) In 1 hour there are 60 minutes

ii) in 1 minute there are 60 seconds

iii) therefore 1 hour = 60 minutes

                               = 60 [tex]\times[/tex] 60 seconds

                               = 3600 seconds

iv) therefore to convert 4 hours to seconds we have to multiply the number of hours by 3600 seconds

      therefore 4 hours = 4 [tex]\times[/tex] 3600 seconds = 14400 seconds.

The correct answer is C; Dependent variable.

Further explanation:

Researchers are very interested in the dependent variable. This variable is what is being tested and measured during the research in progress. In this case, it is the new energy drink.

The researchers are looking for an effect to occur while changing the independent variable of the case study. There are three main different types of variables used in research studies, they are;

With the athletes doing exercises after consuming the test product, they are seeing if the product does give more energy than if they hadn't of consumed the energy drink.

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3 copies of 1/6 makes it 1 copy 1/2 because 3 times of 1/6 is 3/6 which is 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

3 times 1/6 = 3/6

which is 1/2.

Hence it takes 3 copies of 1/6 to show the amount as 1 copy of 1/2

Alternatively,

1/6+1/6+1/6= 1/2

3/6=1/2

1/2=1/2

The labor fee is $13.55 and each quart of oil is $2.25

Step-by-step explanation:

Let,

x be the amount of each quart of oil

y be the amount of labor fee

According to given statement;

5x+y=24.80        Eqn 1

7x+y=29.30        Eqn 2

Subtracting Eqn 1 from Eqn 2

[tex](7x+y)-(5x+y)=29.30-24.80\\7x+y-5x-y=4.50\\2x=4.50[/tex]

Dividing both sides by 2

[tex]\frac{2x}{2}=\frac{4.50}{2}\\x=2.25[/tex]

Putting x=2.25 in Eqn 1

[tex]5(2.25)+y=24.80\\11.25+y=24.80\\y=24.80-11.25\\y=13.55[/tex]

The labor fee is $13.55 and each quart of oil is $2.25

Keywords: linear equation, subtraction

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5 cups per day.....1 cup = 8oz.....so 5 cups = (5 * 8) = 40 oz

cut down by 75%....means ur only drinking 25%

25% of 40 oz =

0.25(40) = 10 oz per day <===

Answer:

[tex]\large\boxed{x=\dfrac{17}{7}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\text{A geometric mean of}\ x\ \text{and}\ y:\\\\\sqrt{xy}\\\\\text{Let}\ x-\text{the number}.\\\\\text{Substitute:}\\\\\sqrt{17}=\sqrt{(7)(x)}\iff17=7x\qquad\text{divide both sides by 7}\\\\\dfrac{17}{7}=\dfrac{7x}{7}\to x=\dfrac{17}{7}[/tex]

The thickness of a stack of 8 sheets of metal, each 2/3 of an inch thick, is 5 1/3 inches.

To determine the thickness of a stack of 8 sheets of metal that are each 2/3 of an inch thick, we simply multiply the thickness of one sheet by the number of sheets in the stack:

(2/3 inch/sheet) x 8 sheets = (2/3) x 8

Now, we simplify the expression by multiplying 2 by 8 which equals 16, and then we keep the same denominator:

16/3 inches

This fraction can also be converted to a mixed number:

5 1/3 inches

So, the stack will be 5 1/3 inches thick.

Answer:

a is the answer or 320 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

95*65=6175 ft^ for area

95+95+65+65=320 ft

Answer:

20; 500

Step-by-step explanation:

1.5 is what percent of 7.5. 7.5 is 5 times 1.5, so 1.5 is 1/5 of 7.5. 1/5=20%. Inversely, 7.5 is 5 times 1.5, 5=500%.

[tex]1 \frac{1}{2} \text{ is } \underline{20\%} \text{ of } 7 \frac{1}{2}[/tex];  [tex]7 \frac{1}{2} \text{ is } \underline{500\%} \text{ of } 1 \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]1 \frac{1}{2}[/tex] becomes [tex]\frac{3}{2}[/tex].

[tex]7 \frac{1}{2}[/tex] becomes [tex]\frac{15}{2}[/tex].

[tex]\text{Percentage} = \frac{\text{part}}{\text{whiole}} \times 100\%[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\frac{3}{2}} {\frac{15}{2}} \times 100\% = \frac{3}{15}\times 100\% = \frac{1}{5}\times 100\% = 20\%.[/tex]

Thus,

[tex]1 \frac{1}{2} \text{ is } \underline{20\%} \text{ of } 7 \frac{1}{2}.[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\frac{15}{2}} {\frac{3}{2}} \times 100\% = \frac{15}{3}\times 100\% = 5\times 100\% = 500\%.[/tex]

Thus,

[tex]7 \frac{1}{2} \text{ is } \underline{500\%} \text{ of } 1 \frac{1}{2}.[/tex]

Complete question:

fill in the blanks:

[tex]1 \frac{1}{2}[/tex] is ____ % of [tex]7 \frac{1}{2}.[/tex] ;            [tex]7 \frac{1}{2}[/tex] is ____ % of [tex]1 \frac{1}{2}.[/tex]  

Answer:

The homeowner can buy 144 tiles maximum.

Side length = 16 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost of each tile is $3.45.

So, at $500, the homeowner can buy [tex]\frac{500}{3.45} = 144.92[/tex] ≈ 144 number of tiles. {As the number of tiles can not be a fraction.}

Since each tile is a square with area 256 square inches, so the homeowner can arrange the tiles in 12 by 12 arrangements.

Each tile has side length = √256 = 16 inches.

So, the side length of the largest patio is (16 × 12) inches = 16 feet. (Since, 1 foot = 12 inches). (Answer)

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

sinA = [tex]\frac{opposite}{hypotenuse}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{BC}{AB}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{20}{29}[/tex]

cosA = [tex]\frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{AC}{AB}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{21}{29}[/tex]

tanA = [tex]\frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{BC}{AC}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{20}{21}[/tex]

The functions sin, cos, and tan for a given angle in a right triangle are defined in terms of ratios of the side lengths. They are respectively the ratios of the opposite side to the hypotenuse, the adjacent side to the hypotenuse, and the opposite side to the adjacent side.

In a right triangle, sin(A) is defined as the ratio of the side opposite to angle A (opposite side) to the hypotenuse, cos(A) as the ratio of the adjacent side to the hypotenuse, and tan(A) as the ratio of the opposite side to the adjacent side.

Suppose the lengths of the sides of the given right triangle are a, b, and c (where c is the length of the hypotenuse).

Then, sin(A) = a/c, cos(A) = b/c, and tan(A) = a/b. These ratios must be put in reduced form by simplifying the fractions if necessary.

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Answer:

In order for it to benefit his father to buy the pass Seth have to attend the movies for 11 times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Cost of movie pass = $40

Cost per matinees with pass = $1.00

Cost per matinees without pass = $3.50

To Find:

Number of times must Seth attend in order for it to benefit his father to buy the pass = ?

Solution:

Let x be the number of times he wants to visit

To profit his father

The number of visits without pass =  the number of visits with passin the cost  of $3.50

Then, without pass if he visits for x times then the cost will be  = 3.50x

Also with pass, the number of times he can visit the pass  =  [tex]\frac{40}{3.50}[/tex]

then

[tex]\frac{350 x}{3.50} = \frac{40}{3.50}[/tex]

[tex]3.50x = 40[/tex]

[tex]x = \frac{40}{3.50}[/tex]

x =  11.42

x = 11 (approx)

Answer:

the first loan is cheaper

Step-by-step explanation:

convert percent values to decimals

8.5/100=.085

7.75/100=.0775

find the value for the first loan

1550*.085*4=527

find the value for the first loan

1550*.0775*5=600.625

compare

Belle would pay $5100 in interest for the 4-year loan at 8.5% and $5812.50 for the 5-year loan at 7.75%. Therefore, less interest would be paid with the 4-year loan.

To calculate the simple interest, we use the formula I = P*R*T, where P is the principal amount, R is the interest rate, and T is the time in years.

For the 4-year loan at 8.5%, interest would be: I = $15,000 * 8.5/100 * 4 = $5100

For the 5-year loan at 7.75%, interest would be: I = $15,000 * 7.75/100 * 5 = $5,812.50.

So, the 4-year loan at 8.5% will require less interest payment.

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