According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same A) habitat. B) niche. C) territory. D) range. E) biome.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Niche

Explanation:

Niche basically is the lifelihood of a species that involves feeding on what, drinking from what....

If both species are competing for the same resources, they would compete until a certain species is eradicated. (think of it as 2 species of ants in 2 colonies that are close to each other, take the same leaves, prey and stuff. They would fight with each other in other until one colony is eradicated.) hence, unless a species and adapt and change its niche, both species would fight until one is eliminated. Thus, the principle states that 2 species cannot continue to occupy the same niche, not living environment.

Answer 2

According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same niche.

What is niche?

The niche is determined by the biotic factors, which comprise of living features such as animals, plants and fungi, and abiotic factors. Abiotic factors are the non-living, environmental features such as sunlight and water availability and weather, as well as resources such as food and other nutrients.

The niche of an organism is the functional role that it plays within an ecosystem. The niche is determined by the biotic factors, which comprise of living features such as animals, plants and fungi, and abiotic factors.

The competitive exclusion principle says that two species can't coexist if they occupy the same niche. Two species whose niches overlap may evolve by natural selection to have more distinct niches, resulting in resource partitioning

The correct answer is option B.

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Related Questions

Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation? Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation? The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes. There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system. Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex resulting in no response by urinary contraction muscles. There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood.

Answers

The answer is because it not all connected in a way everything has its own compartment so when men arrive they don’t have pee in the semen

Semen does not enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation because of the internal sphincter. The internal sphincter is a ring of muscle that surrounds the urethra, the tube that carries urine and semen out of the body.

During ejaculation, the internal sphincter contracts tightly, preventing semen from entering the bladder.

The internal sphincter is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, which is the part of the nervous system that is not under conscious control. This means that we cannot control the internal sphincter voluntarily.

The internal sphincter is also closed by the bladder neck, which is a narrowing of the urethra at the point where it joins the bladder. The bladder neck relaxes during ejaculation, allowing semen to pass through the urethra and out of the body.

If the internal sphincter or bladder neck were to relax during ejaculation, semen could enter the bladder. This is a condition called retrograde ejaculation. Retrograde ejaculation is relatively rare, but it can be caused by certain medications, surgery, or nerve damage.

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An electromanget converts electrical enegry into

Answers

an electromagnet converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

Why is genetic recombination important for species?

A. Genetic recombination allows the genetic material of a cell to be copied before cell division, resulting in daughter cells that can undergo genetic recombination.
B. Genetic recombination allows the genetic material to be expressed, creating both RNA and proteins from a cell's DNA.
C. Genetic recombination allows new genetic combinations and increases the genetic diversity in a population. This drives natural selection and evolution.
D. Genetic recombination allows the best genes to be selected, ensuring that mutated genes aren't passed on to offspring

Answers

ANSWER:

The correct option is C- Genetic recombination allows "new genetic combinations' and increases the "genetic diversity in population'. This drives natural selection and evolution.

EXPLANATION:

Genetic recombination is a process wherein "genetic material" is exchanged between different organisms for the production of an offspring. This means that new genetic combinations are created for the offspring to develop with some traits from the parents while some unique traits. Genetic recombination is essentially needed for a species to diversify and grow and prevents it from becoming extinct.

From the question, the correct answer is C: Genetic recombination allows new genetic combinations and increases the genetic diversity in a population. This drives natural selection and evolution.

Further Explanation:

Genetic recombination is important because it aids the production of new genetic types. New genetic types are the essential raw materials needed for natural selection and evolution. When new genetic types are produced, they begin to replace existing genetic types; this process is called natural selection.

Genetic recombination is also important in the aspect of enabling various biological developments in eukaryotic cells.

Genetic recombination is also of great importance because it allows organisms evolve in response to changes in the environment.

Genetic recombination can be defined as the rearrangement of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) sequences through some combination of the fracture, copying and rejoining of chromosomes. It also refers to the possible outcomes of such rearrangements.

Genetic recombination also involves combining DNA from two different sources into a single molecule. Individual genes are not altered; they are simply joined together in new combinations.  

Naturally, the combination of DNA from two different persons into one molecule can be done in two steps:

DNA from two different individuals must be combined in a single cell. DNA from two different individuals is joined to successfully form a single molecule.

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Genetic recombinationCellsEvolutionDNAChromosomes

Why did scientists FIRST hypothesize that a meteorite impact caused the extinction at the K-Pg Boundary? They found evidence of wildfires in many regions throughout the globe. They found evidence of acid rain in the rocks in the Southern Hemisphere. They found evidence of a giant tsunami on the Gulf coast. They found evidence of Iridium enrichments in a clay layer that led them to believe that the Iridium was the remains of a meteorite impact. They found evidence of an impact crater in Mexico. Next

Answers

Answer:

They found evidence of an impact crater in Mexico

Explanation:

The K-Pg boundary is the boundary between the Cretaceous period and the Paleogene period, but also marking the end of the Mesozoic era and the beginning of the Cenozoic era. This boundary is dated to roughly 66 million years ago. The K-Pg boundary is characterized with a mass extinction. The dominant organisms on Earth all died out, including the dinosaurs, both terrestrial and aquatic, as well as the flying reptilians, with only the birds surviving from that super-family. The reason for the mass extinction has been an impact with an asteroid or a comet, that was very large and hit the Earth where the Yucatan Peninsula in modern day Mexico is located. The impact was devastating, with heat waves, tsunamis, earthquakes, triggering of the majority of the volcanoes, wildfires, all combined managed to devastate the environment, thus big portion of the species living in it as well. The lucky survivors were smaller organisms, and the mammals turned out to be the most successful in occupying the empty niches and have became the dominant organisms on the planet.

Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle? A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin. B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control. C) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate. D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres. E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies.

Answers

Answer:

A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin

Explanation:

Smooth muscles are non-striated involuntary muscles which are found in the walls of stomach, urinary bladder, blood vessels...Smooth muscle tissue is composed of spindle-shaped muscle cells with single central nucleus. Like the other two type of muscles (cardiac and skeletal), smooth muscles also have four main functions:

Contractility-ability to contract. In the case of skeletal muscles it is voluntary, while in cardiac and smooth muscles it is unconscious.Excitability-ability to change  membrane potential usually by the influence of nervous impulse.Extensibility-the capacity to lengthenElasticity-ability to change its length and then return to previous.

Final answer:

The statement that is not characteristic of smooth muscle is the claim that striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin. Smooth muscle tissue does not have a striated appearance because its actin and myosin filaments are not arranged in a regular pattern.

Explanation:

The characteristic that is not true of smooth muscle is option A: The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin. This is because, unlike skeletal and cardiac muscles, smooth muscles do not have striations. This is due to the fact that the actin and myosin within smooth muscle fibers are not arranged in a repeating pattern, giving the muscle its uniform, nonstriated appearance. Smooth muscles are controlled involuntarily (option B), they contain a single nucleus making them uninucleate (option C), they indeed do not contain sarcomeres (option D), and the thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are indeed attached to dense bodies (option E).

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Which of the following describes when energy is released from an ATP molecule?

Answers

This occurs when a molecule of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) uses the energy released during cellular respiration to bond with a third phosphate group, becoming a molecule of ATP. So the energy from cellular respiration is stored in the bond between the 2nd and 3rd phosphate groups of ATP.

I literally just googled

When energy is released from an ATP molecule, a phosphate group is removed from the ATP molecule through a process called hydrolysis, which breaks the bond between the second and third phosphate groups. 

What is ATP ?

ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule that stores energy in its high-energy phosphate bonds. When energy is needed for cellular processes, the bonds between the phosphate groups are broken, releasing energy and converting ATP to ADP (adenosine diphosphate). This process of converting ATP to ADP is called hydrolysis, which involves the addition of water to the ATP molecule, breaking the bond between the second and third phosphate groups, and releasing a phosphate group and energy. The released energy can then be used for various cellular processes such as muscle contractions, active transport, and metabolic reactions.

Hence, when energy is released from an ATP molecule, a phosphate group is removed from the ATP molecule through a process called hydrolysis, which breaks the bond between the second and third phosphate groups. 

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Which of the following statements correctly describes the make-up and function of genes? Genes are made of DNA and are carried on chromosomes. Genes are not made of DNA, but they are carried on chromosomes. Genes are made of chromosomes and carried on DNA. Genes are not made of chromosomes but are carried on DNA.

Answers

Answer: Genes are made of DNA and are carried on chromosomes.

The statement which correctly describes the make-up and function of gene is that genes are made of DNA and are carried on chromosomes.

DNA  is a hereditary material  which is present in human beings as well as all other living organisms.  Every cell which is present in an organism's body has DNA  which is the same. Most of the DNA is situated in the cell's nucleus and small amount of it can be found in the cell's mitochondria as well.

Information which is stored in DNA is stored as codes made up of four chemical bases namely, adenine, thymine , cytosine and guanine.Human DNA consists of 3 billion bases .The order of the bases determines information which is required for building and maintaining an organism.

Thus,the DNA is makes up the gene and are transferred by means of chromosomes.

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Resource partitioning is best described by which of the following statements? A) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species. B) Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist. C) Two species can coevolve and share the same niche. D) Species diversity is maintained by switching between prey species. E) A climax community is reached when no new niches are available.

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The division of limited resources by species to avoid competition in an ecological niche is known as resource partitioning. In this slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist.

What is a niche?

The term niche refers to the role of an organism in a community.

A species' niche includes both the physical and environmental conditions it requires as well as its interactions with other species.

Resource partitioning occurs when species divide a niche to avoid competition for resources. It include slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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What is the dependent variable that impacts the amount of solar energy in a location. I really need help with question.

Answers

Answer: Hours or time of light exposure

Explanation: The longer exposure time, the greater the amount of solar energy transferred per unit of space. I think that make sense.

Answer:

Nearness to equator or geographical position

Explanation:

Due to Earth’s spherical shape, the sun rays with high intensity falls on the equator. Therefore if a place is located away from the equator, it will receive low intensity sun rays.  

Countries like India which lie at close proximity to the equator get solar energy in sufficient amount. Such countries are able to harness electricity from solar energy due to its high intensity.

Therefore , Nearness to equator or geographical position is the dependent variable that impacts the amount of solar energy in a location.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the neurotransmitters of the ANS? Check all that apply. Check All That Apply All preganglionic neurons of the ANS are cholinergic. All preganglionic neurons of the ANS are cholinergic. All postganglionic neurons of the ANS are adrenergic. All postganglionic neurons of the ANS are adrenergic. All postganglionic neurons of the ANS have cholinergic receptors. All postganglionic neurons of the ANS have cholinergic receptors. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine to the heart muscle cells. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine to the heart muscle cells. Some ANS neurons use dopamine as their neurotransmitter.

Answers

Answer:

All preganglionic neurons of the ANS are cholinergic.

All postganglionic neurons of the ANS have cholinergic receptors

Postganglionic sympathetic neurons release norepinephrine to the heart muscle cells

Some ANS neurons use dopamine as their neurotransmitter

Explanation:

Autonomic nervous system (ANS) consists of:

sympathetic nervous system -responsible for the "fight and flight" reactions (stressful situations but also for maintaining homeostasis). Short preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine which binds to its receptors on the postganglionic cell. Postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine, epinephrine or dopamine (in kidneys).parasympathetic nervous system -opposite to sympathetic system, responsible for "rest and digest" reactions (body activities at rest). Long preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine which binds to its receptors on the postganglionic cell. Postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine.enteric nervous system-controls digestion

Final answer:

Preganglionic neurons of both ANS divisions are cholinergic and all postganglionic neurons have cholinergic receptors. Postganglionic sympathetic neurons predominantly release norepinephrine but there are exceptions, and some ANS neurons may utilize dopamine.

Explanation:

In regards to the neurotransmitters of the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS), the following statements are true: All preganglionic neurons of the ANS release acetylcholine (ACh) and are, therefore, cholinergic; this applies to both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. All postganglionic neurons of the ANS do possess cholinergic (nicotinic) receptors, as they are activated by the ACh released from preganglionic fibers.

However, not all postganglionic neurons of the ANS are adrenergic. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers release norepinephrine mainly, but there are exceptions, such as the fibers projecting to sweat glands and blood vessels associated with skeletal muscles, which actually release ACh. Certain sympathetic fibers attached to the heart muscle cells indeed release norepinephrine.

Lastly, certain ANS neurons may use dopamine as their neurotransmitter, but this is relatively less common compared to ACh and norepinephrine.

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This is an image of the phospholipid bilayer. Based on what you know about the structure of the phospholipid bilayer, what is the name of the side labeled 1?


A. Hydrophobic side

B. Inner side

C. Hydrophilic side

D. Permeable side

Answers

I think the answer is D (permeable side )since the phospholipid bilayer is permeable and 1 shows the whole of it

Since 2is the hydrophobic side cancelling A

3 is the hydrophilic side also cancelling C

And neither is the answer B because not any of the sides shown between a and b shows that it’s in the inner side

Answer:

D. Permeable side.

Explanation:

Phospholipid bilayer constitutes  a part of the structure of the cell membrane. This bilayer  consists of a phosphate group and two chains of fatty acids. The phosphate group is polar and hydrophilic because of its negative charges. Its hydrophilic nature shows that it is attracted to water molecules. Also, the lipid tails constitutes the chains of fatty acids are non-polar, hydrophobic and lack ions. The hydrophobic nature of the lipid acids indicates that they repel water molecules.

From the diagram, the part labelled 1 is the phospholipid bilayer and it has a permeable side. This means it allows substances to pass through it.

Black hair is dominant over blonde hair. A father with black hair reproduces with a female with blonde hair. What are the chances the child will have black hair? What are the chances the child will have blonde hair? You need to answer the question by constructing Punnett square(s) and determine the resulting phenotypic percentages.

Answers

Answer: Hard to say, assumable 50/50, child will still carry recessive gene.

Explanation: Dark haired genes are dominant  meaning if your child gets one piece of a gene(s) from parent Bk that is(are) dominant, they will likely have or develop dark hair as the recessive gene(s) are overpowered. This is why some children are born with blonde or light hair that develops into dark brown/black as they age.

Theoretically, Parent Bk would have to have a part of a blonde recessive gene(there are multiple genes but even one is enough) to give to a child in order for them to have blonde hair. Or, the gene(s) they receive from parent Bk malfunctions and the recessive gene(s) from parent Bd is(are) the only one(s) expressed making the kid blonde. If the father has black hair and nobody in his family or ancestry has blonde hair, then there is still a chance that the child could get blonde hair depending on the mother. Because we don’t know for sure what alleles parent Bk has, you could end up with children who all have dark hair(not explicitly black but dark) or 50/50 dark/light

The chances for the child to have black hair are 2 out of 4, or 50%. Similarly, the chances for the child to have blonde hair are also 2 out of 4, or 50%. Therefore, based on the Punnett square analysis, there is a 50% chance for the child to have black hair and a 50% chance for the child to have blonde hair.

To determine the chances of the child having black or blonde hair, we can use a Punnett square to represent the possible combinations of alleles from the parents. In this case, we'll assume that black hair is determined by a dominant allele (B), and blonde hair is determined by a recessive allele (b).

The father with black hair would have the genotype Bb, where B represents the dominant allele for black hair and b represents the recessive allele for blonde hair.

The mother with blonde hair would have the genotype bb, having two copies of the recessive allele for blonde hair.

Now, let's construct a Punnett square to determine the possible genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring:

From the Punnett square, we can see that there are four possible combinations of alleles for the child: Bb, Bb, bb, and bb.

The genotypes Bb and Bb would result in black hair, as they have at least one copy of the dominant allele (B).

The genotypes bb and bb would result in blonde hair since they have two copies of the recessive allele (b).

So, from the Punnett square, the chances for the child to have black hair are 2 out of 4, or 50%. Similarly, the chances for the child to have blonde hair are also 2 out of 4, or 50%.

Therefore, based on the given information and Punnett square analysis, there is a 50% chance for the child to have black hair and a 50% chance for the child to have blonde hair.

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Which of the following statements is most consistent with F.E. Clements' integrated hypothesis? A) Species are distributed independently of other species. B) Communities lack discrete geographic boundaries. C) The community functions as an interactive unit. D) The composition of plant species seems to change on a continuum. E) The community is a chance assemblage of species.

Answers

Answer:

The community functions as an interactive unit - C)

The image above is that of one hemisphere of a sheep brain which is very similar to that of a human brain. The pins are placed in 3 internal structures of the brain. Which answer choice below is INCORRECT concerning these structures?

A) The red pin is placed in the thalamus.
B) The blue pin is placed in the cerebellum.
C) The medulla oblongata is not labeled with a pin.
D) The green pin is placed in the lateral ventricle.

Answers

Answer:

B)  

The blue pin is placed in the cerebellum.

Explanation:

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

The red pin is placed in the thalamus region. This region helps in sending receiving all the sensory information from the stimuli and transferring it to the cerebral cortex part of the brain for the processing of information.

The green pin lies in the region of lateral ventricle are two ventricles in the brain which contains cerebrospinal fluid which provides protection to the brain and acts as cushion of the brain.

The blue colored pin is placed in the cerebellum. It is the correct option.

Which of the following influences human development?
A.
environment
B.
gene expression
C.
hormones
D.
all of these

Answers

The answer would be D. :)

Final answer:

Human development is influenced by environment, gene expression, and hormones. These factors interact in complex ways to shape physical growth, psychological development, and individual traits. Recognizing the role of each factor is vital in understanding human development.

Explanation:

The question asks which of the following influences human development: environment, gene expression, hormones, or all of these. The correct answer is D. all of these. Human development is a complex process influenced by a multitude of factors.

Environment plays a crucial role in shaping an individual's physical and psychological development. For instance, a child's nutritional status, exposure to pollutants, and social interactions can significantly impact their growth and development.

Gene expression is fundamental to development, dictating how cells function and how the body grows. Variations in gene expression can lead to different physical and behavioral traits.

Hormones also significantly influence development, regulating processes such as growth, metabolism, and puberty. Hormonal imbalances can lead to developmental differences.

Understanding the interplay between these factors is key to comprehending the complex nature of human growth and development.

The oak tree pathogen Phytophthora ramorum migrated 650 km in ten years. West Nile virus spread from New York to 46 others states in five years. The difference in the rate of spread is probably related to A) how lethal each pathogen is. B) the mobility of their hosts. C) the fact that viruses are very small. D) innate resistance. E) none of the above

Answers

Answer:

B) the mobility of their hosts

Explanation:

A pathogen that attacks an oak trees and a pathogen that attacks humans doesn't really have that big of a difference, but on the other side we can see that the pathogen that attacks the oak trees is spreading out much less and over much smaller territory than the pathogen attacking humans. The main reason behind this is the mobility of the host of the pathogen and where the host of it lives. In the case with the oak trees, the pathogen will be migrating very slowly over smaller distance because there's only certain places where the oak trees live, and also they are not mobile, and the pathogen will be able to spread out only through their seeds and cones which is a slow process. On the other hand, the pathogen attacking humans will manage to spread out very quickly over very large area because there are humans living in lot of places, their numbers are high, and their mobility is easy and quick over large distances, so the pathogen will travel with its host easily for hundreds or thousands of kilometers and then spread out in another place far away.

Which of these is a starting point for primary succession? A) a surface exposed by a retreating glacier B) abandoned farmland C) an abandoned city D) a neglected yard E) none of the above

Answers

Answer:

surface exposed by a retreating glacier - A)

30. How might an ecologist test whether a species is occupying its complete fundamental niche or only a portion of it? A) Study the temperature range and humidity requirements of the species. B) Observe whether the niche size changes after the addition of nutritional resources to the habitat. C) Observe whether the niche size changes after the introduction of a similar non-native species. D) Measure the change in reproductive success when the species is subjected to environmental stress. E) Observe whether the species expands its range after the removal of a competitor.

Answers

Answer:

by observing whether the nichesize changes afterthe introduction of a similar non natives species

Explanation:

an organism that occupies it's specificed niche will these to increase in size due to the proper conditions at its niche

a scientist wants his work to be published in a journal. which of the following sets of people will need to replicate the scientist's work before it can be published?
a) his fellow scientist
b) the scientist himself
c) his friends and family
d) members of political groups

Answers

Answer:

the answer is A. his fellow scientist

***if it requires two answers***

A and B

Explanation:

Answer:

A his fellow scientists

Explanation:

His fellow scientists need to confirm his work because they are his/her colleagues.

During which process of glass manufacturing does the glass become a solid without crystallizing?

*annealing,
*floating on tin,
*melting the mix or
*washing, drying, and cutting

Answers

if i recall from my lesson last week it was melting and mix

The study of chemicals and bonds is called chemistry. There is two types of elements are there and these are metals and nonmetals.

The correct answer is option C which is melting or mixing.

What is glass?Glass is a non-crystalline, often transparent amorphous solid, that has widespread practical, technological, and decorative use in, for example, window panes, tableware, and optics. Glass is most often formed by rapid cooling of the molten form; some glasses such as volcanic glass are naturally occurring.


According to the question, the correct answer is option C melting the mix.

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Imagine the autosomal dominant CB allele produces black coat color in dogs, and the recessive Cw allele produces a white coat color. The CB allele is also recessive for lethality; pups with the CBCB genotype die well before birth, and their remains are resorbed by the mother’s uterus. Imagine you cross heterozygous black male dog with a heterozygous black female. What ratio of genotypes and phenotypes do you expect to see in the F1 offspring? If more than one genotype produces the same phenotype, list all the genotype/phenotype combinations separately.

Answers

Answer:

the ratio of genotypes will be 2:1 (CBCw:CwCw) and the phenotype ratio will be 1:1 (black dog:white dog)

Explanation:

If heterozygous black male dog is crossed with a heterozygous black female then:

P: CBCw  x  CBCw

F1: CBCB  CBCw CBCw CwCw

Since CBCB genotype will die before birth, the ratio of genotypes will be 2:1 (CBCw:CwCw) and the phenotype ratio will be 1:1 (black dog:white dog).

CBCw genotype, which is heterozygous will produce black phenotype, since the allele CB is dominant over Cw allele.

Are princess parrot fish asexual or sexual reproducers?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Getting an answer to this question has to be one of the weirdest things you'll ever come across. Nature knows no bounds in her variety of methods of insuring species survival.

These fish are sexual reproducers. The female lays the eggs and they begin an upward motion. At the same time, the male puts his sperm into the water.

What is really weird is that when the fertilized eggs hatch, the offspring are all females. Later, the larger fish become males.  That has to be unique.

Which of the following statements is true? Gram-positive bacteria have a single cell wall anchored to the cell membrane by lipoteichoic acid. Porins allow entry of substances into both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. The cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria is thick, and the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria is thin. Gram-negative bacteria have a cell wall made of peptidoglycan, whereas Gram-positive bacteria have a cell wall made of lipoteichoic acid.

Answers

Answer:

Gram-positive bacteria have a single cell wall anchored to the cell membrane by lipoteichoic acid.

Explanation:

According to Gram stain test, bacteria can be divided into two main groups which differs mostly in the structure of the cell wall"

Gram-positive bacteria-thick cell wall which consist of peptidoglycan  layer that is attached to cell membrane via teichoic acids (lipoteichoic acids). Because of their thick wall, after the staining, the violet dye retains, so Gram positive bacteria appear purple-coloured.Gram-negative bacteria-thin peptidoglycan layer with two cell membranes: inner and outer membrane (lipopolysaccharides). Usually, Gram negative bacteria contain porins. After the staining, the dye does not retain, so this type of bacteria appear red coloured.

Final answer:

The correct statement is that Gram-positive bacteria have a thick cell wall made of peptidoglycan with lipoteichoic acids anchoring the cell wall to the cell membrane. Gram-negative bacteria, on the other hand, have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an additional outer membrane with different components such as lipopolysaccharides.

Explanation:

The distinction between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria is a critical concept in microbiology, and understanding the structure of their cell walls is key to recognizing these differences. Let's consider the statements one by one:

Option a: This statement is true for Gram-positive bacteria. They have a single, thick cell wall composed largely of peptidoglycan, with teichoic acids, which may be linked to lipids forming lipoteichoic acids that anchor the cell wall to the cell membrane.

Option b: This statement is false because porins are present only in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, allowing substances to pass through this outer membrane.

Option c: This statement is false. In reality, Gram-negative bacteria have a thin cell wall, while Gram-positive bacteria have a thick cell wall.

Option d: This statement is false as well. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria have cell walls made of peptidoglycan. However, Gram-positive bacteria have additional teichoic acids, including the aforementioned lipoteichoic acids, while Gram-negative bacteria have an additional outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins.

The accurate statement is option a: Gram-positive bacteria have a single cell wall anchored to the cell membrane by lipoteichoic acid.

Which of the following is least likely to kill the organism it feeds on? A) herbivore B) predator C) seed eater D) carnivore E) parasite

Answers

Final answer:

Out of herbivores, predators, seed eaters, carnivores, and parasites, a herbivore is the least likely to kill the organism it feeds on because it consumes plant materials, rather than living organisms.

Explanation:

The organism least likely to kill the organism it feeds on is a herbivore. Herbivores, such as cows or rabbits, eat plant materials, not other organisms. In contrast, predators and carnivores hunt and consume other organisms, often resulting in the prey's death. Similarly, seed eaters can kill the plant that produces the seeds they eat. Finally, parasites often harm or even kill the organisms they inhabit, though this can be unintentional, as parasites typically aim to coexist with the host rather than killing it.

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Parasites are the least likely to kill the organism they feed on, as their survival often depends on a living host. While herbivores and seed eaters consume plant parts, parasites maintain a longer-term relationship with their hosts. Hence the correct option is E.

The organism least likely to kill the organism it feeds on is parasite. Parasites, in contrast to predators or carnivores, tend to live in or on their host and rely on that host for sustenance without typically killing it outright. Some parasites can harm their hosts to a degree or decrease their fitness, but their survival strategy often involves keeping the host alive for as long as possible to continue benefiting from its resources. On the other hand, herbivores and seed eaters generally consume parts of plants without killing them, but they are less likely to maintain a long-term relationship with an individual plant as parasites do with their hosts. Grazing herbivores, such as woodchucks and adult Japanese beetles, tend to eat parts of plants and move to other plants, rather than staying and feeding off a single host. Absorbing herbivores, including some fungi and bacteria, are predominantly considered parasites. These may feed using structures like haustoria that allow them to exchange nutrients with living host cells, which often do not result in the host's immediate death.

All of the following are terms that ecologists use to describe communities except for A) species richness. B) species diversity. C) Batesian diversity. D) trophic structure. E) stability.

Answers

Answer:

Batesian diversity - C)

Why is she keeping the dead animals? Gas land movie

Answers

Answer:Explanation:

Mixture of oil and water being dumped in rivers and streams that it was not supposed to be dumped in

Against her better judgment, one woman ends herself maintaining a menagerie of dead animals killed by a polluted creek in her freezer.

What happens at the end of Gasland?

Fox gets detained near the end of the film while attempting to tape a congressional hearing about the E.P.A. results in Pavilion.

But, even as the fight to safeguard the planet from radical energy development appears to be becoming increasingly difficult, Fox remains unfazed.Oil and water mixtures are being thrown in rivers and streams where they are not supposed to be deposited.

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Which of the following statements is true?


A. In the lytic cycle, the virus hides in the host’s DNA.


B. Stress can cause a virus to switch from the lytic cycle to the lysogenic cycle.


C. Stress can cause a virus to switch from the lysogenic cycle to the lytic cycle.


D. In the lysogenic cycle, the virus uses the host cell to make new viral parts.

Answers

the answer would be C. :)

Answer:

C is correct

Explanation:

The virus cannot live in the environment without the host cell. They need the host cell for their survival.The virus incorporates its genetic material in the genetic material of the host cell to live. They opt for lytic cycle or lysogenic cycle.

Due to environmental stressors such as the starvation or exposure to chemicals may cause the virus to switch from the lysogenic cycle to lytic cycle.

Imagine you discover a yeast mutant that exhibits a general inability to grow and thrive compared to wild-type yeast. You predict that the mutant has a defect in a basic process necessary for survival and therefore examine the cellular levels of 200 common proteins, as well as the levels of tRNAs and rRNAs. You discover that tRNA and rRNA levels are normal, but the levels of all of the proteins you examine are much lower than they are in the wild-type yeast. This suggests that there is a general defect in:

Answers

Answer:

Some of the other process of gene expression

Explanation:

If the tRNA and rRNA levels are normal we can assume that the translation machinery is working properly. So, this suggest that the defect might appear in some of the previous steps of gene expression: replication, transcription, mRNA processing.

Gene expression is a set of processes that occur in the cell and that use information from the genetic material (gene) to produce gene product (e.g. protein). Gene expression is highly controlled and regulated because it is critical for an organism's development.

Cationic trypsinogen is an enzyme made in the pancreas that helps to digest food. It is encoded for by the PRSS1 gene. Individuals with a disorder called hereditary pancreatitis have mutations in the PRSS1gene, which result in inflammation of the pancreas, possibly leading to permanent tissue damage. The disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. Imagine that you are part of a research team interested in determining the penetrance of a different PRSS1 mutation, Ala16Val. Your team has identified 120 individuals with the PRSS1 Ala16Valallele and found that 48 of the individuals did not display any evidence of pancreatitis. From your data, what is the penetrance of the PRSS1 Ala16Valmutation? Enter you a nswer as a whole number in the blank provided

Answers

Answer:

60%

Explanation:

Penetrance in genetics is defined as a proportion of individuals that carry a certain gene (mutation of the gene) with the expressed phenotype (trait). In the example above we wanted to know  the penetrance of the PRSS1 Ala16Val mutation. Form 120 individuals, 72 of them expressed some evidence of pancreatitis (120-48). The proportion of them with the expressed trait can be calculated as 72:120=0.6 or 60%.

A newly discovered solar system is found 300 billion kilometers from the sun. How many AU does this represent? Show your work.

Answers

Answer:

1 AU means 1 astronomical unit or the aproximate distance from the earth to the sun

1AU=149597870.7 kiometers

1 billion=1,000,000,000

600 billion=600,000,000,000

x times 1AU=600,000,000,000

x times 149597870.7=600,000,000,000

solve for x

divide both sides by 149597870.7

x=4010.75

so aprox 4011 AU's

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