A woman is in her early second trimester of pregnancy. The nurse would instruct the woman to return for a follow-up visit every:

1 week

2 weeks

3 weeks

4 weeks

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: 2 weeks

Explanation:

Answer 2
Final answer:

In her early second trimester, a woman should return for a follow-up visit every 4 weeks. This frequency can vary based on her medical history or any complications.

Explanation:

A woman in her early second trimester of pregnancy should ideally have follow-up visits every 4 weeks (once a month). This is a standard prenatal care routine suggested by healthcare professionals to monitor the health of both the mother and the baby. However, the frequency of visits can change based on medical history or any complications that arise during the pregnancy.

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Related Questions

The Family and Medical Leave Act, described in Chapter 1, is an example of the interaction between the state, the market, and family life. What does this law require large companies to do

Answers

The correct answer is; Employees can get twelve weeks of unpaid leave and their job is protected. They also require health care to be continued for workers and any dependents with a serious health issue.

Further Explanation:

The Family and Medical Leave Act is federal law made to protect families in the workplace. This helps employees keep their job position safe when they can't be at work. A doctor will need to fill out some forms for the employer and the employer will decide if the employee is covered by this law. This only takes a few days at the most.

Some of the things that the Family and Medical Leave Act covers are;

Having a new baby in the home.Care of a child within the first year of life.Placement of a child by adoption.Care for an employee's husband, child, or family member that is seriously ill.The employee has a health issue that does not let the employee perform their job requirements. Covers an issue of a family member that is in the service.

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Many of the top ten leading causes of death in the United States have a strong correlation to what a person decides to eat or not eat during his or her lifespan. What are the top two leading causes of death in the United States?

Answers

Answer:

Coronary disease and cancer

Explanation:

According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), the top two leading causes of death in the USA in 2019. were coronary disease and cancer, accounting for around 45% of all deaths.

Most common risk factors for coronary disease are: diabetes, food rich in fats, unhealthy diet, smoking cigarettes, stress, physical inactivity, genetic factors, alcohol abuse etc  

Most common risk factors for cancer are: cigarette smoking, industrial food, environmental factors, diet low in fruit, vegetables and fibers, genetic factors etc

We can see that common denominators for these two causes of death are unhealthy lifestyles and genetic factors.

Since one can't change its genetics, it is essential to have a healthy diet, avoid cigarettes and alcohol, be physically active etc.

Kelsey is a research assistant in drug-treatment studies. Her professor said they are using a double-blind procedure to minimize the chance that _____ are responsible for differences between experimental and control conditions.

Answers

Answer: Placebo effects.

Explanation:

Placebo effect is also known as Placebo, it is a situation whereby a substance known to have effective performs the wonders of improving the health condition of a patient, this is due to the believe the patient has towards the substance. One of the factors that helps Placebo effect is "Expectation".

A substance is regarded to have placebo effect if it was not designed to have any therapeutic value, Examples of placebo includes disabled water, sugar, sham surgery, inert injection and tablets, etc.

A nurse is caring for a client with sleep apnea. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to prevent hypoxia in the client?

Answers

Answer: To prevent hypoxia in pateint of sleep apnea the nurse should give the pateint direct oxygen administration or maintain the continous positive airway pressure.

Explanation:

Hypoxemia or hypoxia is known as the decreased concentration of the oxygen in blood. Mainly seen in sleep related breathing disorders as in sleep apnea.

When blood oxygen saturation is below 90% then the pateint may experience irregular heartbeats, strokes or heart attack.

To treat the pateint with sleep apnea direct oxygen administration is required or continous positive airway pressure is the treatment otherwise. CPAP is a positive airway pressure ventilator, in which mild air pressure is applied on a continuous basis which keeps the airways continuously open in people who are unable to breathe spontaneously on their own, but need help keeping their airway unobstructed. 

The nursing instructor is teaching about the importance of communication in nursing and relates it to the family. Which statement by a student nurse would indicate that the teaching has not been effective?

Answers

Answer:

The communication is used as a means of the expression or the sharing of any information between or among the people. Communication can be done in a specific language by speaking known as verbal communication.

The non verbal communication can be done by smiling, gestures and actions that can easily express the feeling of other individual. The statement by the  child that the non verbal communication is meaning less determines that teaching is not effective.

What program was established by New Jersey to guarantee access to health coverage for individuals and small employers, regardless of health status, age, claims history, or other risk factors?'

Answers

Answer:

Health insurance programs.

Explanation:

The health insurance may be defined as the insurance that provides medical benefits and covers the medical expenses of the client. The health insurance is provided by both the government and private sectors.

The idea of the health insurance program was first started in the New Jersey. The main aim of this insurance is to provide health benefit to the employers and individuals that cannot cover the medical expenses. The health related risk factors are also covered in the insurance.

Thus, the answer is health insurance programs.

A food label must include five primary components: Statement of identity, the quantity of the food product, list of the ingredients, taste and flavor of the food product, and the nutrition facts 1)A statement of identity
2)Net contents of the package
3)Ingredient list
4)Manufacturer's name and address
5)Nutrition information (Nutrition Facts Panel)

Answers

Answer:

umm I think it is Nutrition Information

A food label must include, the components are  1) A statement of identity, 2) Net contents of the package 3) Ingredient list and 5) Nutrition information (Nutrition Facts Panel).

A food label must include five primary components: Statement of identity, the quantity of the food product, list of ingredients, manufacturer's name and address, and the nutrition facts panel. The components are as follows:

Statement of identity: This is the name of the food product, which should accurately describe the true nature of the food item.Net contents of the package: This information indicates the net weight, volume, or number of servings contained in the package.Ingredient list: All ingredients present in the food product must be listed in descending order by weight or proportion.Manufacturer's name and address: The label should include the name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor responsible for the product.Nutrition information (Nutrition Facts Panel): This panel provides detailed information about the nutritional content of the food, including serving size, calories, and amounts of various nutrients like fat, carbohydrates, protein, vitamins, and minerals.

The option "taste and flavor of the food product" is not a mandatory component of a food label, as it is subjective and can be perceived differently by individuals.

Teresa would like to begin eating healthier and she has created a plan of action to help reach that goal. Her study group meets at a fast food restaurant twice a week, and she has asked them to meet at the library instead. Teresa understands that to meet her goal, she needs to __________

Answers

Answer: not walk in expecting it to be easy.

Explanation:

Of course we all want that beautiful body that all of the models have. But I am not going to try and sugar coat it... most of us get told that we are beautiful but often don’t feel that way. Have her Try eating before she goes to the restraint that way she will feel less tempted to eat the greasy poison.

A pharmaceutical company was forced to recall a pain reliever medications that had been linked to the fatalities of 200 people. Analysis of the recalled drug revealed the presence of 2 isomers due to an asymmetrical carbon atom in the drug molecule. What can be hypothesized from the observation? (4.2)
- The isomers are enantiomers, with 1 having toxic effects on humans

Answers

Answer:

The isomers are enantiomers, with 1 having toxic effects on humans

Explanation:

Many drugs marketed presently are "acemic mixtures of stereoisomers". They are either enantiomers or geometric isomers. What this means is that they are 2 isomers that are mirror images of each other but cannot be superimposed in each other (enantiomers), or they are 2 isomers that aren't mirror images. In the case of the pain reliever drug, there were two mirror isomers, however one of them had toxic effect on humans and rersulted to the fatalities recorded.

To be eligible under HIPAA regulations, for how long should an individual converting to an individual health plan have been covered under the previous group plan?

Answers

Answer:

18 months

Explanation:

According to HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), the individual must have had 18 months of continuous creditable health insurance  before applying for individual health coverage. Moreover, you should apply for the individual health coverage within 63 days of losing your previous creditable healthcare coverage under the group plan.

The cooperative social interaction in which one person responds to another's suggestions, which in turn can produce changes in perception, memory, thoughts, and behavior, is called _______.

Answers

Answer:

Hypnosis

Explanation:

Hypnosis refers to a mental state in which the person experiences a trance-like state with higher concentration and focus. An average person enters the hypnotic stage twice during a day in which the person feels relaxed and focussed.

The hypnosis therapy is provided to the person with the soothing verbal communication and mental imagery which relaxes the mind and can transform the mind of the patient. The transformation could be in the form of their perception, thoughts, memory and behaviour.

Thus, Hypnosis is the correct answer.

Answer:

Hypnosis.

Explanation:

Hypnosis may be defined as the psychological condition in which humans are in the state of extreme focus attention. The individual is more aware to respond to the different suggestions.

The hypnosis is a kind of psychological social interaction between the people and mainly linked with the suggestions. This kind of interaction can change the memory, behavior and thinking perspective of an individual. The individual is more concentrated for the particular thing.

Thus, the answer is hypnosis.

A child with a few vesicular lesions on her face is brought to the emergency room. She is diagnosed with chickenpox. To prevent transmission of chickenpox through direct contact, the LPN initiates contact precautions. Which of the following should also be initiated to isolate this illness?

a. Reverse isolation
b. Airborne precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. Droplet precautions

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is b. Airborne precaution

Explanation:

Chickenpox is a very contagious disease which is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It can be spread to healthy individual by coming in direct contact with the blister fluid or respiratory secretion of an infected person. Transmission through sneezing and coughing is also possible which comes under airborne transmission.

So as chickenpox virus can spread through direct contact and air therefore with contact precaution, airborne precaution should also be initiated to isolate this illness. So the right answer is b.

The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states which?

Answers

Answer:

The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states  "I can call my therapist when I'm hallucinating so I can talk about my feelings & plans & not hurt anyone."

Explanation:

The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states  "I can call my therapist when I'm hallucinating so I can talk about my feelings & plans & not hurt anyone."

Match the terms to their definition.

1. chromosome
a genetic characteristic of an individual
2. eukaryote
a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides that carry hereditary traits
3. gene
a cell whose nucleus is not bound by a membrane
4. prokaryote
a cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus
5. trait
tight coils of DNA

Answers

Answer/Explanation:

1. chromosome  - tight coils of DNA

Before the cell is ready to divide, it replicates the DNA and then condenses the DNA to form structures called chromosomes. These X shaped, tightly coiled structures are divided between two daughter cells, so that each cell has identical genetic information to the parent cell after it has been divided. The human genome is organised into pairs of 23 chromosomes (46 total).

2. eukaryote  - a cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus

Eukaryotes are distinct from prokaryotes because their DNA is housed in a membrane-bound organelle called a nucleus. Humans are examples of eukaryotes. Eukaryotes are usually much more complicated organisms than prokaryotes, which is why their DNA requires physical separation from other cell components. Eukaryotes also possess other membrane-bound organelles that are present in a prokaryote.

3. gene   - a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides that carry hereditary traits

DNA can (mostly) be divided up into functional units called genes. These genes specify proteins that play important functions in the cell. Variation in the DNA at genes can mean that the structure and function of the protein is affected, producing different traits for different individuals.

4. prokaryote -  a cell whose nucleus is not bound by a membrane

Unlikely eukaryotes as described in question 2, prokaryotes lack a membrane bound nucleus. Instead, their DNA is housed in a region of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid. Prokaryotes tend to have much less DNA and it is much less complex. It is usually organised into a single circular molecule

5. trait  - a genetic characteristic of an individual

Traits describe a characteristic that is determined by a gene or several genes working together, and can also be influenced by the environment (depending on what the trait is). Phenotypes describe a trait. For example, the pea plant height is a trait, but tall or short is the phenotype.

Answer: DNA traits is one of the best of the best of the best of the bestest of the bestestest and of the bestestestestestestesty

Explanation: no clue

Alendronate sodium is prescribed for an older adult client. which statement by the client to the nurse indicates that teaching about the medication is successful?

Answers

Answer: 2)."I will sit and read a book for half an hour after I take it."

Explanation:

Alendronate sodium is a medication which inhibits bone resorption. Its mode of administration is as followed; I). it should be taken on awakening and on an empty stomach for at least thirty (30) minutes before the first food, beverage or other medication of the day is taken. II). It should be taken with a full glass of plain water (8 oz) to rinse the esophagus.

iii). The patient must remain uprightly seated for at least thirty (30) minutes in order to facilitate absorption of the medication and alse decrease esophageal irritation.

The child life specialist (CLS) is preparing a 6-year-old child for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which statement reflects the use of atraumatic principles when explaining the procedure?

A)'You will be taken to a magnetic resonance imaging machine for an x-ray of your liver.'
B)'You may hear some loud noises when you are lying in the machine, but they won't hurt you.'
C)'You have nothing to worry about; the MRI machine is safe and will not cause you any pain.'
D)'Let's just get you to the x-ray department for your test and you'll see how simple it is.'

Answers

Answer:

You may hear some loud noises when you are lying in the machine, but they won't hurt you.

Explanation:

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging ) is the medical technique to diagnose the specific parts of the body. The MRI uses the magnetic waves to produce the images of the body parts.

The different sounds are produced by the machine when an individual is placed for the MRI scan. The CLS must explain to the child that machine do not produce any harm and tries to keep the child comfortable with the machine.  

Thus, the correct answer is option (B).

What is NOT a recognized swimming stoke?
A. Dog paddle
B. Butterfly
C. Breast stoke
D. Backstroke

Answers

Answer:

Dog paddle isn't a stroke technically in swimming, though it is used if you don't know how to properly swim.

Answer:

A. dog paddle is not recognized as a swimming stroke

Explanation:

is not recognized as a swimming stroke

At which stage of sensorimotor intelligence do we see babies engaging in actions to produce novel reactions?

Answers

Between 12-18 months

Explanation:

In this stage the infants are considered to be in their tertiary circular reaction stage and the baby will start to explore the objects and they will try the new ways in exploring them and they will start to try to reach out the objects

There are many stages of sensorimotor which will lasts still 24 months and there are also six sub stages in which all the primary the secondary and the tertiary reactions will be coordinated

_____ health refers to both the emotional and mental states of a person-that is, to feelings and thoughts.

Answers

Explanation:

Psychological is the correct answer!

Psychological

hope this helps

A multipara client who had a cesarean delivery states that whenever she breastfeeds her baby, she experiences uterine cramping at a pain level of 6-7. The appropriate nursing action will teach the client that:__________
a. oxytocin, which causes the uterus to contract, is released when the baby suckles at the breast.
b. the cramps will diminish if she massages her uterus before nursing her baby.
c. she has cramps because she had a cesarean delivery.
d. the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated when the baby breastfeeds.

Answers

Answer:

Option-A

Explanation

Oxytocin hormone is released during labour which helps contract the uterus after the delivery. The oxytocin hormone thus helps the labour process and healing of the body as it reduces the blood loss.

The oxytocin hormone is also released when the newborn baby or infant suckles at mothers nipples which help the milk to let down for the baby and promotes child bonding but it also causes menstrual-like cramps in the uterus.

Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.

A state of mental balance in which people are not confused because they can use their existing thought processes to understand current experiences and ideas is called _________.

Answers

Answer: Cognitive equilibrium

Explanation: Cognitive equilibrium is a state of mental balance between an individual and its environment. People are not confused because they can use their existing thought activities (stored in their memory house) to understand current situations and ideas.

Previous occasions are considered to understand and predicts a series of results of present events encountered.

What are some early pregnancy symptoms?

Answers

headaches, mood swings and bloated feeling.
Final answer:

Early pregnancy symptoms include changes in the digestive and urinary system, such as nausea, vomiting, heartburn, frequent urination, and weight gain in the abdominal and breast regions. There are dramatic enlargements of the abdominal region, increased blood volume, increased melanin production and possible appearance of skin stretch marks during this period.

Explanation:

Early pregnancy symptoms can be noticed primarily due to changes in the digestive and urinary system. Common symptoms include nausea and vomiting, often triggered by an increased sensitivity to odors. This is generally referred to as “morning sickness” but can persist all day. Additionally, decreased intestinal peristalsis may also contribute to this feeling of nausea.

Other noticeable changes include weight gain primarily in the breasts and abdominal region, heartburn, and frequent urination. Pregnancy leads to increases in maternal blood volume and respiratory minute volume, and skin may develop stretch marks and increased melanin production.

In the second and third trimesters, there is a dramatic enlargement of the abdominal region due to the growing fetus and the enlarged uterus, amniotic fluid, and placenta. This period is also marked by increased weight gain due to additional breast tissue and increased blood volume

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B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning. However, ________ suggested a cognitive aspect to learning.A. Edward C. Tolman
B. Ivan Pavlov
C. Little Albert
D. Rosalie Rayner

Answers

B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning. However, Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning.

A. Edward C. Tolman

Explanation:

Latent learning indicated that there was a subjective segment of discovering that was not identified with molding. Edward C. Tolman first proposed the hypothesis of inert learning in 1930, when his investigations with rodents demonstrated that learning was occurring even without the prompt nearness of a prize. Watson advanced an adjustment in brain science through his location Psychology as the Behaviorist Views it, which was given at Columbia University in 1913.

Final answer:

Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning, contrasting with strict behaviorists like B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson who did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning.

Explanation:

Strict behaviorists such as B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson were of the belief that learning could be fully accounted for by the processes of conditioning. They argued that cognition, including thoughts and expectations, had no role in the learning process. Skinner even viewed the mind as a "black box" that could not be understood or studied. Contrasting with this behaviorist perspective, Edward C. Tolman proposed a cognitive aspect to learning. Tolman's experiments with rats showcased that organisms could learn without immediate reinforcement, which implied that some form of mental processes played a part in learning. This idea pointed towards latent learning, where knowledge can be acquired without any obvious reinforcement and later influence behavior when needed.

What are nutrients?

Answers

Answer:

A nutrient is a substance used by an organism to survive, grow, and reproduce. The requirement for dietary nutrient intake applies to animals, plants, fungi, and protists.

Explanation:

Hope this helped :( ?

Answer:

nutrients is a substance that provides nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life

Explanation:

The greatest barrier that impedes pregnant women from receiving early prenatal care in Vermont is the lack of accessibility to health insurance, not the lack of education.True/false

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The rate of women who are pregnant and are receiving pre-natal care in Vermont was about 80 to 85 percent from year 2000 to 2010. This is below the set target by the Department of Health in Vermont for 90% of women to receive prenatal care. It was thought that lack of education was the main cause of these women not accessing prenatal healthcare, but after assessing Vermont healthcare current state, it is clearly seen that a lack of accessibility to health insurance is the major barrier for these women.

Conditioned emotional responses that include an increase in heart rate, perspiration, or a change in blood pressure are examples of __________.

Answers

Answer: They are examples of Classical Conditioning or Respondent Conditioning.

Explanation:

Classical conditioning or, also known as respondent conditioning, is the first type of learning where an organism responds to an environmental stimulus. This theory was developed by the Russian scientist Ivan Pavlov.

This theory is based on the fact that the stimulus triggers the response of an organism, that is, according to what the person perceives in their environment, they will react in a certain way. Pavlov, through the experiment of dog salivation, could see how people are conditioned to act in a certain way to various events.

The nurse is planning a class for nurses learning to teach early prenatal classes. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?

Answers

Answer:

Option B is correct

Explanation:

Prenatal classes is a non-mandatory class(although, it is mandatory in some hospital), the classes covers all what pregnant women should expect during pregnancy and how to prepare for them. The course last for about four to six weeks in many hospitals. The main goal if these classes is to educate and ensure that the expecting mothers are health with their unborn babies.

Pre-natal classes also educate pregnant women on what to expect during Labor and childbirth. Also, during breastfeeding (that is, the beginning of Parenthood).

From all what has been said above, we can see that For a nurse planning a class to teach in early prenatal classes option option B statement indicates that teaching has been effective.

After enduring the stress of a flood that destroyed her home and most of her possessions, Ashley's cancer began spreading more rapidly. This may have been due, in part, to her _____.

Answers

Answer:

reduced NK cell count.

Explanation:

The tumoricidal capacity of the NKs is enhanced in vitro by certain interleukins, especially IL-2. The in vivo activity of the NKs is not yet fully known, but it has been observed that patients with low NK count are more susceptible to certain types of tumors, for example certain types of lymphomas. It is currently used in humans of IL-2 as a therapy against tumors, especially in kidney cancer.

Ashley’s cancer may have spread more rapidly due to the significant stress and anxiety caused by the flood.

After enduring the stress of a flood that destroyed her home and most of her possessions, Ashley's cancer began spreading more rapidly. This may have been due, in part, to her experiencing significant stress and anxiety. Natural disasters, such as floods, create conditions that drastically affect individuals' daily lives, often leading to heightened levels of stress, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). These psychological stressors can weaken the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight diseases, including cancer. A disrupted routine and lack of essential resources can exacerbate underlying health issues, leading to a rapid progression of diseases like cancer.

which strategies have the potential to prevent the spread of disease select the three correct answers
a=earlier intervention
b=closing water purification plants.
c=education through social media
d=the development of new vaccines.

Answers

The correct answers are: a) Earlier intervention, c) Education through social media, and d) The development of new vaccines.

The three strategies with the potential to prevent the spread of disease are:

a) Earlier intervention: Early detection and intervention can help contain the spread of diseases by identifying cases promptly and implementing appropriate control measures.

c) Education through social media: Utilizing social media platforms for public health education campaigns can raise awareness about preventive measures, symptoms, and treatment options, thus empowering individuals to take necessary precautions.

d) The development of new vaccines: Vaccines play a crucial role in preventing the spread of infectious diseases by providing immunity to individuals, thereby reducing the likelihood of transmission within communities.

Complete Question:

Which strategies have the potential to prevent the spread of disease? Select the three correct answers.

a) earlier intervention

b) closing water purification plants.

c) education through social media

d) the development of new vaccines.

The purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV. This purpose statement indicates that this is probably a (n): a. Correlational study b. Descriptive study c. Experimental research d. Quasi experimental research

Answers

The statement 'the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV' indicates that this is probably a descriptive study (Option b).

A descriptive study refers to a type of study where data are collected without producing any change in the environment

In consequence, in a descriptive study, the environment is not manipulated to obtain data.

The main objective of a descriptive study is to provide basic data on the variables analyzed in the dataset.

In conclusion, the statement 'the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV' indicates that this is probably a descriptive study (Option b).

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Based on the information given, it can be deduced that it's a descriptive study.

A descriptive study simply means a study where information is collected without changing the environment. It's typically used to describe a particular population.

Since the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV, this is a descriptive study.

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