A wedding planner uses 72 ivy stems for 18 centerpieces. When she arrives at the venue, she realizes she will only need 16 centerpieces. How many ivy steams should she use so that the ratio of ivy stems to centerpieces stay the same ?

Answer: 8%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(6x2)+(3x3)=

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello there!

This question is ambiguous.

I'm assuming you want to write an equation for the given expression.

These are just a few of the ways that we can write it:

3(6n+x)

6n+3x

:)

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

b^4  /4

Let b=2

2^4  /4

16/4

4

Answer:

65°

Step-by-step explanation:

all angles in a trapezium equate to 360°

R is 115°

115+115=230

360-230=130

130÷2=65

Answer:

65

Step-by-step explanation:

sum of co-interior angles is 180

115 + P =180

P = 180-115 = 65

Answer:

d 40 for volume you multiply all the numbers by eachother

Step-by-step explanation:

4 ×2=8

8×5=40

Answer:

Volume of box = 40 cu. in.

Step-by-step explanation:

Width of box = 4 in.

Height of box = 2 in.

Length of box = 5 in.

Volume of box = Width × Height × Length

= 4 × 2 × 5

= 40 cu. in.

To calculate the sales tax for an $8.00 pillow in Connecticut, convert the 6.35% tax rate to decimal and multiply it with the pillow's price, then round to the nearest cent and add to the original price. The sales tax is $0.51, making the total price $8.51.

To find the sales tax amount and the total price of an $8.00 pillow in Connecticut, with a sales tax rate of 6.35%, follow these steps:

First, convert the percentage to a decimal by dividing by 100. So 6.35% becomes 0.0635.

Next, multiply the pillow's price by this decimal to calculate the sales tax amount. That is $8.00 * 0.0635 = $0.508.

Since you need to round to the nearest penny, round $0.508 to $0.51.

Finally, add the sales tax to the original price to get the total cost. So the total price is $8.00 + $0.51 = $8.51.

The sales tax on an $8.00 pillow is $0.51, and the total price including tax is $8.51.

Answer:

1. No solutions

2. one solution

3. one solution

4. infinite  many solutions

5. one solution

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

102°

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the triangle is an isosceles triangle, two sides are equal and angle opposite to them are also equal.

Therefore, x°+39°+39°=180°

=> x°+78° = 180°

=> x° = 180-78° = 102°

Answer:

School ended at 3:20 pm

Step-by-step explanation:

The school ended at the same time as the final bell. We will call this time "x". After 20 minutes the practice began, therefore it began at "x + 20 min" and it lasted for 30 min, therefore it ended at "x + 50 min". She took an additional 15 minutes to get home, therefore she got home at "x + 65 min" or "x + 1h05min". We know that she arrived at 4:25, so:

x + 1:05 = 4:25

x = 4:25 - 1:05

x = 3:20 p.m.

School ended at 3:20 pm

FG goes through the center of the circle, so FG is diameter.

[tex]d = 2r \\ r = \dfrac{d}{2} \\ \\ r = \dfrac{6}{2} = 3[/tex]

EH=r=3

Answer: EH=3

Answer: 5 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

If you get $24 for 3 hours divide them 24 divided by 3 is 8

you get 8 dollars every hour.

40 divided by 8 is 5

so you worked for 5 hours.

hope this works!!

really want brainliest!!!

Answer:

$54.61

Step-by-step explanation:

For this question, you would need to figure out how much the total is without the tax.

.2 x 43 = 8.6

After you do that, you would need to find the total with tax.

.07 x 43 = 3.01

Add all of those up.

43 + 8.6 + 3.01 = $54.61

Feel free to let me know if you need more help. :)

Answer:

−3a+38

Step-by-step explanation:

i simplified the expression

Answer:

x=-12

Step-by-step explanation:

−2x−24+24=0+24

−2x=24

Step 2: Divide both sides by -2.

−2x /−2 = 24 /−2

x=-12

Answer:

hope its right lol

To solve the equation -5+1/4x=3x+6 by graphing, rewrite the equation, graph it, and identify where the line crosses the x-axis. This x-coordinate represents the solution. If the line doesn't cross the x-axis, there's no solution.

To solve the equation −5+1/4x=3x+6 by graphing, begin by rewriting the equation as 1/4x − 3x = 6 + 5. This simplifies to -2.75x = 11. Next, graph the equation y = -2.75x + 11 on a coordinate plane.

To find the x-coordinate for the solution, see where the line crosses the x-axis (meaning y = 0). This will give you your solution, which is the value of x that makes the equation true.

However, you may find that graphing the given equation results in a line that does not intersect the x-axis. This means the equation has no solution when y equals to zero.

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Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add them all you get 14, divide it by the amount of terms, 7, and you get 2.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1) -5 +3 = -2

When two numbers are in different sign, subtract and the result will have the bigger numbers sign.  The bigger number is 5. so the result is (-2)

2) -7 - 2 = -9

When two numbers have same sign, add and the result will have the common sign

3) 122 * (-9) = - 1098

4) -6 ÷ (3/4)

[tex]=(-6)*\frac{4}{3}\\\\=-2*4[/tex]

= -8

Answer:

x=15

Step-by-step explanation:

3(2x+5)=3x+4x

6x+15=3x+4x. *multiplied parentheses by 3*

15=3x+4x+-6. *moves all x to one side*

15=× * added

x=15

Add the two bases together, divide by 2 then multiply by the height.

8+6 = 14

14/2 = 7

7x5 = 35

The area is 35 square Feet

Answer:

The simulation tool could be a coin flip, with heads up representing a girl and tails up representing a boy. One trial would require flipping the coin twice. One table would show the outcome of two coin tosses as tally marks, and indicate whether the results were boy-boy, boy-girl, or girl-girl.

Final answer:

A simulation to estimate the percentage of two-child families with two girls involves using a random number generator, assigning numbers to represent gender, and conducting repeated trials. By calculating the proportion of simulations resulting in two girls, we can estimate the percentage of such families in the town.

Explanation:

To estimate the percentage of two-child families with two girls in a town of 10,000 such families, a simple simulation could employ a random number generator as the simulation tool. We can model each child as a separate random event with an equal probability of being a girl or a boy, ignoring other complexities such as multiple births or gender selection.

Here is a step-by-step explanation of how the simulation could be designed and conducted:

Assign numbers to represent the outcomes: 1 for a girl and 0 for a boy.

For each simulation, use a random number generator to produce two numbers (each being 0 or 1) to represent the two children in a family.

If both numbers generated are 1, then that simulation represents a family with two girls.

Repeat the simulation 10,000 times, once for each family.

Count the number of simulations that resulted in two girls.

Divide the count of two-girl families by the total number of families (10,000) to get the percentage of families with two girls.

This process would simulate the random assignment of genders in two-child families and allow the estimation of the percentage of families with two girls.

The phrase 'A number x divided by 3 is at most 5' is represented by the inequality x/3 ≤ 5. When solved, this gives x ≤ 15, indicating x can be any number up to and including 15.

The given word problem relates to the concept of inequalities in mathematics, specifically linear inequalities. In the phrase 'A number x divided by 3 is at most 5', 'at most' translates to 'less than or equal to' in mathematical terms. Thus, this statement translates to the inequality x/3 ≤ 5.

To find the range of possible values for x, you can solve this inequality. By multiplying each side of the inequality by 3 (the inverse operation of division), you would get x ≤ 15. This means that x can be any number less than or equal to 15.

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Answer:

h(-1) =-3

Step-by-step explanation:

h(x) = 2x - 1

Let x = -1

h(-1) = 2(-1) -1

h(-1) = -2-1

h(-1) = -3

Answer:

33 inches to the nearest inch.

Step-by-step explanation:

Length of an arc = rC where r = the radius and C is the angle through which it turns in radians.

So for the 23 inch radius: length = 23 * 135 * π / 180

and for the 9 inch radius: length = 9 * 135 * π / 180

The difference =  23 * 135 * π / 180 - 9 * 135 * π / 180

= 14 * 135 * π / 180

=  32.99 inches.

The nearest inch, the top arc is approximately 33 inches longer than the bottom arc.

To find out how much longer the top arc is than the bottom arc, we need to calculate the lengths of both arcs and then find the difference between them.

The formula to calculate the length of an arc is:

[tex]\[ \text{Arc length} = \text{radius} \times \text{angle in radians} \][/tex]

First, we need to convert the angle from degrees to radians, since the formula for arc length uses radians.

[tex]\[ \text{Angle in radians} = \frac{\text{Angle in degrees} \times \pi}{180} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Angle in radians} = \frac{135 \times \pi}{180} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Angle in radians} = \frac{3\pi}{4} \][/tex]

Now, let's calculate the lengths of both arcs:

For the bottom arc (with radius 9 inches):

[tex]\[ \text{Arc length}_\text{bottom} = \frac{27\pi}{4} \][/tex]

Now, to the nearest inch, we can approximate the difference:

[tex]\[ \text{Difference} \approx 10.5 \times 3.14 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ \text{Difference} \approx 32.97 \][/tex]

Rounded to the nearest inch, the top arc is approximately 33 inches longer than the bottom arc.

Answer:

Ocean Currents bringing cooler air.

Step-by-step explanation:

Being closer to the ocean is also right but this one makes both right.Being closer to the cold ocean brings colder air.

The cooler temperatures observed on moving from Tennessee to California could be due to:

Temperature is the degree of coldness or hotness of an object or a particular place.

The temperature of an area is affected by:

California is area that is closer to the oceans.

Therefore, the cooler temperatures observed on moving from Tennessee to California could be due to:

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Answer:

10.2 years

gain is $2,704.00

rate of return is 22%

Step-by-step explanation:

The it would take for mutual to double can be determined the future value formula as shown below:

=nper(rate,pmt,-pv,fv)

rate is the rate of return of 7% per year

pmt is the periodic amount placed in the mutual fund and it not applicable here

pv is the original amount invested which is $7,500

fv is the future worth of $15,000

=nper(7%,0,-7500,15000)=10.2 years

cost of shares=actual cost of purchase+broker's commission

                      =(800*$15.34)+$20=$12,292.00  

gain on shares=sales proceeds-cost=(800*$18.77)-$20-$12,292.00=$2,704.00  

rate of return=gain/original cost=$2,704.00/$12,292.00  =22%

Answer:

D. Undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

The line is a vertical line.

Vertical lines have undefined slopes

Answer:

Undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

Vertical lines will always have undefined slopes. This is a vertical line because it is straight up and down.

To make sure, we can test 2 points: (2,1) and (2,2) in the slope formula

y2-y1/x2-x1

2-1/2-2

1/0

It is impossible to divide by 0, so the slope is undefined.